CLASS-IX AARAMBH CODE-S2011019
CLASS-IX AARAMBH DATE: 01-10-19
Max. Time: 120 min Max marks: 320
Instructions:
i. The test paper consists of 80 multiple choice questions numbered from 1 to 80, each question
followed by four alternatives 1, 2, 3 and 4.
ii. Mental Ability 1 to 20, Mathematics 21 to 35, Physics 36 to 50 and Chemistry 51 to 65,
Biology 66 to 80.
iii. Each question has only one correct option.
iv. (a) Each correct answer carries +4 Marks.
(b) For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted.
MAT (Q.NO.1 TO 20)
1. If GO=32, SHE=49, then SOME will be equal to
1) 56 2) 58 3)62 4) 64
2. If DRIVER=12, PEDESTRIAN=20, ACCIDENT=16, then CAR=?
1) 3 2) 6 3) 8 4) 10
3. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can
CALICUT be coded?
1)5279431 2) 5978213 3)8251896 4)8543691
Directions ( Q.No-4) : Count the number of cubes the following figure :
4.
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1) 64 2) 66 3) 68 4) 70
Directions (Q.No-5-8): Three different positions X,Y and Z of a dice are shown in the figures
given below. Answer the following questions which are based upon these figures.
5. Which number lies at the bottom face in position X?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 6 4) Cannot be determined
6. Which number lies at the bottom face in position Y?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) Cannot be determined
7. Which number lies opposite 6?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
Directions (Q.No-8 to 11) : Each of the following questions below contains three
elements. These three elements may or not have some linkage. Each group of the
elements may fit into one of the diagrams at (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to indicate
groups of elements in each questions fit into which of the diagram given below.
The letter indicating the diagram is the answer.
8. Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students
1) e 2) b 3) c 4) d
9. Males, Fathers, Doctors
1) a 2) e 3) c 4) d
10. Anti-social elements, Pickpocketers, Blackmailers
1) a 2) e 3) c 4) d
11. Tall men, Black haired people, Indians
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1) a 2) b 3) c 4) e
12. Which term comes next in the series? YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ?
1) QOL 2) QGL 3) TOL 4) QNL
13. The positions of the second and the eighth digits of the number
39128564 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the fourth and
the fifth digits are interchanged. The positions of the first and sixth
digits are interchanged and the positions of the third and the seventh
digits are interchanged. Which of the following will be the third digit to
the left of 3 after the rearrangement?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
14. Manoj and Sachin are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class
of 31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?
1) 20th and 24th 2) 24th and 20th 3) 25th and 21st 4) 26th and 22nd
15.
1) 18 2) 33 3) 135 4) 145
Directions (Q. No-16) : Read the following information carefully and
answer the question given below:
' A + B ' means ‘A is the daughter of B’;
' A B ' means ‘A is the son of B’;
' A − B ' means ‘A is the wife of B’.
16. If T-S B – M, which of the following is not true?
1) B is mother of S. 2) M is husband of B
3) T is wife of S 4) S is daughter of B
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Directions (Q.No-17) : Count the number of squares in the following figures
17.
1) 18 2) 14 3) 10 4) 9
Directions (Questions No-18) : Mirror image
18.
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d
Directions (Q.No-19): Find out the water images
19.
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d
Directions (Q. No: 20): Embedded Figure.
20.
1) a 2) b 3) c 4) d
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MATHEMATICS (Q.NO.21 TO 35)
225 25 16
21. − =?
729 144 81
1 5 5
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
48 48 16
22. 3
.000064 = ?
1) .02 2) .2 3) 2 4) None of these
23. What will be the value of n4 −10n3 + 36n2 − 49n + 24 if n = 1?
1) 21 2) 2 3) 1 4) 22
1
1 1 3 4
24. 5 8 + 27 3 = _________
3
1) 3 2) 6 3) 5 4) 4
25. The factors of 9a2 − 6 5a + 5 are
(
1) 3a + 5 3a − 5)( ) 2) ( 3a − 5 )( 3a − 5 )
(
3) 3a − 5 3a − 5)( ) ( )
4) 3a + 5 ( 3a − 5)
x+3 x + 23
26. If + 3 x = 5 ( x − 3) + , then what is the value of x ?
2 5
1) 7 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
1 1 1
27. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of : : . If the perimeter is 52 cm, then the
2 3 4
length of the smallest side is :
1) 9 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 11 cm 4) 12 cm
28. HCF of x3 − 1 and x4 + x2 +1 will be
1) ( x − 1) 2) x2 + x + 1 3) x2 − x + 1 4) x2 − x −1
29. In ABC,a = 7cm,b = 8cm,c = 11cm then the length of the median from A on BC is
321 321
1) 2) 3) 8 4) 6
5 2
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30. In the adjoining figure, B = 70 , C = 30 , BO and CO are the angular bisectors of
ABC and ACD then value of BOC
1) 160 2) 150 3) 140 4) 130
31. In the given ABC, AD is median to BC and AD is produced to E, AC || BE, then
1) AD = BE 2) AC = DC 3) AD = DE 4) AB = AC
32. The population of Hyderabad was 68,09,000 in the year 2015. If it increases at the rate of
4.7% per annum. What will be the population at the end of the year 2019?
