AIRCRAFT RADIO SYSTEMS

AIRCRAFT CATEGORY `R’ RADIO SYSTEMS LICENCE WITHOUT TYPE

RATING

TYPICAL MODULE EXAMINATIONS QUESTIONS

@march 22, 2003

INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEMS - I.L.S

1. Between 108—112 MHz ILS frequencies are

(a) Even frequencies

(b) Odd frequencies
(c) All frequencies

2. At 0.1MHz frequency spacing, there will be available between 108 and 112 MHz the
Following number of channels

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 30

3. The indicator presentation below informs the pilot to

(a) Fly the A/C Down and to the Right

(b) Fly the A/C Up and to the Right
(c) Fly the A/C Up and to the Left

4. The indicators presentation below informs the pilot he is

(a) A above the glide path and to the left of the correct track approach
(b) Below the glide path and to the left of the correct track approach
(c) Above the glide path and to the Right of the correct track approach

5. The signal components o/p of a localizer receiver signal detector is

(a) 90Hz, 150Hz and 1020 Audio Tones

(b) 90 Hz, 150 Hz and 400 Hz Audio Tones
(c) 90 Hg and 150 Hg Audio Tones

6. The signal components of the o/p of the signal detector of a glide slope Rx is

(a) 90 Hz, 150 Hz and 1020 Hz audio tones

(b) 90 Hz, 150 Hz audio tones
(c) 90 Hz, 150 Hz and 400 Hz audio tones

7. The localizer pointer indicator currents represent

(a) The sum of the Rectifier currents

(b) The difference of the rectifier currents
(c) The product of the rectifier currents

8. The glide path receiver frequency range is;

(a) 329--335 MHz

(b) 108--135.95 MHz
(c) 108--117.9 MHz

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9. The localizer flag indicator current represents:

(a) The difference of the rectifier currents

(b) The ratio of the rectifier currents
(c) The sum of the rectifier currents

10. The depth of modulation of the localizer ground transmission is:

(a) 20% 90 Hz, 40% 150 Hz

(b) 20% 90 Hz, 20% 150 Hz
(c) 40% 90 Hz, 20% 150 Hz

11. The glide slope pointer indicator currents represent

(a) The difference of the rectifier currents

(b) The product of the rectifier currents
(c) The product of the rectifier currents

12. Deviation of ILS flag Alarm currents

(a) Sum of o.k. O/Ps

(b) Difference of o.k. O/Ps

13. If an A/C is flying above glide path on ILS approach, the cross pointer will show

(a) Above normal position

(b) Below normal position

14. The 111.3 MHz is

(a) ILS frequency

(b) comm. frequency

15. The Autopilot, when coupled to a localizer Rx, will command the A/C in

(a) Roll axis

(b) Pitch axis
(c) Yaw axis

16. The R.F frequency of marker is

(a) 118 MHz

(b) 108 MHz
(c) 75 MHz

17. For glide path the needle has to move for F.S.D

(a) 10 degrees
(b) 2 .5 degrees
(c) 0.5 degrees

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18. For localizer the needle has to move for F.S D

(a) 10 degrees
(b) 2.5 degrees
(c) 0.5 degrees

19. The glide path flag indicator currents represent

(a) Sum of the rectifier currents

(b) The difference of the rectifier currents
(c) The product of the rectifier currents

20. The depth of modulation of the glide path ground transmission is

(a) 20% 90Hz, 20% 150Hz

(b) 40% both 90Hz and 150 Hz
(c) 40% 90 Hz, 20% 150Hz

21. Which of the following is a glide path frequency?

(a) 108.3 MHz

(b) 135.95 MHz
(c) 330.4 MHz

22. At 0.3 MHz frequency spacing, there will be available between 329.3--335 MHz, the
following number of channels

(a) 40
(b) 20
(c) 30

23. Which of the following is a localizer frequency?

(a) 108.3 MHz

(b) 119.7 MHz
(c) 110.4 MHz

24. The comparator of a localizer Rx is designed to operate the deviation pointer of five
identical instruments, providing a total load of 200 ohms. If two instruments are
removed, a dummy load must compensate for missing instruments. The value of
this load would be:

(a) 333 ohms

(b) 500 ohms
(c) 100 ohms

25. In a VHF Navigation System Selecting a localizer frequencies automatically selects

(a) The paired VOR frequencies

(b) The paired glide path frequencies
(c) The paired marker frequencies

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26. The polarization of localizer and VOR and glide path is

(a) Glide path horizontal, localizer horizontal, VOR horizontal

(b) Glide path vertical, localizer vertical, VOR horizontal
(c) Glide path horizontal, localizer horizontal VOR horizontal

27. In the localizer receiver the D.C voltages component of the 0/p of signal is

(a) Some or all of the R.F stages

(b) Some or all of the R.F stages and tone Amplifiers
(c) All the R.F stages

28. In localizer receives the 1020 Hz component of the o/p of signal detector is

(a) Supplied to the signal comparator circuit

(b) Supplied to the Audio Amplifier via a low pass filter
(c) Supplied to the Audio Amplifier via a high pass filter

29. 108.9 is selected on the controller, the received signal will

(a) Amplitude modulated at 90Hz and 150Hz (1020 Hz)

(b) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and 9960Hz
(c) Amplitude modulated at 9960Hz

30. The HI-LO switch on the marker controller is selected to LO. This will be

(a) Decrease the Rx b/width

(b) Decrease the Rx selectivity
(c) Decrease the Rx sensitivity by 10 dB

31. During and ILS Approach, when the A/c is above the glide slope, the G/S needle will be

(a) Out of view

(b) Above zero line
(c) Below the zero line

32. During an ILS Approach, when the A/c is passing over the outer marker, the beacon
indicator indicates the following information

(a) Amber lamp flashes 2 dashes /sec continuously

(b) Blue lamp flashes 2 dashes /sec continuously
(c) White lamp flashes alternate dots and dashes

33. On a modern Flight Director Indicator, the command bars are driven by

(a) The steering computer

(b) ILS o/p
(c) The vertical Reference Gyro

34. The rising runway symbol is

(a) Driven by the glide slope o/p

(b) Biased out of view if Radio Altimeter fails
(c) Is only engaged during last 200ft of Descent.
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35. A localizer Rx is designed to work into five 1000-ohm indicators. If the Three Instrument
are removed and you have available a 1000 ohm, a 500 ohm and 250 ohm resistor, which
combination of these resistors would produce the correct compensation?

(a) 1000 ohm in parallel with 250 ohm

(b) 500 ohm in parallel with 250 ohm
(c) 1000 ohm in parallel with 500 ohm

36. What is the standard Deflection Sensitivity for glide slope tests?

(a) 2dB DDM gives F.S.D of 150 u.A

(b) 2dB DDM gives 75 uA up or down
(c) 4dB DDM gives approximately half scale

37. What is modern writing practice for ILS pointers and Flags?

(a) All flags in parallel, all pointers in parallel

(b) All flags in parallel, all pointers in series
(c) All flags in series or parallel, all pointers in series or parallel

38. When testing marker audio with an Approved Test set

(a) 1020 Hz must be switched on as well as 400, 1300 or 5000 Hz

(b) Operation of HI-LO must be carried out to check for a reduction in volume
(c) The Tone must correspond to the lamp that illuminated

39. F.S.D currents for Localizer pointer and Loc Flag are respectively

(a) 150 uA and 150 uA

(b) 150 uA and 250 uA
(c) 90 uA and 150 uA

40. On a 2 DOT CDI one dot deflection on Glide slope corresponds to an OFF- Course position of

(a) 0.5 degrees

(b) 2dB d.d.m approximately
(c) 1.25 degrees

41. Using an approved ILS/VOR Ramp Test Set to Test marker HI--LO Sensitivity

(a) You must always use the High-level marker socket

(b) You would expect a difference of about -10 dB if operative from the attenuated
o/p and marker switched to HI from LO
(c) You must always move the Test Set and / OR its aerial further away from marker
aerial when testing HI level signal

42. G/S information is coupled via the Autopilot to a

(a) Rudder
(b) Elevators
(c) Ailerons

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44. If an A/C flying Above Glide path on ILS Approach, the cross pointer will show

(a) Above normal position

(b) Below normal position

45 .The 111.3 MHz is

(a) ILS Frequency

(b) Comm. frequency

46. With Nav Rx selected to 108 .9 MHz, the received signal

(a) Amplitude modulated at 90 Hz and 150 Hz

(b) Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz and 9960 Hz
(c) Amplitude at 9960 Hz

47. A standard localizer deviation signal provides to the deviation Indicator

(a) 150 mA
(b) 90 mA
(c) 30 mA

48. When fitting the three marker lamps on the captain’s instrument panel, they should be fitted
in a vertical column in the sequence of

(a) Outer - Middle - Airway

(b) Airway- Outer - Middle
(c) Airway -Middle -Outer

49. An A/c making ILS Approach is below the glide path and to the left of the correct
localizer approach. The localizer and glide path receivers are therefore receiving

(a) A Glide path signal with 90Hz modulation greater than 150 Hz localizer signal
with 90Hz modulation greater than 150Hz
(b) Glide path and localizer signals each modulated to equal depth by 90Hz and 150Hz
(c) A glide path signal with 150 Hz predominant and localizer signal with 90Hz predominant

50. An A/c making an ILS Approach is flying 0.5 degrees above glide path. The course
deviation indicator glide path pointer is therefore indicating

(a) F.S.D flies down

(b) Half scale Deflection fly down
(c) Somewhere between zero and full scale deflection fly down

51. A Glide path Rx is designed to work into five 1000-ohm indicators. If Three of the
instruments are removed and you have available a 1000, 500 and 250 ohm resistors,
which combination of these resistors would provide correct compensation?

(a) 250 ohms in parallel with 1000 ohms

(b) 500 ohms in parallel with 250 ohms
(c) 500 ohms in parallel with 1000 ohms

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52. An A/c is making an ILS Landing. The course deviation Indicator glide path
pointer indicates fly down and the lateral deviation bar fly left. The A/c is therefore

(a) Above the Glide path and to the Right of the localizer Track
(b) Above the glide path and to the Left of the localizer Track
(c) Below the glide path and to the Right of the localizer Track

53. When the Nav flag of a course Deviation Indicator is out of sight the received signal is

(a) VHF carrier modulated by 90 Hz and 150 Hz Tones

(b) VHF carrier modulated by 9960 F.M 30 Hz and 30 Hz.
(c) Either (a) or (b) depending on frequency selected at Nav. Controller

54. When making correct localizer approach, the received signal is modulated

(a) 40%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%

55. A large capacitance is fitted across the localizer movement pointer of an ILS indicator
for the purpose of

(a) Preventing the needle fluctuating

(b) Damping Oscillation
(c) Compensating for Aircraft vibration

56. When making ILS Approach, FSD of Course Indicator, lateral Deviation bar to the left
of the center will correspond to

(a) 10 degrees off course to the left of the On course condition

(b) 2.5 degrees off course to the left of the On course condition
(c) 2.5 degrees off course to the Right of the On course condition

57. The aerial o/p need to light the marker lamp with Lo selected at the controller is typically

(a) 10 dB less than when HI is selected

(b) The same as when HI is selected
(c) 10 dB greater than when HI is selected

58. During an ILS Approach when the Aircraft is above the glide path the glide slope
needle will be

(a) Out of view

(b) Above zero line
(c) Below zero line

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TWO: RADIO COMMUNICATION

1. In an IF aerial Installation, the weak pin is designed to shear

(a) At 260 lbs

(b) At about 80 lbs below wire U.T.S
(c) At 350lbs for phosphor bronze wire

2. One function of H.F Interlock may be:

(a) To prevent two H.F systems receiving at the same time

(b) To earth the audio o/p of HF1 Rx when HFI Tx is radiating
(c) To earth the audio o/p of HF1 Rx when H.F2 Tx is radiating

3. If an operator of a modern SSB HF Tx selects 9.999MHz an AM operation, what

frequencies are related?

(a) Upper and lower sidebands of 9.999 MHz plus 9.999 MHz
(b) 9.993 MHz to 10.002 MHz
(c) 9.999 MHz and 9.993 to 10.002 MHz

4. The H.F automatic Tuner sequence is

(a) Home, Loading, Phasing, Cal. Tone One

(b) Cal Tone One, Home, Phasing, Loading
(c) Cal Tone One, Loading, Phasing, Home

5. For reception of selcal by an H.F Rx the mode switch must be positioned to

(a) USB
(b) A.M
(c) A.M or USB

6. To prevent the aerial from static charges

(a) Bleeder resistors are used

(b) It is bonded to the A/c
(c) Discharge tube is used (spark gap)

7. The impedance of an H.F wire aerial is

(a) 75 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) Dependent of the frequency

8. Neutralizing is used in

(a) Oscillators
(b) Power Amps
(c) Detectors

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9. Neutralizing is used

(a) To eliminate Negative f/back

(b) To eliminate positive f/back
(c) Inter electrode capacitance

10. Crystal Oscillator is used to generate the carrier wave because

(a) It has a high power o/p

(b) It has a good stability
(c) It can be heavily loaded

11. Two tuned circuits are coupled together such that Double Humping is very
evident in the secondary. The circuits are

(a) Loosely coupled

(b) Critically coupled
(c) Tightly coupled

12. Frequency spacing for modern H.F Installation is

(a) 500 KHz

(b) 1 KHz
(c) 25 KHz

13. A squelch circuit is used to

(a) Reduce the background Noise in an Rx

(b) Reduce the peaky noise in Rx
(c) Reduce positive feedback

14. A VHF transmitter o/p stage is matched to an aerial by means of

(a) A step up transformer

(b) A 1:1 transformer
(c) A step down transformer

15. Which of the following frequencies should not be used when making ground tests on
VHF communication system?

(a) 120.5 MHz

(b) 121.5 MHz
(c) 122.5 MHz

16. Which of the following frequencies is a communications frequency?

(a) 127.2 MHz

(b) 109.4 MHz
(c) 117.9 MHz

17. If the unmodulated power of an HF DSB Tx is 100 watts and the modulation factor is 0.8,
what is the modulated power output?
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 (a) 100w
(b) 132w
(c) 150w

18. The power o/p of modern VHF Tx is of the order

(a) 5--10 watts

(b) 10--20 watts
(c) 20--30 watts

19. Will anti-cross talk attenuators of communication control equipment be?

(a) In a circuit for Normal operation

(b) In a circuit for Emergency operation
(c) In a circuit for Normal and Emergency operation

20. If the Isolation Amplifier fails, then

(a) The Mic Circuits cease completely

(b) The Tel circuits cease completely
(c) The Mic and Tel. circuits can be used in Emergency.

21. A VHF Tx is designed for carbon Mic operation. An EM mic can be used

(a) As a Direct replacement for carbon mic

(b) Not in any circumstances as a replacement for carbon mic
(c) As a replacement provide an External Mic Amplifier is used

22. A Grounded Grid Amplifier could be used as

(a) An I.F Amplifier in an Rx

(b) An R.F Amplifier in an Rx
(c) An o/p Amplifier in an Rx

23. A Balanced Modulator could be used

(a) As an IF Amplifier in a Rx
(b) As a mixer stage in either A Rx or in Tx
(c) As an A.F Amplifier in a Rx

24. A Common Base Transistor at the I/P resistance is

(a) Low
(b) Large (of the order of Kilo ohms)
(c) Very large in (M ohms)

25. Thermal Runaway is counteracted by placing

(a) An additional Resistance in the collector circuit

(b) A Resistance in the Emitter circuit
(c) A series Resistance in the Base circuit

26. An R.F power amplifier in a Tx has a meter in its Anode circuit is tuned for
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 (a) Maximum current
(b) Minimum current
(c) An intermediate value of current

27. To reduce the risks of parasitic oscillation in valve amplifier in a Tx, resistors are placed

(a) In the H.T line

(b) In parallel with the Grid and Anode leads
(c) In series with the Grid and Anode leads

28. When using a frequency multiplier circuit the harmonic contents of the anode current
should be

(a) Large
(b) Small
(c) Non- existent

29. A crystal filter circuit in the anode of a mixer

(a) Reduces the Rx Bandwidth

(b) Increase the Rx Bandwidth
(c) Reduces the Rx Bandwidth

30. A Common Emitter Amplifier has a current gain of

(a) Less than one

(b) Greater than one
(c) Equal to one

31. An 80 ohm Dipole is connected to a coaxial feeder, which has characteristic impedance
of 8 ohm. If the resistance between the Inner and Outer cable is measured with a
multimeter from the other end of the Co-axial, the reading will be

(a) 160 ohms

(b) 40 ohms
(c) 20 M ohms

32. An aerial, which is too short, behaves

(a) Resistively
(b) Inductively
(c) Coactively

33. The Impedances of a half wavelength Dipole is

(a) A maximum at its center and minimum at its ends

(b) A minimum at its center and maximum at its ends
(c) A minimum at its center and zero at its ends

34. A padder capacitor in a local Oscillator circuit is

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 (a) Adjusted at the bottom end of the band to obtain the correct minimum capacitance
(b) Adjusted at the top end of the band to obtain the correct minimum capacitance
(c) Adjusted at the top end of the band to obtain the correct maximum capacitance

35. The Radiation Resistance of an Aerial is

(a) Equal to the Impedance at its center

(b) Equal to the Impedance at the free end.
(c) A variable value dependent upon the point of connection of the transmission line

36. A carbon microphone requires

(a) A polarizing supply derived directly from 28V D.C

(b) A polarizing supply derived from a potential divider connected across 28 V.D.C
(c) No polarizing supply at all.

37. The Resistance of a conductor Increases when used at Radio Frequencies due to

(a) Skin effect

(b) Eddy currents
(c) Stray capacitance

38. Using binary two from five the maximum number of connections is

(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Ten

39. When the selectivity switch of a Rx H.F is changed from R.T to C.W,
the Rx Bandwidth would be

(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Remain the same

40. What is the Q of a tuned series circuit, which resonates at 500k, and has an Inductance
of 1mH and Resistance of 10 ohms .

(a) 3.14
(b) 314
(c) 31.4

41. A short circuited stub is used at the base of a

(a) An HF Aerial to reduce its capacitance

(b) A VHF Aerial to reduce its capacitance
(c) A VHF Aerial to reduce its Inductance

43. The image frequency of a super het Rx is removed from the desired signal frequency by

(a) A frequency difference equal to the Rx I.F

(b) A frequency difference equal to twice the Rx I.F
(c) A frequency difference equal to the Rx local Oscillator frequency

44. The Balun is used in

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 (a) An Aerial unit
(b) A mixer unit
(c) An IF unit

45. A Quiescent Anode current of a pentode value is 1.5mA and its screen current is 0.5 mA.
what is the pre-signal bias if the Resistance between Cathode and Earth is 1.5K ohms?

(a) -3 W.R.T Cathode

(b) -3 W.R.T Earth
(c) +3 W.R.T Cathode

46. At Resonance Frequency, a parallel tuned circuit

(a) Offers minimum z

(b) Has minimum voltage developed across it.
(c) Has maximum circulating current

47. Crystals are used in Oscillator because

(a) They are cheaper

(b) High Q and stable

48. A typical squelch circuit operates the

(a) Mixer stage

(b) Audio stage
(c) I.F stage

49. An F.M carrier is modulated to a depth of 100% by a sine wave. The extra power needed
in the o/p stage is

(a) 50%
(b) 150%
(c) 33.3%

50. Why are frequency multipliers used with crystal oscillators?

(a) Improve Signal Response

(b) Increase frequency
(c) High stability

51. The absorption rate of Radio waves due to the Ionosphere is greatest at

(a) Night
(b) Day
(c) Both day and night

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52 .When considering variation of Anode current through a triode when compared with
anode voltage, the grid voltage has what level of control

(a) Greater
(b) Smaller
(c) The same

53. If the bandwidth of a single resonant circuit increases, Q will

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Stay the same

54. Negative feedback when applied to an Amplifier, feeds back voltage

(a) In phase from O/P to I/P

(b) In antiphase from O/P to I/P
(c) In antiphase from I/P to O/P

55. In a push-pull amplifier, Crossover distortion

(a) Eliminates even harmonies

(b) Is cured by correct choice of bias
(c) Is caused by the two transistors having slightly different characteristics

56. The impedance of a half -wave dipole is

(a) A maximum at its center and minimum at its ends

(b) A minimum at its center and maximum at its ends
(c) A minimum at the center

57. A standing wave Ratio on a transmission line is

(a) E max / E min

(b) E max / E min
(c) E max / E min

58. The Discriminator circuit in an F.M Rx is used to

(a) Discriminate between adjacent channels

(b) Discriminate between wanted and unwanted AFs in the A section
(c) Extract the A.F from F.M signal

59. In an F.M system if the modulation amplitude is decreased modulated frequency

stays the same the modulation index would

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Stay the same

60. In an F.M Rx if the signal decreased below the limiting level S/N ratio

(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) stays the same
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61. A balun is used to correct and match between

(a) A quarter wave dipole aerial and load feeder

(b) A half wave dipole aerial and load feeder
(c) A half wave dipole aerial and twin wire feeder

62. A triode is often used as the first stage of an I.F Amp because

(a) Of its low noise characteristics

(b) It is more stable than a pentode
(c) Of transit line limitation of a pentode

63. A balanced modulator circuit with a push pull I/P and a parallel I/P should have

(a) A parallel O/P

(b) Push pull O/P
(c) Series O/P

64. A balanced modulator circuit could be used

(a) As a mixer in a Rx
(b) To balance the I/P and the O/P circuit of a Rx
(c) For side tone purpose

65. The circuit above shows an A.F Amplifier. The circuit is in

(a) The common Base mode

(b) The common Collector mode
(c) The common Emitter mode

66. R1 and R2 provide forward bias

(a) Between A and B

(b) Between B and C
(c) Between D and E

67. The I/P terminals are

(a) Between A and B

(b) Between B and C
(c) Between D and E

68. C1

(a) Blocks the D.C to the succeeding stage

(b) Blocks the A.C to the succeeding stage
(c) Provides Automatic gain control for succeeding stage

69. The base current flows through

(a) R1
(b) R2
(c) R1 and R2
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70. From an A.C point of view R1 and R2

(a) In parallel
(b) In series
(c) In series parallel combination

71. The power factor of an Inductance should be

(a) As small as possible

(b) Approximately equal to one
(c) As large as possible

72. A carbon microphone has a polarizing supply

(a) To increase the strength of magnetic field

(b) To magnetize the diaphragm in one direction
(c) To ensure that the current flowing through the carbon granules varies as
resistance varies

73. In Transistors the direction of the Arrow Indicates

(a) The direction of electron flow

(b) The direction of hole flow
(c) The direction of both electrons and hole flow

74. Parallax errors in the reading of a pointer deflection over the scale face of a multimeter
results from

(a) Reading the deflection from the wrong angle

(b) Using an incorrectly calibrated scale
(c) Using an incorrect range

75. The maximum Ohmic Resistance acceptable for bonding is

(a) 0.5 ohm

(b) 0.05 ohms
(c) 0.005

76. The Emitter base function of a prop transistor has to be

(a) Forward biased

(b) Reverse biased
(c) Either bias will

77. Part of the secondary winding of a transformer is short-circuited. The primary current will
therefore be

(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Remain the same

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78. The dynamic impedance of a parallel tuned circuit is

(a) Proportional to the circuit capacitance and resistance

(b) Proportional to the product of the circuit inductance, capacitance and resistance
(c) Proportional to the circuit capacitance and resistance

79. The common base transistor Amplifier the current gain is

(a) Slightly greater than one

(b) Less than one
(c) Much greater than one

80. When a PN junction is formed, a depletion layer exists. This depletion layer consists of

(a) Holes
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutral atoms

81. In an alkaline cell the electrolyte

(a) Has a constant specific gravity

(b) Has a specific gravity of 1.26
(c) Has dilute sulphuric acid as electrolyte

82. How much energy is stored in the field of a capacitor of 100 ohms, if a steady
voltage of 250v is connected across it

(a) 2.5 joules

(b) 6.25 joules
(c) 3.125 joules

83. If two circuits coupled together by mutual Inductance have co-efficient of coupling
of nearly1, are the circuits --

(a) Loosely coupled

(b) Tightly coupled
(c) Critically

84. An Ohmmeter scale is

(a) Cramped at the low end
(b) Linear throughout
(c) Cramped at the H1 end

85. A generator has an Internal Resistance of r ohms and delivers power to a resistor
of R ohms. For maximum power transfer

(a) R is greater than r

(b) R is smaller than r
(c) R is Equals r

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86. The megger is used to measure

(a) The insulation of a cable

(b) The continuity of a cable
(c) The resistance of a cable

87. The o/p voltage of a signal generator has been decreased by a factor of 100.
the dB Equivalent of the voltage change is

(a) 6 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 40dB

88. An Autotransformer has

(a) Two windings

(b) Three windings
(c) One winding

89. A resistance of 50 ohms, an Inductance of 0.15 Henrys and a capacitance of

micro-farads are connected in parallel across 100v 50Hz supply.
What is the value of the current in the capacitive arm?

(a) 2 Amps
(b) 2.125 A
(c) 3.14 A

90. The Q factor of a resonant circuit is

(a) Measure of its sensitivity

(b) Measure of its selectivity
(c) Measure of its signal to Noise ratio

91. A cathode follower has a

(a) A high I/P Impedance and low O/P Impedance

(b) A low I/P I impedance and low O/P Impedance
(c) A low I/P Impedance and High O/P Impedance

92. Which of the following is a pentavalent element?

(a) Indium
(b) Arsenic
(c) Selenium

93. N-type Germanium is made by adding impurity atoms, which have

(a) Three valence electrons

(b) Four valence electrons
(c) Five valence electrons

19
94. The Red dot or positive sign on a semiconductor diode signifies
(a) A cathode of the diode
(b) Anode of the diode
(c) The electrode, which must be connected to the positive side of the supply

95. Which of the transistor circuit configuration has the characteristics of high input
resistance, low output resistance and a voltage gain less than unity?