1) 81,81,199 2) 81,80,199 3) 80,82,199 4) 81,82,199
33. 10 men can lay a road 75 km. long in 5 days. In how many days can 15 men lay a road 45
km. long?
1) 1 days 2) 2 days 3) 3 days 4) 4 days
34. ABCD is an isosceles trapezium, AB//CD. If AC = 9cm, then BD =
1) 10cm 2) 4cm 3) 20cm 4) 9cm
35. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by
1) 8 2) 7 3) 6 4) 3
PHYSICS (Q.NO.36 TO 50)
36. Choose wrong, size of image formed in a plane mirror
1) Could be taller than the mirror
2) The height of the image depends on the object distance
3) The width of the image is the same as of the object
4) The image height depends on the object height
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37. Two masses of 1 kg and 5 kg are attached to the ends of a massless string passing over a
pulley of negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a light spring balance as shown
in the figure. The masses start moving during this interval, the reading of spring balance
will be
1) More than 6 kg 2) less than 6 kg 3) equal to 6 kg 4) none of the above
38. Which part of human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical signals?
1) Hammer 2) Stirrup 3) Tympanic membrane 4) Cochlea
39. If temperature increases, speed of sound
1) Also increases 2) decreases 3) remains same 4) may increase or decrease
40. Identify the planet whose length of the days and tilt of its axis are almost identical to
those of the earth
1) Uranus 2) Neptune 3) Saturn 4) Mars
41. In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the acceleration of the 1 kg mass is
1) g/4 downwards 2) g/4 upward 3) g/2 downwards 4) g/2 upward
42. A planet has mass 1/10 of that of earth, while radius is 1/3 that of earth. If a person can
throw a stone on earth surface to a height of 90m, then he will be able to throw the stone
on that planet to a height
1) 90m 2) 40m 3) 100m 4) 45m
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43. When a train stops suddenly, passengers in the running train feel an instant jerk in
the forward direction because
1) The back of seat suddenly pushes the passengers forward
2) Inertia of rest stops the train and takes the body forward
3) Upper part of the body continues to be in the state of motion whereas the lower part
of the body in contact with seat remains at rest
4) Nothing can be said due to insufficient data
44. Gary reads about Newton's third law while sitting in a room with a single closed door.
He reasons that if he applies a force to the door there will be an equal and opposite force
that will cancel his pull and he never will be able to escape. What is wrong with Gary's
reasoning?
1) He hasn't applied Newton's third law correctly
2) The force on the door must be greater than the force of the door on him.
3) The motion of the door is affected only by the net forces on the door, and the reaction force
on him is irrelevant.
4) All of the above.
45. A jar containing water is placed in a train. The train accelerates from left to right. Which
of the following shows the water level in the jar correctly?
46. What is the weight of a body inside an artificial satellite of earth?
1) It depends on the mass of the body 2) It depends on the velocity of satellite
3) Product of its mass and gravitational acceleration 4) Zero
47. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror and the angle of reflection is 50o. Calculate the
angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray.
1) 500 2) 250 3) 900 4) 1000
48. Eardrum is a part of
1) Sound producing organ 2) Skeletal system
3) Hearing organ 4) Reproductive organ
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49. While revolving an artificial satellite around earth, the required centripetal force is
provided by
1) Fuel contained in the satellite 2) gravitational force due to sun
3) gravitational force due to earth 4) Thrust produced by burning fuel
50. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other as shown in the figure. A
light ray is incident at an angle 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of
incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray
undergoes reflections (including the first one), before it emerges out, is
1) 28 2) 30 3) 32 4) 34
CHEMISTRY (Q.NO.51 TO 65)
51. The ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water by weight is
1) 1 : 2 2) 3 : 1 3) 1 : 8 4) 1 : 4
52. How many non- metals present in Periodic table
1) 22 2) 20 3) 18 4) 16
53. The property by virtue of which a substance can bear a lot of strain without breaking is
called as
1. Malleability 2. Ductility 3. Tensile strength 4.Conductivity
54. The molecular formula of cinnabar is
1) CaS 2) FeS2 3) HgS 4) HgS
55. Which of the following is a pure substance
1) Milk 2) Honey 3) Cheese 4) Iron
56. Different pigments from an extracts of flower petals are separated by
1) Winnowing 2) Chromatography 3) Sublimation 4) Distillation
57. One barrel equals to___________litres.
1) 156 litres 2) 172 litres 3) 159 litres 4) 132 litres
58. If 15 g of sugar is present in 85g of solution then mass percentage of
sugar is ___
1) 15 2) 17.6 3) 85 4) 100
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59. The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called
1) Ignition temperature 2) Spontaneous temperature
3) Normal temperature 4) All
60. The temperature at which a gas is converted to a liquid is known as
1) Condensation point 2) Freezing point
3) Melting point 4) Boiling point
61. The amount of solute present in a saturated solution at a certain temperature is called
its _________.