(a) Common emitter

(b) Common base
(c) Common collector

96. A common emitter NPN amplifier is forward biased by making

(a) The base Negative with respect to the emitter

(b) The base positive with respect to the emitter
(c) The base and emitter at the same potential

97. What is the Q of a tuned series circuit, which resonates at 500 KHz, and has an Inductance
Of IMH and a resistor of 10 ohms?

(a) 3.14
(b) 314
(c) 31.4

98. To eliminate the effect of lightning discharge on an H.F Aerial

(a) A static discharge resistor is fitted

(b) A gas discharge tube is fitted
(c) The aerial is bonded to the A/frame

99. The weak link in an H.F wire aerial installation is fitted

(a) At the fore end termination of the external wire aerial

(b) At the real termination of the external wire aerial
(c) At the center of the external wire aerial

100. The emergency facility of an A/C Intercom and service selection system is
an emergency facility for

(a) Flight Intercom only

(b) Ground Intercom only
(c) Service selection only

101. How could you check for presence of Electrolyte?

(a) Litmus paper will turn blue

(b) Litmus paper will turn red
(c) Caustic soda

20
102. What is tolerance?

(a) Gradual wear of two mating surface

(b) A permitted manufacturer’s error
(c) The distance between two surfaces

103. What action should be taken when taking external measurements vernier caliper?

(a) Add readings on nibs

(b) Ignore readings on Nibs
(c) Subtract from readings

104. Surface table limits are

(a) 0.020"
(b) 0.0"
(c) 0.010"

105. Fahrenheit may be converted to Centigrade by using Equation

(a) C= (9/5x F) + 32
(b) C= (9/5+ F) -32
(c) C= 5/9 (F-32)

106. The difference between a locking Nut and plain nut is

(a) Castellation
(b) Feet Area
(c) Plain nuts area

107. Fretting corrosion is

(a) Corrosion formed under corrosion

(b) Rubbing Action of bolt
(c) Corrosion due to excessive torque loading

108. Torque loading is tangential force multiplied by

(a) CSA of bolt

(b) Length of tool
(c) Distance moved by end of tool

109. In a D.C motor if the feedback current is decreased

(a) Back EMF Increases

(b) Back EMF Decreases
(c) Back EMF is the same

110. If the iron core is removed from an Inductance

(a) Back EMF increases

(b) Back EMF decreases
(c) Back EMF is the same
21
111. Power factor can be resolved by the following formulae

(a) R/Z
(b) Z/R
(c) RZ

112. The increase of supply frequency to a capacitor

(a) Increase current

(b) Current remains the same
(c) Decreases the current

113. In a 3 phase alternator, star-wound, the line voltage

(a) Is 1.414-x phase voltage

(b) Is 0.707-x phase voltage
(c) Is 1.732x phase voltage

114. Which microphone requires an energizing voltage?

(a) E.M mic

(b) Carbon mic
(c) Ribbon mic

115.

(a) Number of flutes

(b) Number

116. A frequency in the Band 3-30 MHz would be

(a) H.F
(b) M.W
(c) V.H.F

117. As frequency increases, current in a conductor flows

(a) In the center

(b) Nearer the surfaces
(c) In circles

118. An Oscillator has

(a) Positive feedback

(b) Negative feedback
(c) No feedback

119. Symbol for mutual conductance

(a) gm
(b) u
(c) ra

22
120. Mutual conductance measured in

(a) am/V
(b) %
(c) w

121. Decrease length of aerial

(a) Resonant frequency increases

(b) Resonant frequency Decreases
(c) Resonant frequency stays the same

122. The Analogue comparing Device shown is

(a) An adder
(b) A multiplier
(c) An interrogator

123. The feedback loop of an operational amplifier

(a) Makes the I/P impedance infinite

(b) Reduces the I/p impedance to zero
(c) Reduces the I/P difference voltage to zero

124. P.A is

(a) A two-way communication system

(b) Used in an emergency
(c) Arranged to give a higher o/p power, if ambient noise when airborne is greater than on
ground

125. The interlock system in a P.A SYSTEM

(a) Allows priority switching

(b) Prevents two crew member using the system at the same time
(c) Prevents the P.A being used when H.F.1 or H.F 2 is being keyed

126. A acoustic feedback

(a) Cannot happen in P.A since only one person can speak at any one time.
(b) Is minimized at the stewards position by mute relays
(c) May occur between adjacent passenger speaking

127. The number of channels available in an A/C in V.H.F system (civil)

(a) Is 720 channels?

(b) Is 720 channels if 25 KHz spacing is used?
(c) May be doubled if two V.H.F Tx are used?

128. In a V.H.F system, when carrying out a V.S.W.R test the following values were recorded
at the Tx end of a large public Transport aircraft PF=18w PR =2w

(a) The system is serviceable because the VSWR IS 2:1

23
 (b) The system may or may not be serviceable depending on other factors
(c) The system falls because the aerial VSWR will be higher than 2:1

129. During a VHF TX frequency tolerance check 130 MHz was selected. Which of the
following reading is satisfactory on the frequency count?

(a) 129. 9978 MHz

(b) 130.021 MHz
(c) 129.9955 MHz

130. Voltage derived V.F.B

(a) Usually uses a potential divider to produce F.B voltage

(b) Reduces gain more than current derived V.F.B does
(c) Affect input impedance

131. If an Amplifier has a gain of 150 without V.F.B what will be gain if 1/30 of the output
Is feedback as V.F.B?

(a) 6
(b) 25
(c) 30

132. One of the following is an advantage of V.F.B

(a) Internal distortion is reduced

(b) External voice is reduced
(c) Band/width is reduced

133. Phase shift between input and output in a cathode follower is

(a) 90 degrees
(b) 0 degrees
(c) 180 degrees

134. Which of the following statement is true about emitter follower Input Z high, output Z low

(a) Voltage gain nearly unity, power gain nearly unity

(b) Zero phase shift between input and output and unity power gain

135. The ra of a triode is

(a) Va / Ia, Vg constant

(b) Ia /Ve, Vg constant
(c) Vg/Ia, Va constant

136. The u of a triode is

(a) Ia/Vg , Va constant

(b) Va/Vg, Ia constant
(c) Vg/Va, Ia constant

24
137. The V.a.f of a triode

(a) -url / ra+R1

(b) ura / ra+R1
(c) gm / ra+R1

138. In a class A Amplifier Anode current flows for

(a) Over the full input cycle

(b) For ½ I/P cycle
(c) Less than ½ I/P cycle

139. In class C an amplifier anode current flows for

(a) Full cycle

(b) ½ cycle
(c) Less than ½ cycle

140. The I/P voltages Applied to a push-pull Amplifier need to be

(a) In phase
(b) 90 degrees out of phase
(c) 180 degrees out of phase

141. In the figure above the transistor is

(a) NPN
(b) PNP
(c) Incorrectly drawn

142. R4 is for

(a) Thermal stability

(b) Emitter bias
(c) Collector load

143. R1 and R2

(a) Have equal values

(b) Controls transistor forward bias
(c) Controls transistor reverse bias

144. In the above circuit, the current gain

(a) Equals unity

(b) Equals voltage gain
(c) Is large

145. The Q of parallel tuned circuit is given by

(a) wL/wc
(b) R/wl
25
 (c) wL/R

146. If the signal applied to a parallel tuned circuit is above its resonant frequency the
circuit behaves like

776 (a) Resistance

(b) Capacitance
(c) Inductance

147. The frequency Response of an A.F Amplifier is usually measured between

(a) -6 dB power points

(b) Half power points
(c) 0 dB power points

148. In frequency modulation

(a) The carrier frequency remains constant and carrier Amplitude varies
(b) The carrier Amplitude remains constant and frequency varies.
(c) Both carrier Amplitude and carrier frequency vary

149. An F.M emission occupies

(a) The same B/W as an A.M emission

(b) A relatively wider B/W than an A.M emission
(c) Much narrower B/W than an A.M emission

150. The heating effect of a D.C current is proportional to

(a) Current squared

(b) Current
(c) Reciprocal of current

151. The Unit of power is

(a) Joule per coulomb

(b) Coulomb per joule
(c) Joule per second

152. The Ampere is

(a) Joules seconds

(b) Coulomb per second
(c) Joule per second

153. The R.M. S value of a sine wave is

(a) 1.11
(b) 0.637
(c) 0.707

154. Sulphation in a lead Acid secondary cell is caused by

(a) High temperature

26
 (b) A high Discharge current
(c) Leaving the cell discharge

155. A capacitor with a high capacitance in a small space would be

(a) Variable capacitor

(b) A ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor

156. The alternator of Jet airlines has a voltage rating of 120/208 Volts 400Hz. This means

(a) The alternator has a star connected three-phase stator providing 120 v between any two,
O/P terminals and 208 across any phase winding
(b) The alternator has a star connected three-phase stator providing 120V between,
any two O/Ps terminals and 208Vacross any phase winding
(c) The alternator has a star connected three-phase sector provided 120volts across any phase,
winding and 208 across any two O/P terminals

157. Conventional current flow in P.N.P transistors is indicated

(a) By an Arrow on the emitter line pointing away from the Base line
(b) By an arrow on the collector line pointing towards the Base line
(c) By an arrow on the emitter line pointing towards the Base line

158. The B/width of an F.M transmission is

(a) Equal to the maximum deviation of the carrier frequency

(b) Less than the maximum deviation of the carrier frequency
(c) A greater than the maximum deviation of the carrier frequency

159. When checking an H.F installation for standard operation which of the following
safety precautions is relevant

(a) Ensure, fueling /De fueling operation are not taking place on any A/c within a distance
of 500 ft
(b) Ensure painting (Doping) of the surface of an A/craft is not taking place within 60 of
live aerial

160. The Q -factor of a series LCR circuit is given by

(a) R VL/RC
(b) I L/L
(c) IC /RC

161. If the Inductance is doubled and the Capacitance halved the resonant frequency is

(a) Increase
(b) Decreased
(c) Unchanged

162. If the Inductance is doubled and capacitance halved the Q factor is

(a) Doubled
(b) Halved
27
 (c) Increase 4 times

163. In a series Resonance the total reactance of a circuit is

(a) Inductive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Unaffected

164. At Resonance the total Reactance of circuit at Resonance is given by

(a) Inductive
(b) Capacitive
(c) Zero

165. The dynamic Resistance of a parallel tuned circuit at Resonance is given by

(a) L/CR
(b) CR/L
(c) L/CR

166. The diagram represents

(a) A band pass filter

(b) A low pass filter
(c) A high pass filter

167. When D.C and A.C voltages are both present in the same circuit, the resulting
voltage waveform is

(a) That of pure o.k.

(b) That of superimposed A.C
(c) That of pure A.C

168. The anode current of pentode value is

(a) Dependent on anode voltage

(b) Relatively Independent of Anode voltage
(c) Dependent on suppressor Grid voltage

169. A D.SB Tx modulated at 100% what proportion of the total radiated power is contained in
the sidebands

(a) One half

(b) One third
(c) One sixth

170. In a super Het circuit operating at 9950 KHz and local Oscillation at 9450 KHz the
Image frequency will be

(a) 10450
(b) 8950
(c) 10950

28
171. When disconnecting the load from a generator the O/P voltage

(a) Is unaffected
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase

172. In order to obtain Maximum voltage amplification using a triode valve

(a) Amplification factor (mu) u should be given larger and a.c resistance Ra should be small
(b) Amplification factor (mu) and a.c resistance Ra should be equal and small
(c) Amplification factor (mu) should be large and a.c resistance Ra should be large

173. If the unmodulated power O/P of a dsb transmitter is 200watt and modulation factor
is 0.8. The modulated power o/p will be

(a) 200w
(b) 300w
(c) 264 w

174. The sine frequency of a VHF Tx for DCs operation is

(a) Then as the Rxing frequency

(b) 6 MHz above the Rxing frequency
(c) 6 MHz below the Rxing frequency

175. Will the Anti-cross talk network of an Intercom / service selection system be?

(a) In circuit for normal operation

(b) In circuit for emergency operation
(c) In circuit for normal and emergency operation

176. Frequency spacing for modern A/C H.F Installation is

(a) In circuit for normal operation

(b) In circuit for emergency Operation
(c) In circuit for normal and emergency Operation

177. The term Preferred value of Resistance is used to describe

(a) The nearest value of Resistance to the one you want

(b) A series of values to which carbon Resistance are made to give adequate coverage in
a particular tolerance range
(b) The value of Resistance you want.

178. When adding water to Lead Acid accumulator, do you add?

(a) Rain water

(b) Distilled water
(c) Tap water

29
179. The f/d winding of a rotary transformer is open circuit when the D.C supply is connected to
the motor armature the circuit voltage will be

(a) Higher than normal

(b) Lower than normal
(c) Not available

180. The filter that blocks low frequencies and allows only high frequencies to pass is known as

(a) Low pass filter

(b) High pass filter
(c) A band pass filter

181. If the electric field is vertical and the H field is at 90 degrees to it the plane of propagation is

(a) At 90 degrees to both

(b) In line with the Magnetic field
(c) In line with the electric field

182. In pulsating D.C represent

(a) Variation in voltage and current with a change in current flow

(b) Variation in voltage and current without a change in the direction of current flow
(c) Variation in voltage and current, First Increasing and then Decreasing in value for
each direction of current flow.

183. The Quiescent anode current of a pentode value is 1.5mA and its screen current o.5 mA.
what is the PRF signal bias if the Resistance between cathode and Earth is 1500 ohms?

(a) -2V WRT Earth

(b) -2V WRT cathode
(c) -3 V WRT cathode

184. An ohmmeter scale is

(a) Cramped at the low 4 end

(b) Cramped at the high end
(c) Linear throughout

185. The modulating A.F and carrier R.F inputs to the balanced modulator of an SSB transmitter
Are 1 KHz and 500 KHz Respectively. The outputs of the balanced modulator are?

(a) 499 and 501 KHz

(b) 500 and 501 KHz
(c) 499.50 and 501 KHz

186. Which of the transistor circuit configuration has the characteristic of high input Impedance,
low output Resistance and a Voltage gain of less than Unity?

(a) Common collector

(b) Common emitter
(c) Common Base

30
187. The secondary of a transformer is partially short circuited therefore the output voltage

(a) Increase
(b) Stays the same
(c) Decrease

188. Sidetone in a SSB Tx is Indicative of

(a) The availability of a modulated R.F carrier in the power o/p stage of transmitter
(b) The availability of unmodulated carrier in the power o/p stage of the transmitter
(c) The availability of either USB or LSB R.F in the power o/p stage of Tx

189. If the isolation Amplifier fails then

(a) The mic circuits cease completely

(b) The Tel circuits cease completely
(c) Mic and Tel circuits can be used in emergency.

190. The VHF Distress frequency of A/C is

(a) 120.5MHz
(b) 121.5 MHz
(c) 122.5MHz.

191. If the voltages across the components of a series LCR circuit are VR=80 VL=100
and VC=40. V is the frequency of the applied voltage

(a) Below the resonant frequency of the circuit

(b) Equal to the resonant frequency of the circuit
(c) Above the resonant frequency of the circuit

192. The cross-talk signal in a given service selection system is alternated by 60dB. If the
crosstalk signal has a level of 2V before alternation s what is its level after alternation

(a) 200mV
(b) 20 mV
(c) 2 mV

193. Soft magnetic materials is characterized by

(a) High permeability, low coercivity and low hysteresis loss

(b) High permeability, high coercivity and high hysteresis loss
(c) Low permeability, high coercivity and low hysteresis loss

194. The dynamic resistance of a parallel tuned circuit is

(a) Directly proportional to resistance of the circuit

(b) Inversely proportional to resistance of the circuit
(c) Unaffected by resistance of the circuit

195. The power absorbed by a resistor chances from 10mW to 10 watts what is the change in dB

(a) 30dB
31
 (b) 20 dB
(c) 40 dB

196. The relative permeability of soft Iron is

(a) Constant
(b) Increase with field strength until saturation reached
(c) Decrease with increasing field strength until saturation is reached

197. A transformer with SIX turns on the primary for each secondary winding and 120V applied
to the primary, has a Secondary voltage of

(a) 1200V
(b) 20 volts
(c) 720 V

198. A step down transformer will have

(a) Less secondary current than primary current

(b) More secondary current than primary current
(c) Equal secondary and primary circuit

199. A 12 uF and 36 uF are connected in series. The total capacitance is

(a) 48 uF
(b) 9 uF
(c) 6 uF

200. Image interference from a station whose radiated frequencies differ from the desired
signal frequency by

(a) The Rx I.F

(b) Half the Rx IF.
(c) Twice the Rx IF

201. A collector /Base junction is as far as minority carriers are concerned

(a) Forward biased

(b) Reverse biased
(c) Biased to allow conditions in both connections

202. The base region of a transistor is thin because

(a) It is difficult to manufacture a thick base

(b) It reduces the chance of recombination of holes and electrons
(c) It reduces hole storage effects

203. Leakage current flows within a PNP transistor between

(a) Collector and Base

(b) Base and Emitter
(c) Emitter and collector

32
204. The Base Emitter junction of a transistor is , as far as majority carriers are concerned

(a) Forward biased

(b) Reverse biased
(c) Biased to allow conduction in both directions

205. The Reverse current is in the order of

(a) mA
(b) uA
(c) A

206. A hole electron pair is created

(a) By producing mechanical stress within the crystal lattice

(b) By reducing temperatures
(c) By increasing the temperatures

207. The Reverse current of a P-N junction

(a) Increase with temperature

(b) Decrease with temperature
(c) Independent of temperature

208. When a P-N junction is reverse biased, a small reverse current flows. This is due to

(a) Minority carriers

(b) Majority carriers
(c) Life time of carriers

209. The barriers potential is a result of

(a) Electron on P side, holes on N side

(b) Uncompensated ions of opposite polarity on P and N insides
(c) Holes on P side electron on N side

210. A Donor ion is

(a) Phosphorous
(b) Boron
(c) Silicon or Germanium ion

211. In a common Base transistor circuit, the I/P resistance is

(a) Small
(b) Large (K ohms)
(c) Very large (M ohms)

212. In a common base transistor circuit the I/P resistance value is due to

(a) The reverse biased collector / Base junction

(b) The forward biased base / Emitter junction
33
 (c) Between Emitter/ Base junction

213. In the common Base transistor Amplifier, the signal I/P is applied

(a) Between collector Base terminal

(b) Between collector Emitter terminal
(c) Between Emitter Base terminal

214. In a common base transistor Amplifier, with resistance load. The phase change between
I/P and O/P circuit is

(a) 0 degrees
(b) 90 degrees
(c) 180 degrees

215. In a common base transistor circuit, the base current is of the order of -less than one

(a) uA
(b) mA
(c) A

216. The O/P characteristics curves for common base Amp are plotted

(a) Ic against Ib
(b) Ic against Vc
(c) Vc against Vc

217. The transfer characteristics curves for common base circuit are plotted

(a) Ie against Ib
(b) Ie against Ie
(c) Ve against Ve

218. The I/P characteristics curves for a common base circuit are plotted as

(a) Ve against Ib
(b) Ie against Ie
(c) Ie against Ve

219. The slope of the O/P characteristics of a common base Amp determines

(a) R out
(b) I/R
(c) R in

220. The slope of the I/P characteristic of a common base Amp determines

(a) R in
(b) I/R out
(c) B

221. The slope of the transfer characteristic of a common base Amp determines

(a) R in
(b) I/Rout
34
 (c) B

222. The current gain of the common base Amp is

(a) Ib/Ie V cb Constant

(b) Ib/Ic V cb Constant
(c) Ic/Ib V cb Constant

223. A common base transistor are not usually connected in cascade with R.C coupling due to

(a) Mismatch between O/P of TR1 and I/P of TR2

(b) Impedance of R-C network being high at signal frequency
(c) Impedance of the R-C network shunting

224. In a common Emitter Amplifier, the I/P signal is applied

(a) Between Emitter and collector

(b) Between Base and collector
(c) Between Base and Emitter

225. In a common Emitter Amplifier, the o/p signal is applied

(a) Between Emitter and collector

(b) Between base and collector
(c) Between base and Emitter

226. In a common emitter amplifier with a resistance load there is a

(a) 0 degrees
(b) 180 degrees
(c) 270 degrees

227. Thermal runaway in a common emitter Amplifier is due to

(a) An accumulation of electrons in base region

(b) Hole storage effect
(c) Life time of charge carrier

228. Thermal runaway is counteracted by placing

(a) An additional resistance in collector circuit

(b) A resistance in the emitter circuit
(c) A series resistance in the base lead

229. A common emitter Amplifier (N.P.N) is forward biased by making

(a) T he base Negative W.P.T emitter

(b) The base Positive W.R.T emitter
(c) The base and emitter the same potential

230. A common emitter Amplifier has a current gain

(a) Less than one

(b) Greater than one
35
 (c) Equal to one

231. The o/p characteristics of a common emitter Amplifier are plotted

(a) Ib against Ve
(b) Vb against Ve
(c) Ie against Ve

232. The transfer characteristics of a common emitter Amplifier are plotted

(a) Ie against Ve
(b) I e against Ib
(c) Vb against Ib

233. The I/P characteristics of a common emitter Amplifier are plotted

(a) Ib against Vb
(b) Ib against Ve
(c) Ve against Ib

234. The slope of the O/P characteristic of a common emitter Amplifier determines

(a) R out
(b) R in
(c) I/R out

235. The slope of the transfer characteristics of a common emitter Amplifier determines

(a) B
(b) I/B
(c)

236. The slope of the I/P characteristic of a common emitter Amplifier determines

(a) I/R in
(b) I/R out
(c) R in

237. When using Automatic grid bias certain conditions are necessary, these conditions are

(a) The signal voltage must not exceed cut off

(b) Grid current must flow
(c) The cathode Resistor must not be De-coupled

238. A Pure inductive load is used in a voltage Amplifier triode circuit to load line is

(a) A straight line

(b) An ellipse
(c) A circle

239. The gain of pentode is approximately equal to

(a) uZ
(b) I/gm Z
(c) gm Z
36
240 The dynamic mutual curve is plotted on
(a) The Ic /Vg curve
(b) The Ia/Vg curve
(c) The Ia/Va curve

241 An inductive load in an Amp causes f/back through Cag to be

(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) In Phase Quadrate

242 The cold value odf Cage and log care 10 uF respectively. The gain of the Amplifier is 20. The
Cotal I/P capacitance due to miller effect is
(a) 212 p F
(b) 52 p F
(c ) 252 p F

243 If the de-coupling Capacitance of the Cathode bias resistor in an Amplifier circuit become
open circuit, the o/p of the Amplifier
(a) Remains constant
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases

244 The Cathode bias resistor of a triode Amplifier is 1k ohms. The Quiescent anode current is
IMA. The bias voltage produced is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 10 V
(c) 1V

245 The frequency of the O/P of a non-synchronous Vibrator is dependent on

(a) Speed of Vibrator
(b) The supply
(c) The flux density produced by the starting coil

246 The adder capacitor is adjusted as

(a) The high frequency end of the band
(b) The low frequency end of the band
(c) The middle of the band

247 A padder capacitor when used in a local Oscillator circuit of a Superhet

(a)Decrease the Max value of the tuning Capacitor
(b) Increase the max value of tuning Capacitor
(c) Has no effect on the Value of the tuning Capacitor

248The Additive mixing process as used in a superhet Rx to extract the IF.

(a) Is followed by a detector
(b) Is not followed by a detector
(c) Must be followed by a detector

249 The time constant of the R.F Decoupling Resistor and Capaccitor in a diode signal detector
circuit should be
(a) Long compared with 1 cycle AF.
(b) Short compared with 1 cycle A.F
37
(c) Short compared with 1 cycle R.F

250 An anode-modulated triode should be operated in

(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C

251 The power contained in the sidebands of an A.M wave is

(a) 1/3 of the total modulated power
(b) 2/3 of the total modulated power
(c) 1/6 of the total modulated power

252 The power o/pof o TX will increase when modulated at 100% by

(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%

253 This increase in power comes from

(a) Microphone
(b) Modulator Amplifier
(c) The microphone Amplifier

254 A D.C meter is placed in a class c. A amplifier Anode circuit and measures the Anode current
supplied to the parallel Resonant circuit. The circuit should be tuned to give
(a) A maximum reading
(b) A minimum reading
\(c) No change of reading in this meter

255 A dc meter placed in the RF Amplifier circuit of a transmitter measures grid current. The
preceding stage should be tuned for
(a) Maximum reading
(b) A minimum reading
(c) No change of reading in the meter

256 The B/width required by F.M Rx's is

(a) The same as for A.M Rxs
(b) Smaller than for A.M Rxs
(c) Larger than for A.M Rxs

257 The rate at which the carrier frequency is swept in F.M transmitters is governed by
(a) The Amplitude of the modulating signal
(b) The frequency of the modulating signal
(c) The frequency of the carrier

258 The frequency deviation is governed by

(a) The Amplitude of the modulating signal
(b) The frequency of the modulating signal
(c) The frequency of the carrier

259The number of sidetoneproduced in F.M signal modulating tone is

(a) The same as for A.M
(b) Less than for A.M
(c) Greater than for A.M

260 The variable reactance produced by a variable reactance Value is

38
(a) Function of its gm
(b) Function of its HT
(c) Function of the carrier frequency

261 The grounded grid value would be used at

(a) A.F
(b) VHF
(c) L.F

262 The cathode follower has an o/p Voltage which is

(a) Greater than the I/P voltage
(b) Less than the I/P voltage
(c) Equal to the I/P voltage

263 The I/P I impedance odf a transistor is smallest in

(a) Common Emitter Amplifier
(b) Common Base Amplifier
(c) -11- collector Amplifier