1) Solubility 2) Saturated solution
3) Unsaturated solution 4) Solubility product
62. Due to the great commercial importance of petroleum, it is also called as_____
1) Liquid Gold 2) Solid gold 3) Liquid silver 4) Liquid gas
63. Mercury and alcohol can be separated by
1) Fractional distillation 2) Filtration 3) Separating funnel 4) Sublimation
64. The ultimate source of energy of fossil fuels is --------
1) Earth 2) Earth quakes 3) Plants and Animals 4) Sun
65. Burning of charcoal in a closed room will produce
1) Carbon dioxide 2) Nitrogen dioxide 3) Carbon monoxide 4) All of these
BIOLOGY (Q.NO.66 TO 80)
66. Hen’s egg is a
1) Tissue 2) Organ 3) Organ system 4) cell
67. In human beings, the correct sequence of events during reproduction is
1) Gamete formation, fertilisation, zygote, embryo
2) Embryo, zygote, fertilisation, gamete formation
3) fertilisation, gamete formation, embryo, zygote
4) Gamete formation, fertilisation, embryo, zygote
68. Which of the following are characteristic feature of cells of xylem tissue?
(i) Tracheids and vessels are tubular structures which help in the process of translocation.
(ii) The cells of xylem are living cells except xylem parenchyma.
(iii) The cells have thick walls and many of them are dead cells.
(iv) Xylem fibres are mainly supportive in function
1) i and ii 2)ii and iii 3)iii and iv 4)I, iii and iv
69. The functions of which of the organelle include the storage, modification and packaging
of products in vesicles?
1) Lysosome 2) Vacuoles 3) Golgi apparatus 4) SER
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70. Which of the following statement is incorrect
1) Some tissues in plants divide throughout their life
2) Cell growth in animals is more uniform as compared to plants
3) Animals have more dead tissues as compared to plants
4) There is no demarcation of dividing and non-dividing regions in animals
71. Which of the following statements about reproduction in humans is correct?
1) Fertilisation takes place externally.
2) Fertilisation takes place in the testes.
3) During fertilisation egg moves towards the sperm.
4) Fertilisation takes place in the human female.
72. In human beings, after fertilisation, the structure which gets embedded in the wall of
uterus is
1) Ovum 2) embryo 3) foetus 4) zygote
73. The identifying features of meristematic tissues are
1) Thick cellulose cell wall, Small vacuoles, dense cytoplasm, Small nuclei
2) Thin cellulose cell wall, Almost no vacuoles, dense cytoplasm, prominent nuclei
3) Thin cellulose cell wall, No vacuoles, Sparse cytoplasm, prominent nuclei
4) Thick cellulose cell wall, Large vacuoles, Sparse cytoplasm, small nuclei
74. Rhizobium is found in root nodules of which of the following plants?
1) Cereals 2) Pulses 3) Oilseeds 4) Horticultural plants
75. Sets of reproductive terms are given below. Choose the set that has an incorrect
combination.
1) Sperm, testis, sperm duct, penis 2) menstruation, egg, oviduct, uterus
3) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus 4) ovulation, egg, oviduct, uterus
76. The first phase of the sexual cycle in the human female is called.
1) Ovulation 2) implantation 3) menstruation 4) follicle phase
77. Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of
secretion of
1) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
2) Oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
3) Testosterone from testes and Oestrogen from ovary
4) Testosterone from thyroid gland and Oestrogen from pituitary gland
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78. Select the incorrect sentence
1) Blood has matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones.
2) Two bones are connected with ligament.
3) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile.
4) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue.
79. Match the following
A B
a) Virus i) Housefly
b) Yeast ii) Chickenpox
c) Female Aedes Mosquito iii)Alcohol
d) Common carrier of communicable diseases iv) Dengue
1)a-iii,b-ii,c-iv,d-I 2)a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-Iv 3)a-ii,b-iii,c-iv,d-I 4)a-ii,b-ic-iv,d-iii
80. Red Data Book keeps the record of …….
1) endangered animals & plants 2) extinct animals and plants
3) Endemic animals and plants 4) all of the above
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