264 The Common collector A amplifier has a voltage gain of

(a) Greater than 1
(b) Less than 1
(c) Equal to 1

265. The slope of transfer characteristic of a common base Amplifier gives

(a) Beta
(b) Alpha
(c) gamma

266. The D.C Voltage between Base and Emitter of a silicon transistor operating in class
A conditions is approximately

(a) 0.05 V
(b) 0.5 V
(c) 5 V

267. The circuit above is

(a) A frequency multiplier

(b) A paraphaseAmplifier
(c) An R.C Oscillator

268. V2 obtains it’s I/P from

(a) The P.d across R2

(b) The Inter-electrode capacitance between V1 & V2
(c) The P.d across R1

269. C1 becomes open circuit, the Result is that

(a) V1 O/P to fall to zero

(b) V2 O/P to fall to zero
(c) V1 & V2 O/P change phase
39
270. C1 becomes short circuit the result causes

(a) V1 O/P to fall to zero

(b) V2 O/P to fall to zero
(c) No change in O/P of V1 & V2

271. Decrease length of Aerial

(a) Resonant frequency increases

(b) Resonant frequency decreases
(c) Resonant frequency stays the same

272. The purpose of the circuit shown is to provide an o/p voltage between x and y when

(a) The I/P signal falls below a certain level

(b) The I/P signal exceeds a certain level
(c) The I/P signal deviates from a pre-determined value

273. 1/4 r short circuit stub acts as

(a) Parallel tuned circuit of low Q

(b) A parallel tuned circuit of high Q
(c) A series tuned circuit of high Q

40
PULSE SYSTEMS (RADAR, DME, TRANSPONDER & ALTIMETER)

1 A weather radar employs

(a) Horizontal polarisation
(b) Vertical polarisation
(c) Circular polarisation

2 If the diameter of weather radar aerial is increased the gain

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Stay same

3 With a directional Aerial side lobes would

(a) Not affect maximum range
(b) Decrease maximum range
(c) Increase maximum range

4 In a modulator circuit the damping diode

(a) Maintain desired o/p level constant
(b) Gets rid of Transient spikes due to Induction
(c) Is a safety device in case the thyraton fails

5 Typical voltage applied to Kryston are

(a) Cathode 0, Cavity -300, Reflector + 180
(b) Cathode 0, Cavity +300, Reflector +150
(c) Cathode 0, Cavity +300, Reflector +150

6 High frequency distortion of a pulse shape would

(a) Distort the leading and training edges
(b) Cause pulse droop
(c) Reduce the Amplitude of pulse

7 In a pulse Amplifier miller would tend to:

(a) Increase the rise time of the pulse
(b) Decrease the rise time of the pulse
(c) Decrease the pulse duration

8 A differentiating circuit has a time constant that is

(a) Longer than the pulse duration
41
(b) Shorter than the pulse duration
,,,,,,,,,,,,,,

(c) Equal to the pulse duration

9 In a pulse Altimeter the Tx pulse duration determines

(a) The higher limit of the altimeter range
(b) The lower limit of Altimeter range
(c) Has no effect on Altimeter range

10 In loran A 00 the pulse come from

(a) One master station only
(b) Master & slave station synchronized
(c) CW transmitters

11 In Loran A has the slave Got:

(a) A higher PRF than the master
(b) A lower PRF than the master
(c) The same PRF as the master

12 In Loran A does the master transmit

(a) Pulsed R/F at the same frequency as the slave
(b) Pulsed R/f at the different frequency to the slave
(c) CW

13 S T C (Swept Gain) is used to

(a) Equalize the signal strength over the range of the Radar
(b) Detect storm cells
(c) Maintain the aerial gain constant

14 The Signal to Noise ratio of a pulse modulated altimeter

(a) Determines the lower limit of Altimeter
(b) Determines the higher limit of Altimeter range
(c) Has no effect on Altimeter Range

15 Minimum Range of primary Radar is mainly determined by

(a) PRF (b) Aerial beam width (c) Pulse duration

16
(a) O/P will be Negative pulse of 10 volts
(b) O/P will be positive pulse of 10 volts
(c) O/P will be zero V.

17 In a pulse modulated system average power equals

(a) Peak power x pulse duration x PRF AV= Peak x T x PRF
(b) Peak duration x pulse duration divide PRF
(c) Peak power divide pulse duration x PRF

18 A differentiating circuit has a time Constant that is

(a) Longer than the pulse duration
(b) Short than the pulse duration
42
(c) Equal to the pulse duration

19
(a) O/P will have lower voltage at +3v 7 pulse
(b) O/P will have upper voltage at + 3v 10 pulses above 3v
(c) O/P will have centre voltage at +3v 10 pulses below 3v

20 Radar Transmission employs pulses of very short duration to

(a) Improve max range capability
(b) Improve bearing resolution
(c) Allow reception of Returns from very short ranges

21 The minimum range of weather radar is determined mainly by

(a) Pulse duration minimum range & I/2
(b) PRF
(c) Aerial B/width

22 The wavelength of an X Band Signal is approximately

(a) 50 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 3 cm

23 In an A type display the signal is fed to

(a) X plate (b) Y plate (c) Deflection coil

24 A PPI uses
(a) Es Deflection (b) E.M deflection (c) Capacitive deflection

25 Duration of a scan on a CRT may be increased by

(a) Increasing the time base Trigger rate
(b) Increasing the Amplitude of saw tooth voltage
(c) Increasing the time of Rundown of saw tooth voltage

26 A trapezoidal voltage generator is used

(a) For CRT Bright up
(b) For E s CRT Bright Deflection system
(c) For EM CRT Deflection system

27 The sine wave signals for a circular time base are;

(a) In phase
(b) Phase separated by 90 degrees
(c) Phase separated by 120 degrees

28 When the aerial faces dead ahead, the Amplitude of time base waveform current in X
winding of a fixed coil system will be a
(a) Zero (b) 0.707 of Max (c) Maximum

29 The Rotor of Magslip Resolver is fed with

(a) Linear voltage waveform
(b) A trapezoidal current waveform
(c) A trapezoidal voltage waveform

30 If a positive pulse is applied to a long, short circuited, transmission line, the Reflection is
(a) Negative pulse (b) Positive pulse (c) Zero

43
31A short-circuited 1/2 wavelength Stub presents at its I/P
(a) A low Impedance
(b) High Impedance
(c) Medium Impedance

32 Super Refraction would

(a) Decrease the range of Radar
(b) Increase the range of Radar
(c) Not affect Range of Radar

33 If Sub-Refraction is occurring
(a) The range of targets will be incorrect
(b) The bearing of target will be incorrect
(c)The maximum Range will be incorrect

34 Second trace echoes show up at

(a) Incorrect bearing and correct ranges
(b) Incorrect bearing and incorrect ranges
(c) Correct bearing and incorrect ranges

35 As an A/C ascends, the difference frequency produced in an FM altimeter would

(a) Decrease in value and strength
(b) Increase in value and strength
(c) Increase in value Decrease in strength

36 An F.M altimeter
(a) Must be calibrated for a particular/C Installation
(b) Does not have to be calibrated for particular A/C
(c) Can be fitted to any type of A/c without further calibration

37 An F.M Altimeter confidence check can be carried out

(a) At any height
(b) Only at specified heights
(c) Not on the ground

38 In a F.M altimeter methods are used to

(a) Increase Rx gain with increase of altitude
(b) Decrease Rx gain with altitude Increase
(c) Maintain Rx gain constant

39 In an F.M Altimeter system Residual altitude or Residual height Refer to

(a) Height above ground over which the A/c is flying
(b) Height associated with the A/c Installation
(c) Height associated with the Tx /Rx unit.

40 A pulse altimeter display is formed by

(a) Applying saw tooth waveform to X and Y plates
(b) Applying sine wave to X and Y plates at 90 degrees phase difference
(c) Applying Sine wave to the X plate only 180 degrees difference

41 A pulse altimeter can measure

(a) Height down to zero
(b) Height above ground, but not to zero
(c) Height with reference to sea level

44
42 An F.M altimeter use
(a) 1 aerial (b) 2 aerials (c) 3 aerials

43 Radio altimeters can radiate within the bands

(a) 2200-2400 MHz, 6600-6800 MHz.
(b) 4200-4400 MHz, 2200-2400 MHz .
(c) 1600-1660 MHz , 4200- 4400 MHz.

44 The PRF of a pulse altimeter is typically

(a
(b) 9.835KHz (c) 9800KHz.

45 Clipping is provided to enable

(a) Higher depth of modulation
(b) Remove harmonies from speech
(c) Reduce mic Noise

46 The anode of a Magnetron is

(a) Negative WRT cathode
(b) Negative WRT Earth
(c) Earthed

47 Radar scanner are stabilized from the A/craft

(a) Vertical gyro (b) Azimuth gyro (c) Compass system

48As frequency Increases, current in a conductor flows

(a) In the centre (b) Nearer the surface (c) In circles

49 The Doppler Spectrum frequency is proportional to ground speed is

(a) Audio (b) VHF

50 Doppler operations is
(a) 8800MHz (b) 880MHz (c) 88MHz

51The Rx/ Tx separation of DMe is

(a) 6.3 MHz (b) 63 MHz (c) 63 KHz

52 A blocking Oscillator with o/p of 6KHz with 2KHz spacing would have an approximate
natural frequency of
(a) 5.9 KHz (b) 1.9 KHz

53 Transponder transmissions
(a) A.C - A.C (b) A.A - C.C (c) A.A - C.B

54 Doppler/VOR Beacon can be received by

(a) Standard A/c receiver
(b) Standard A/c receiver but with loss of Audio
(c) Special receiver

55 An Astable multivibrator is one that is

(a) Triggered by I/P pulses at a particular PRF
(b) Producing a continuous O/P with no I/p pulses
(c) Producing an O/P that is half the I/P frequency

56 The number of range marks seen on a ppi display would be associated with a
45
(a) X (b) Y (C) Z

57 If the modulation Index is 5 and the modulating frequency is 15KHz the carrier deviation
in
an F.M system is
(a) 3 KHz (b) 75 KHz (c) 150KHz

58 If the amplitude of the modulation in a n F.M systems increased

(a) The O/P power would increase
(b) The O/P power would decrease
(c) The O/P power would stay the same

59 If an F.M signal has been below the limiter threshold and then increases above the
threshold
the signal /Noise ratio will
(a) Stay the same
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase

60 The natural frequency of a synchronized blocking oscillator required to have an O/p

of 3 KHz would be
(a) 2.8 KHz (b) 3.2 KHz (c) 5.8 KHz

61 If four Bi-stable multivibrators were connected in cascade, the number of I/P Trigger
pulses
to provide one O/P would be
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16

62 If the average power is 100w, pulse duration 2us and PRF= 2000, the peak power would
be
(a) 200kw (c) 100kw (c) 20kw

63 If the recovery time of a T.R cell decrease it would

(a) Decrease minimum range
(b) Improve Rx sensitivity
(c) Improve range discrimination

64 A long range Radar would typically use

(a) A high PRF (b) A low PRF (c) Long wave length

65 A Decoder O/P would relate to

(a) The Amplitude of the I/P pulse
(b) The pulse duration of the I/P pulses
(c) The spacing of the I/P pulses

66 A secondary Radar system is one, which transmits

(a) Interrogation frequency the same as transponder Rx
(b) Interrogation frequency the same as transponder Tx
(c) Interrogation frequency different to the Transponder Rx

67 A D.C restoring circuit consists of

(a) A coupling circuit with a diode across the o/p
46
(b) A differentiating circuit with a diode across the o/p
(c) An integrating circuit with a diode across the o/p

68 Range marks are produced on a PPI display

(a) At the end of every half cycle of oscillation of the Range Mark Oscillator
(b) At the end of every cycle of the Range Mark Oscillator
(c) At the end of the I/P gate

69 With a PP1 display the EHT would be applied to the CRT as follows
(a) Cathode highly negative, anode Earthed
(b) Cathode Earthed, Anode highly positive
(c) Cathode Earthed, Deflection coil highly positive

70 Signal are Indicated on a PPI display by

(a) Deflecting the Electron beam
(b) Increasing the time base current
(c) Controlling a steady voltage on the Grid

71 If the magnetic flux is parallel to the Y-axis of an E.M CRT the direction of deflection
would have
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Parallel to Axis

72 IN an Es CRT variable shift would be applied by

(a) Controlling a steady current in the shift coil
(b) Controlling a steady voltage on the plates
(c) Controlling a steady voltage on the Grid

73 To insert a code pulse in the reply from an A.TC transponder an encoding Altimeter
would typically
(a) Provide positive pulses of 14v Amplitude on the code wire
(b) Provide negative pulses of 14v Amplitude on the code wire
(c) Provide zero volts on the code wire

74 The deflection coil in an E.M CRT would be provided with

(a) A trapezoidal current waveform
(b) A trapezoidal Voltage waveform
(c) A linear Voltage waveform

75 Average powers could be increased by

(a) Decrease PRF
(b) Lengthening the time base
(c) Increasing pulse duration

76 If duty cycle is increased, average power would

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Stay the same

77 If the peak power of a RADAR IS 50 KW, the PRF=1000 and the pulse duration is 1us
then
(a) Average power 5 kW
(b) Average power 50W Average power =peak power x T x PRF
47
(c) Average power 0.5W

78 Maximum range of primary Radar would be increased by

(a) Decreasing Aerial Beam width
(b) Increasing scanner speed
(c) Increasing the wavelength

79 Bearing Resolution would mainly be effected by

(a) PRF (b) Wavelength (c) Pulse duration

80
(a) O/P equal to 5V D.C
(b) O/P positive pulses between 0v and 20 v.
(c) O/p Voltage spikes of 20v amplitude.

81 An NPNblocking Oscillator has its base biased off by 4V. A sine wave of 5v Amplitude
is applied to the base would
(a) Trigger on Negative half cycle peaks
(b) Trigger on positive half cycle peaks
(c) Trigger on Ov

82 In a modulator circuit used in a pulse transmitter a larger value choke is included to

(a) Resonance charge the line
(b) Prevent damage to the E.H.T supply
(c) Smooth out the E.H.T

83 A delay line is used in a modulator circuit to

(a) Synchronize the transmitter and time base
(b) Compensation for delay in the pulse traveling to the A
(c) Determine the transmitter pulse duration

84 A pulse-modulated transmission consists of

(a) Carrier and side frequencies spaced apart at intervals equal to the carrier frequency
(b) A carrier and side frequencies spaced apart at intervals equal to the PRF
(c) A carrier and the side frequencies

85 If the time base on a PPI is now linear, the fault may be

(a) Wrong jump to slope ratio
(b) Incorrect Amplitude setting
(c) Incorrect synchronization

86 The time constant for a detector load would be

(a) Greater than the pulse duration
(b) Equal to the pulse duration
(c) Less than the pulse duration

87 A choke is often placed in the load of a video stage to

(a) Improve the signal to Noise ratio
(b) Improve pulse shape
(c) Improve stability

88 If the B/width of a pulse Rx is decreased it would

48
(a) Improve the sensitivity
(b) Improve the pulse shape
(c) Improve the minimum range

89 Increasing the Amplitude of a time base would cause

(a) The number of calibration marks to change
(b) Make targets more brilliant
(c) Make the picture larger on the C.R.T

90 A PPI Brilliance control would

(a) Enter the grid voltage
(b)Adjust the aerial magnetic field
(c) Alter the 'X' plate voltage

91 In a PPI display the time base is applied to

(a) Alter the grid voltage
(b) The grid
(c) The deflection coil

92 In a modulator circuit, the damping diode

(a) Maintains the desired output level constant
(b) Gets rid of transient spikes.

93 Energy is introduced into a rectangular wave-guide by

(a) a probe in the centre of the end plate
(b) a probe in the centre of the wide wall
(c) a probe in the centre of the narrow wall

94 Typical voltages applied to a klystron are

(a) Cathode 0V, cavity +300V, reflector +500V
(b) Cathode 0V, cavity -300V, reflector +120V
(c) Cathode 0V, cavity +30V, reflector +90V

95 In the duplexing system shown, x is

(a) 1 wavelength
4
(b) 1 wavelength
2
(c) Any length convenient

96 Weather radar balanced mixers are used to

(a) Improve signal to noise ratio
(b) Reduce loading effects on the magnetron
(c) Maintain a constant IF

97 Typical transmittal currents are (0.7-- 1.4 mA)

(a) 10mA (b) 1 mA (c) 0.1mA

98 In weather radar, if there is noise on the display but no signals,

And no transmittal currents, then
(a) The magnetron is unserviceable
(b) The T/R cell is unserviceable
(c) The klystrons is unserviceable
49
99 The wide dimension of a rectangular wave-guide is
(a) Less than 1/4
(b) Greater than 1/4 but less than 1/2
(c) Greater than 1/2

100 A choke joint is typically

(a) An open ended 1/2 wavelength stub
(b) A short-circuited 1/4-wavelength stub
(c) A short-circuited 1/2-wavelength stub

101 If the body of a magslip resolver is rotated 30"

(a) The bearing would be inaccurate by 30", but equal sector scanning
on the PPI would continue
(b) The picture would be rotated 30", but the bearing would be correct
(c) The picture would be rotated 30", and the bearing would be incorrect

102 The rotor of a magslip is fed with

(a) A saw tooth voltage waveform plus over swing
(b) A saw tooth current waveform plus over swing
(c) 115Vac

103 A dessicator unit

(a) Detects the drift angle on a Doppler system
(b) Provides a confidence check in an FM altimeter system
(c) Absolves moisture in a wave guide.

104 A T.B cell (ATR cell).

(a) Prevents Echo Energy from traveling to the magnetron
(b) Protects the AFC crystal
(c) Protects the Rx crystals

105 Weather Radar should not be operated within 100ftof large objects because
(a) The radar may possibly be damaged
(b) Personnel may be injured
(c) The radar may damage the object

106 In the ATC transponder system the frequencies used are

(a) Interogation 1090MHz Reply 1030MHz
(b) Interrogator 1030MHz Reply 1090MHz
(c) Interogation 1030MHz Reply 1060MHz

107 The ATC transponder mode spacing is

(a) 12, 17, 21, 25 uS (b) 8, 12, 23, 25uS (c) 8, 17, 21, 25uS

108 The ATC transponder reply pulse spacing is

(a) 23uS (b) 20.3 uS (c) Determined by mode selected

109 The ATC transponder 3 pulse SLS ground radiation is in the sequence
(a) Omni, Directional, Omni
(b) Directional, Omni, Omni
(c) Directional, Omni, Directional
50
 110 In an ATC transponder if mode A is selected with A/R switch to ON it
(a) Transmit replies on mode A and mode C
(b) Transmit replies on mode A only
(c) Transmit replies on mode C only

111 In 3 pulse SLS ATC transponder system to give a reply P2 must be

(a) Greater than P1 by at least 9dB
(b) Equal to P1
(c) Less than p1 by at least 9dB

112 If a DME is co-located with a VOR it is identified by

(a) A DME independent identity morse code
(b) VOR identity on the DME system
(c) Voice modulation

113 A combined DME /VOR controller would

(a) Select DME and VOR channels independently
(b) Automatically select DME channel when VOR channel is selected
(c) Select only DME channel and put the VOR to stand by

114 Jitter in DME refers to

(a) International fluctuation of ground beacon PRF
(b) International fluctuation of interrogator PRF
(c) Random pulse transmission

115 DME channels are spaced apart at

(a) 1MHz (b) 3.5MHz (c) MHz

116 The DME Interrogator pulse duration is approximately

(a) 1us (b) 2us (c) 3.5us

117A DME employs a decoder to

(a) Select its own replies from the beacon
(b) Select only replies on the correct mode
(c) Identify the beacon

118 A doppler transmitter transmits

(a) AM on 9375 MHz
(b) FM /CW on 8800MHz
(c) Pulse modulation on 1000MHz

119 A Doppler determines

(a) Compass heading and ground speed
(b) The Angle of climb and ground speed
(c) True heading and ground speed

120 A Doppler display unit shows

(a) Track error angle and distance to go
(b) Across track error and distance to go
(c) True heading and ground speed

51
 121 To transmit the true heading from the compass I/P, a doppler aerial employs
(a) A synchro Tx
(b) A servo system
(c) Differential Synchro Tx

122 When aligned along the true track the Doppler spectrum would be
(a) Narrow west (b) Greatest (c) Unaffected

123 A Doppler aerial can move

(a) Pitch and Roll (b) Azimuth and Pitch (c) Tilt and Roll

124 Altering the range switch on a weather Radar would

(a) Change the time base Amplitude and duration
(b) Change the time base duration
(c) Change the time base Amplitude

125 Typical 'keep alive ' voltage at the electrode of a TR cell is

(a) 1000V AC (b) 115V AC (c) –200V DC (-200--500 DC)

126 Carriage of weather Radar is mandatory for pressurized A/C over

(a) 6690 kg (b) 8925kg (c) 11400kg

127 A resonator unit would

(a) Test the SWR on a wave-guide
(b) Check the performance of radar
(c) Determined the mode of the klystron

128 To give better penetration of rain weather radar would use

(a) 5cm (b) 3cm (c) Same penetration for either 3 or 5 cm

129 A feeder cables in a FM altimeter

(a) Must be cut to a Pre-determined length for particulars Installation
(b) Any length provided they are equal
(c) Any length

130 In an FM altimeter system a confidence check would check

(a) The T/R unit only
(b) The T/R unit and feeder
(c) The whole installation including radiation from the aerial.

131 On a PP1 display size of a point Target would mainly be determined by

(a) PRF and B/width (b) PRF and pulse duration (c) Beam width and pulse duration

132 Signals are painted on PPI display by applying

(a) Negative signals to cathode
(b) Positive signals to the Y plate
(c) Positive signals to the X plate

133 High definitions Radar would employ

(a) Long duration pulse and wide beam width
(b) Long duration pulses and high PRF
(c) Short duration pulses and narrow beam width
52
134 Choice of wavelength in a radar effects
(a) Minimum range (b) Maximum range (c) Range Discriminative

135 Secondary Radar relies on

(a) Replies from a beacon
(b) Reflection from targets
(c) Anomalous propagation

136

(a) O/P would be -ve pulse of 10V Amplitude

(b) O/P would be +ve pulse of 10V Amplitude
(c) O/P would be the 5 V d.c

137 A limiter circuit

(a) Holds the top or bottom level of wavelength to a certain potential
(b) Prevents the O/P waveform exceeding a certain potential
(c) Gives a D.C O/P proportional to the I/P D.C component

138 Duty cycle =1/1000, PRF= 1000 Pulse duration =

(a) 0.1 uS (B) 1uS (c) 1mS. (Duty cycle = T/PRF)

139 An astable multivibrator is one that is

(a) Triggered (b) Free running (c) Triggered twice for one o/p cycle

140 The frequency of Triggered Blocking Oscillator is determined by

(a) The I/P frequency
(b) The CR (T) constants
(c) The transformer characteristics

141 A PNP blocking oscillator is biased off by 5v on its base , the I/P Trigger waveform is
a sine wave of 6V amplitude. The circuit would trigger
(a) OV
(b) On the positive peak
(c) On the negative peak

142 In a weather Radar the range marker circuit is

(a) Synchronized and gated from the time base circuit
(b) Free running
(c) Synchronized to the scanner

143 The range switch on a weather Radar Alters

(a) The power radiated
(b) Pulse repetition period
(c) The time base duration

144 Weather Radars should not be tested within 100ftfrom large objects because
(a) The radar may be damaged
53
 (b) Personnel may be injured
(c) The objects may be damaged

145 The frequency of a range mark Oscillator to picture 10nM marks is

(a) Approximately 8KHz (b) Approximately 16KHz (c) Approximately 80KHz

146A contour circuit is necessary in weather radar to

(a) Identify rainstorms (b) Identify fog (c) Identify storm cells

147 When using a contour circuit weather Radar is operating with

(a) Manual gain and STC on
(b) Manual gain and STC off
(c) AGC and STC on

148 A Weather Radar display should be visible

(a) To only the pilot
(b) To both pilot and Co-pilot
(c) To the Co-pilot only

149 Typical beamwidth employed by weather radars are

(a) 3 to 5 degrees
(b) 0.5 to 1 degree
(c) 0.05 to 0.1 degree

150 The duration of a 60 Nm time base is approximately

(1Nm = 12.3 uS )
(a) 500 uS
(b) 750 uS
(c) 1000 uS

151 The ATC transponder is

(a) A Primary Radar System
(b) A Secondary Radar System

152 The mode spacing in the ATC transponder system is

(a) 8, 12, 23, and 25 uS
(b) 8, 17, 23, and 25 uS
(c) 8, 17, 21, and 25 uS

153 The ground transmitter in the ATC transponder operates on

(a) 1030 MHz
(b) 1060 MHz
(c) 1090 MHz

154 A two-pulse SLS Interrogator consists of

(a) Two directional pulses
(b) A directional pulse followed by an omni-directional pulse
(c) An omni pulse followed by a directional pulse

155 An airborne transponder aerial is

(a) Highly directional
(b) Broadly directional
(c) Omni-directional
54
156 The order of pulses in the three pulse SLS system is
(a) Omni, Directional, Omni
(b) Directional , Omni , Directional
(c) Directional Omni , Omni

157 The A/C reply in the ATC transponder system consists of two frame pulses
(a) 20.3 uS apart
(b) 23.2 uS apart
(c) 22.3 uS apart

158 The SPI pulse is sent

(a) 3.54 uS after F2
(b) 4.53 uS after F2
(c) 4.35 uS after F2

159 In the Three Pulse SLS system, if the first pulse is 5dB below P2, then
(a) The transponder would reply
(b) The transponder would not reply
(c) The transponder may or may not reply

160 Side lobe suppression is necessary in the ATC transponder system to

(a) Prevent A/C replying to the wrong interrogation
(b) Prevent false bearing information
(c) Prevent false range information

161 Pulse widths may be measured from

(a) Center to leading edge
(b) Center to lagging edge
(c) Center to leading edges, plus center to lagging edge

162 If the bandwidth of an amplifier is insufficient

(a) High frequency components of a pulse will be lost
(b) Low frequency components of a pulse will be lost
(c) High and Low frequency components of a pulse will be lost

163 A circuit with a short CR may be used for

(a) Coupling signals
(b) Differentiating signals
(c) Integrating signals

164 If you wished to find the average value of a waveform , you would use a circuit with a
(a) Long time constant
(b) Medium time constant
(c) Short time constant

165 The DC level of a signal may be restored by addition to a coupling circuit of a

(a) Resister
(b) Capacitor
(c) Diode 1

166 Steering diode should be used in;

(a) A bistable multivibrator
(b) An astable multivibrator
55
 (c) A Schmidt trigger

167 If the synchronizing waveform is removed from a synchronized circuit then that circuit
will
(a) Cease to produce an O/P
(b) Operate at faster rate than before
(c) Operate at a slower rate than before

168 Hysteresis in a Schmidt trigger is;

(a) The sum of the ON/OFF trigger voltage levels
(b) The difference between the ON/OFF trigger voltage levels
(c) The difference between the ON and OFF periods

169 A monostable multivator could be used to;

(a) Divide the clock rate by two
(b) Set a pulse width
(c) Generate a clock waveform

170 In a blocking oscillator positive f/back ceases at a time determined by;

(a) When saturation of the transistor or transformer core takes place
(b) When the capacitor has charged
(c) When the capacitor has discharged

171 In wave-guide propagation if the group velocity is half the speed of light then the
phase velocity is
(a) Half the speed of light
(b) Equal to the speed of the light
(c) Twice the speed of light

172 A typical attenuation figure for X band rectangular wave-guide is

(a) 3.25dB per 100ft (b) 0.55 dB per 100ft (c) 6.5 dB per 100ft

173 If the wide dimension of a wave-guide is 2cm which of the following is true
(a) 7.5 GHz and 10GHz waves would be propagated
(b) 10 GHz would propagate but not 7.5GHz
(c) Neither 7.5 GHz nor 10 GHz waves would propagate

174 The boundary condition for E and H fields are;

(a) Both parallel to conducting surfaces
(b) E fields parallel, H fields perpendicular to conducting surfaces
(c) E fields perpendicular, H field parallel to conducting surfaces

175 A ring filter would be used;

(a) To suppress unwanted modes of propagation in a rotating joint
(b) To filter out frequencies above a certain value
(c) To filter out frequencies below a certain value

176 The spacing between the leading edges of pulses in DME

(a) 3.5 uS (b) 12uS (c) 90.3 uS

177 If a DME is co-located with a VOR. It is identified by

(a) Morse code of DME reply pulses
(b) Voice modulation
(c) VOR Audio controlled by the pilot
56
 178 Two pulses DME operates at frequencies of Air Box
(a) 300MHz (b) 700 MHz 1100MHz

179 Measurement of distance by using DME is achieved by comparing

(a) The time differences between two pairs of Rxed pulses
(b) The time difference is between transmitted and Rxed pulses
(c) The time difference between transmitted pulses

180 The range of frequency co-located VOR and DME is

(a) 108 to 117.8 MHz (b) 112 to 117.8 MHz (c) 118 to 135 MHz

181 Jittering of a dme refer to

(a) Intentional fluctuation of the ground beacon
(a) Random transmission of the A/C interrogator pulses
(c) Variation of the distance reading

182 A moveable doppler aerial is tuned

(a) Automatically to coincide with A/c reading
(b) Manually to coincide with A/c track
(c) Automatically to coincide with A/c track

183 A typical Doppler transmitter frequency would be

(a) 8800 MHz (b) 9375MHz (c) 1090 MHz

184 In Weather Radar, AGC voltage is derived by

(a) Detecting the total IF Amplifier o/p
(b) Sampling the Noise of the IF Amplifier
(c) Detecting a signal above a given level from a Video Amplifier

185 Accuracy of range on a PPI is determined by

(a) Range mark Oscillator Accuracy
(b) The base duration Accuracy
(c) The base Amplitude Accuracy

186 In a weather radar the time base is

(a) Triggered by the modulator
(b) Supplies a trigger to the modulator
(c) Free running

* 187 In a weather radar modulator circuit the dumping diode

(a) Maintains the O/P constant
(b) Gets R.D of transient spires due to inductance
(c) Is a safety device in which case the thyratron fails?

188 Changing the range switch on weather radar

(a) Alter the Max transmitter power
(b) Alters the Rx sensitivity
(c) Alters range and time base circuit

189 AFC Determines

(a) The klystron frequency
(b) The magnetron frequency
(c) The Rx sensitivity
57
 190 The slots in a slotted wave-guide aerial would be cut as shown
(a) wide width

(b) T/2 Narrow dimension

(c) T Narrow dimension

191 With a directional Aerial side lobes would

(a) Not affect maximum range
(b) Decrease maximum range
(c) Increase maximum range

58
 FOUR:
AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDER

1 A loop Aerial of an A.D.F system may be used on its cron to determine

(a) The ine of direction of the received electromagnetic wave
(b) The relative bearing of the station whose signals are being Rxed
(c) The magnetic bearing of the station whose signals are being Rxed

2 A loop aerial makes an angle of 60 degrees with the plane of propagator of an

electromagnetic wave. The resultant induced emf in the loop if the maximum emf induced
is 5u V.
(a) 5uV (b) 2.5 uV (c) 3.5 uV

3 The remote gain control of an ADF system functions for the condition of the controller
function switch selected to ADF a
(a) An A.F and R.F gain control simultaneously
(b) An R.F gain control alone
(c) An A.F gain control alone.

4 In an ADF system employing a fixed loop antenna. The bearing transmitter is located
(a) In the ADF Rx
(b) In the fixed loop Aerial Assy.
(c) In the remote bearing Indicator

5 An RMI presents the information -A/c heading 300degrees, ADF I Relation bearing 135
degrees to port, ADF 2 bearing 080 degrees to starboard what is respectively the presented
magnetic bearing of ADF I and ADF 2
(a) 135 degrees and 080 degrees
(b) 020 degrees and 165degrees
(c) 165 degrees and 020 degrees

6 The sense Aerial of an ADF system, when used on its own will give
(a) The relative bearing
(b) No bearing at all
(c) The magnetic bearing

7 The loop signal is shifted in phase by 90degrees. The reason is

(a) To ensure the loop drive motor does not continuously rotate
(b) To facilitate correct operation of the balanced modulator
(c) To ensure that the loop signal either Adds to or subtracts from the sense aerial signal
when reaching the sense R.F Amplifier

8 ADF O/P to an RMI is

(a) Magnetic bearing and heading
(b) Relative bearing only
(c) Heading only.

9 If the cable is too long for the Run between Aerial and Receiver will it
59
 (a) Be cut to a suitable length, Installed in the Aircraft and loop swing carried out
(b) Be cut to a suitable length and installed without the need to carry out a loop swing
(c) Be coiled into a loop and installed in the Aircraft

10
11
12 10 Should a rotating loop Antennae be mounted upside down certain to the installation
wiring have to be made. The corrections required are
(a) Reverse the loop coil connections to the Rx and connect to the loop drive motor
(b) Reverse the loop coil connections to the Rx or Reverse connections to the loop drive
motor
(c) Reverse the loops coil connections to the Rx and also reverse the connections to S1 and
S3
of the bearing Indicator

11 Night effect is due to

(a) The velocity of the electromagnetic waves being greater at night than during the day
(b) Voltage being induced in the horizontal members of the loop due to change of
polarisation
(c) The ground wave being reflected by A/c skin

12 The polar diagram of the D.F system in the loop position is

(a) Cardiod (b) Figure of Eight (c) Circle

13 A rotating loop Aerial has been removed from the dorsal surface of an A/c and reseated
on its Ventral Surface; correction for loop rotation has been carried out but not for the
bearing
indicator system . The Rx is tuned to a station whose relative bearing is 060 degrees. ADF
is selected when the loop finds a stable Null the indicated relative bearing will be
(a) 060degrees (b) 240 degrees (c) 300 degrees

14 What corrections are necessary to the installation wiring when re-siting a fixed loop
Aerial
from the lower fuselage to upper fuselage
(a) Reverse the connections to the fore and after loop
(b) Reverse the connections S1 and S3 of the bearing indicator synchro
(c) Reverse the connections to the foreand after loop and connec6tions S1 and S3 of the
bearing indicator synchro.

15 Errors on the ADF caused by night effect are due to

(a) The shape of the A/craft
(b) Fading of the signals
(c) Polarization shift of signals

16 In an ADF system installed to Arinc 550 specifications, the loop aerial cable can
(a) Be of any length
(b) Have a maximum length of 30ft
(c) Have a maximum length of 60 ft

17 The o/p of an ADF Rx provides

(a) Magnetic bearing of station
(b) Magnetic bearing of the A/c
(c) Relative bearing of the station

18 When operating Automatic mode, the gain control ADF Rx

60
(a) Will be in the Audio stages
(b) Will be in the R.F Stages
(c) May be either of these

19 With a fixed loop Aerial Installation, the bearing Tx will be in the

(a) ADF Rx (b) Aerial assembly (c) Remote bearing Indicator

20 If the relative bearing of the station is 120 degrees and the magnetic bearing of the station is
degrees then the A/c heading is
(a) 080 degrees (b) 160 degrees (c) 280 degrees

21 The polar diagram of loop, sense and Auto operation of ADF are
(a) Circle, figure of eight cardiod
(b) Figure of eight, circle, cardiod
(c) Cardiod, circle, figure of eight respectively

22 Q.E error is a result of

(a) Misalignment of aerial and Aircraft centerline
(b) Re-radiation from the A/c skin
(c) Cross-over of the loop cables

23 Field alignment error is due to

(a) The loop being installed to one side of the centerline
(b) The loop being installed at an angle to the centerline
(c) The loop being installed when it picks up the pre-radiated field from the Aircraft skin

24 In an ADF Rx, the frequency of the I/P to the Goniometer is determined by the frequency of
(a) The A/c electrical supply
(b) The Rxed signal
(c) The switching Oscillator

25 The RMI compass land converts the ADF O/P to read

(a) As a relative bearing
(b) As a magnetic bearing
(c) As a magnetic heading

26 The purpose of the balanced modulator in an ADF is to

(a) Modulate the loop signal with the switching Oscillation frequency
(b) To provide sense aerial signals, which alternate between left cardioid and right cardioid
(c) To provide loop signals alternately in phase and out of phase with the sense aerial signals
pattern

27 When the ADF position is selected at the function switch of an ADF controller, the gain is
Controlled in the received at
(a) A/F stages (b) I/F stages (c) R/F stages

28 In an ADF the frequency of the signal to the goniometer motor control winding is determined
by
(a) The A/c's 400Hz supply
(b) The selected R.F
(c) The L.F switching Oscillator

29 In a fixed loop ADF system the loop signal is fed to

(a) Goniometer search coil
(b) Goniometer field coils
61
 (c) Loop R/F amplifier I/P

30 Q.E compensation for a fixed loop is made by

(a) Inserting resistors in series with one of the coils of the aerial
(b) Inserting resistors in parallel with one of the aerial coil
(c) Inserting inductive reactance in series with one of the aerial coils

31The reference line for relative bearing is

(a) The true meridian
(b) The magnetic meridian
(c) The head and tail axis of the A/c

32 The phase difference between the sense aerial and loop aerial signals voltages is
(a) 90 degrees (b) 180 degrees (c) 270 degrees

33 The Loop Aerial of ADF system may be used on its own to determine?
(a) The line of direction of the Rxed E.M waves
(b) The relative bearing of the station whose signals are being Rxed
(c) The magnetic bearing of the station whose signals are being Rxed

34 The sense Aerial of an ADF system is connected to the associated ADF Rx for the function
switch
Of the controller selected to
(a) Aerial and loop (b) Aerial and ADF (c) Loop and ADF

35 A loop Aerial makes an angle of 60 degrees with the plane of propagation of electro magnetic
Wave. The resultant induced E.MF in the loop if the maximum E.MF Induced is 5uV
(a) 5uV (b) 2.5 uF (c) 3.5 uV

36 36 When the loop Aerial of an ADF installation is being manually related through 360degrees does
The loop signal voltage
(a) Change in phase as the loop Aerial passed through the maximum points
(b) Change in phase as the loop Aerial passes through the minimum points
(c) Change in phase as the loop Aerial passes through the quadrants points

37 In an ADF system employing a fixed loop Aerial the bearing transmitter is located
(a) In the ADF Rx
(b) In the Fixed loop aerial assy.
(c) In the remote bearing indicator

37 38 An RMI presents the following information; A/c heading 300 degrees, ADF1 relative
Bearing 135 degrees to port, ADF 2, relative bearing 080 degrees to starboard. What
38 is respectively the presented magnetic bearing of ADF 1 and ADF2
(a) 135 degrees and 080 degrees
(b) 020 degrees and 165 degrees
(c) 165 degrees and 020 degrees

39 The EMF induced in the loop Aerial is proportional to

(a) Sin O (b) Cos O (c) tan O

40 ADF bearings are

(a) Magnetic bearing
(b) True bearing
62
 (c) Relative bearing

41 The sense aerial of an ADF System, when used on its own, will give
(a) The relative bearing
(b) No bearing at all
(c) The magnetic bearing

42 The magnetic bearing from a transmitter of an aircraft is 200; the aircraft compass
Reading (magnetic) is 90 .The Relative bearing of transmitter from the aircraft will be
(a) 290
(b) 110
(c) 20

43 A loop aerial placed as shown below produces in the loop aerial an emf that is
(a) Zero
(b) Maximum positive
(c) Maximum negative

44 The loop signal is shifted in phase by 90; the reason for doing this is
(a) To ensure the loop drive motor does not continuously rotate
(b) To facilitate correct operation of the balanced modulator
(c) To ensure that the loop aerial signal either adds to or subtracts from the sense
Aerial signal when reaching the sense R.F amplifier

45 The resultant loop voltage VL is found by

(a) Adding the Induced E.MF's in ab and cd
(b) Adding the induced EMF’s in ac and bd
(c) Subtracting the induced E.MF's in ab and cd

46 The relative bearing of a transmitter from an A/c is 045 degrees. The A/c compass
Heading is 100 degrees. The magnetic bearing of the transmitter from the A/c is
(a) 55 degrees (b) 135 degrees (c) 145 degrees

47 When sensing axially the L/R posns of the controller function switch is used to effect
(a) Rotation of the loop drive motor
(b) Reversal of the phase of the loop signal
(c) Reversal of the phase of the sense signal

48 The purpose of the balanced modulator stage in an ADF Rx is

(a) To provide greater loop signals
(b) To provide sense aerial signals which give alternative left and right cardioid
Polar diagram
(c) To provide loop signals that are alternately in phase with and out of phase
With the sense aerial signal

49 If the instantaneous maximum value of the loop E.M.F is 2uV. What is the angle of
The plane of the loop relative to the transmitter when the loop E.M.F is 1uV
(a) 30 degrees (b) 45 degrees (c) 60 degrees

50 The magnetic bearing of an NDB is 225 degrees. An A/c receiving this transmission is flying
63
On a heading of 45 degrees. What is the relative bearing of transmitting station?
(a) 180 degrees (b) 215 degrees (c) 045 degrees

51 In ADF system installed to Arinc 550 specifications the loop aerial cable can
(a) Be of any length
(b) Have a maximum length of 30 degrees
(c) Have a maximum length of 60 degrees

52 The sense Aerial of an ADF system behaves

(a) Resistively
(b) Inductively
(c) Capacitively

53 Sensing may be carried out axially by

(a) Switching in the loop aerial only
(b) Switching in the sense aerial only
(c) Switching in both sense and loop aerial

54 A rotating loop mounted the right way up finds a stable null at 080 degrees the loop is now
Mounted upside down and the loop motor connectors reversed the indicator now reads
(a) 280 degrees (b) 260 degrees (c) 080 degrees

55 A rotating loop mounted the right way up finds a stable null at 340 degrees. The loop is now
Mounted upside down and the loop motor connector reversed. The bearing indicator will
Present
(a) The correct relative bearing
(b) The correct relative bearing only if S1 and S3 of its synchrony torque Rx are reversed
(c) The correct relative bearing if R1 and R2 of its synchro torque Rx are reversed

56 Information on loop swing can be obtained from;

(a) ANO (b) CAIP (c) B.C.A R

57 In an ADF system employing a rotating loop aerial the bearing transmitter is located
(a) In the ADF Rx
(b) In the loop aerial assembly
(c) In the remote bearing indicator

58 The remote gain control of ADF system functions, for condition of the controller
Function switch selected to loop as
(a) Simultaneously as R.F and A.F gain control
(b) As an A.F gain control
(c) As an R.F gain control

59 The loop Aerial of an ADF system is connected to the associated ADF Rx for the function
Switch of the controller elected to
(a) Ant and loop
(b) Ant and ADF
(c) Loop and ADF

60 The direction of rotation of the Gonio-servomotor in an ADF system is reversed by

(a) Reversing the phase of the I/P to the controlled winding
(b) reversing the phase of both the I/P to the controlled and reference winding
(c) Reversing the I/P to the rotor

61 The frequency of the switching oscillator in an ADF Rx is a low frequency so that

64
(a) The controlled I/P to the Gonio motor is at a low frequency
(b) The switching speed of the balanced modulator is low
(c) The loses in the switching oscillator circuit are reduced to minimum

62 The field alignment error is due to

(a) The loop being in the E-field.
(b) The loop being installed on the lower side of the fuselage
(c) The loop being installed to one side of the centerline of the A/craft

63 The polar diagram of the D.F system in the loop position is

(a) Cardioid (b) Figure of eight (c) A circle

64 The relative bearing of an NDB firm an A/c is 225 degrees the reciprocal bearing is
(a) 145 degrees (b) 045 degrees (c) 245 degrees

65 In an ADF system using a rotating loop Aerial Compensation for quadrantal error is provided
by
(a) Mechanical means
(b) Electrical phase shift
(c) Inserting inductances in series with the loop table

66 A.D.F bearings are

(a) Magnetic means
(b) True bearing
(c) Relative bearing

67 The vertical Aerial effect is due to

(a) An unbalanced loop
(b) A balanced loop
(c) Loop voltage in the horizontal members of the loop

68 The correction curve for Q.E is

(a) In phase with the Error curve
(b) Anti- phase with the error curve
(c ) 90 degrees out of phase with the error curve.

69 Quadrant Error is due to

(a) Loop Alignment Error
(b) Radiation from A/Skin
(c) Distortion caused by the ionosphere

70 A loop suffering from vertical effect produces

(a) Two zero readings, which are 180 degrees apart
(b) One zero reading only
(c) Two zero readings which are off set so that they are less than 180 degrees apart.

71 D.F should not be used

(a) Two hours after sunset and two hours before sunrise
(b) Two hours before sunset and two hours after sunshine
(c) During hours of the darkness

72 The purpose of the balanced modulator in an ADF Rx is

(a) To provide greater loop signals
(b) To provide loop signal that are alternately in phase with or in antiphase to sense
Aerial signals
65
 (c) To provide sense aerial signals which give L-R cardioid patterns

73 A sense aerial cable is specified in length by the manufacturer. Any departure from
This requires

74 The polar diagram of the D.F system in the 4NT position

(a) Figure of eight
(b) A cardioid
(c) A circle

75 The loop Aerial voltage when the loop has been rotated to a null position is
(a) Maximum 90 degrees out of phase with sense aerial voltage
(b) Minimum an 90 degrees out of phase with the sense voltage
(c) Minimum and in phase with the sense aerial voltage

76 ADF frequencies are in the

(a) L.F range (b) M.F range (c) H.F range

77 The loop Aerial signal of an ADF system is

(a) A maximum when the plane of the loop is in the same plane as the plane
of propagation
(b) A maximum when the plane of the loop is at right angle to the plane of propagation
(c) Minimum when the plane of the loop is in the same plane of propagation

78 The remote gain control of an ADF system functions for the condition of the controller
Function switch selected to ADF as
(a) An A.F and RF gain control simultaneously
(b) An R.F gain control alone
(c) An A.F gain control alone

79 In an ADF system employing a fixed loop Aerial. The bearing transmitter is located
(a) In the ADF Rx
(b) In the fixed loop Aerial assembly
(c) In the remote bearing indicator

80 The sense Aerial of an ADF system is connected to the associated ADF Rx for the
Function switch of the controller selected to
(a) Ant and loop (b) Ant and ADF (c) Loop and ADF

81 The reference line of magnetic bearing is

(a) The true meridian
(b) The magnetic meridian
(c) The fore and after line of the A/craft.

82 The phase difference between loop and sense aerial voltage is

(a) 90 degrees (b) 180 degrees (c) 270 degrees

66
 83 The sense aerial is used
(a) In an emergency
(b) On auto position
(c) On loop position

84 The loop aerial may be used on its own to give the relative bearing
(a) Increase by 2 degrees
(b) Reduce by 2 degrees
(c) Remain the same

85 An RMI presents the following information: A/C heading 000, Relative bearing 000.
e A/C heading is now to 30, what is the new relative and magnetic of the station, whose
als are being received by the receiver?
(A) 330 and 000
(b) 030 and 330
(c) 150 and 000

86 how is movement of the gonio search coil linked to the bearing transmitter during ADF
Operation?
(a) They are both driven by the same shaft on the goniometer
(b) The search coil is the rotor of the bearing transmitter
(c) Via a basic synchro loop comprising receiver and transmitter

87 The resultant EMF induced in a rotating loop is considered to be sinusoidal. The reference
Line and function of the loop are respectively
(a) A/C center line, Cosine function
(b) A/C center line, Sine function
(c) Plane of loop parallel to direction of arrival, Cosine function.

88 Thunderstorms produce errors in ADF bearing information due to

(a) Moisture dumping output of transmitter
(b) Change in plane of polarization
(c) Interference signals which make it difficult for the loop to find the correct null

89 The capacitance of an ADF sense aerial and feeder system should be measured at a
Frequency in the region of
(a) 1 kHz (b) 200 kHz (c) 30 kHz

90 The sub-carrier deviation of a VOR transmission is

(a) + 480Hz
(b) + 1020Hz
(c) + 30Hz

91 The maximum QE present is

(a) +2 (b) -10 (c) -8

92 How much loop alignment error is present?

(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) None

93 How much field alignment is present?

(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) None

94 What is the QE correction when IRB is zero?

67
 (a) +2 degrees
(b) –2 degrees
(c) None

95 What is the QE correction setting?

(a) +2 degrees
(b) +8 degrees
(c) +6 degrees

96 If the entire curve was displaced 2 degrees upward from the fixed axis, this would cause
Loop alignment error to:
(a) Increase by 2
(b) Remain the same
(c) Decrease by 2

97 If the entire curve was displaced 2 downwards from the fixed axes, this would cause field
Alignment error to
(a) Remain the same
(b) Increase by 2
(c) Decrease by 2

98 If the entire curve was displaced 2 to the right of the fixed axis, this would cause
The aerial to
(a) Remain at 2
(b) Increase to 4 degree
(c) Return to zero

99 If the curve were displaced 2 degrees upwards from the fixed axis this would cause
quadrantal error to
(a) Increase by 2 degrees
(b) Reduce by 2 degrees
(c) Remain the same

100 If the entire curve was displaced 2 degrees to right of the fixed axis this would cause
the aerial to
(a) Remain at 2 degrees
(b) Increase to 4 degrees
(c) Return to zero

101 For the errors present in fig 1as it is drawn what is the physical position of the loop
(a) Correctly mounted
(b) Parallel to the centerline but offset
(c) On the center line but twisted

102 For the errors present in fig 1 as is drawn, if the loop is removed, overhauled and correctly
repositioned on the center line
(a) All errors will disappears
(b) Only Q.E will remain
(c) Field alignment error becomes zero

103 If the curve is re-plotted using a fixed loop with built in Q.E correction of 12.5 degrees
but without a Q.E corrector fitted
(a) The loop should be changed for one having the correct Q.E.C
(b) A.Q.E corrector with +4.5 correction should be fitted
(c) A.Q.E corrector with -4.5 corrections is needed
68
104 If the loop Equalizer is fitted
(a) It would need 2 degrees L.A .E correction
(b) It would result in reduction of all errors in fig 1
(c) It would have no effect on fig 1.

105 When switched to 'ANT' on an ADF controller, the bearing indicator printer
(a) Indicates the relative bearing of the station
(b) Rotates continuously
(c) remains stationary

106 Vertical or Antennae effect is due to

(a) An unbalanced loop
(b) A balanced loop
(c) Loop voltages in the horizontal members of the loop

107 The fore and after coil of fixed ADF loop

(a) Has minimum emf induced in it when signals come from the extended centre line of
the Aircraft
(b) Is made more sensitive to provide some Q.E.C
(c) Has an increased signal induced in it due to being parallel to the Aircraft fuselage

108 The Athwart ships coil of a fixed ADF loop

(a) Has maximum e.m.f induced in it when signals come from the extended center line of the
Aircraft.
(b) Is made more sensitive to provide some Q.E.C
(c) Has an increased signal induced in it due to being parallel to the Aircraft fuselage

109 ADF information

(a) Controls the A/c in roll via the autopilot
(b) Is never fed to the autopilot
(c) Controls the A/c in Yaw via the autopilot

69
FIVE:
VERY HIGH FREQUENCY OMNI-DIRECTION RANGE V. O .R

1 A VOR Omni-bearing indicator read 180 degrees and TO and FROM indicator reads TO.
The A/c must be
(a) North to beacon
(b) Flying to the beacon
(c) South of the beacon

2 Between 108 and 112 MHz presents allocated VOR frequencies are
(a) 000 decimal frequencies
(b) Even decimal frequencies
(c) All frequencies spaced 0.1 MHz apart

3 In a VOR system ambiguity is indicated by which of the following basic instruments

(a) Cross-pointer flight deviation indicator
(b) Omni -bearing indicator
(c) Omni -bearing selector

4 Which of the following is a VOR signal

(a) Carrier modulated with 90Hz, 150 Hz and 1020Hz
(b) Carrier modulated with 30Hz, 9960Hz FM 30Hz and 1020
(c) Carrier modulated with 30Hz, 9960 Hz, and FM 30Hz

5 An A/c id due east of VOR station. The phase difference between the reference and variable
[[3\ nmnPhase components is
(a) Variable phase leading ref. phase by 90 degrees
(b) Variable phase lagging reference phase by 90 degrees
(c) Variable phase lagging reference phase by 270 degrees

6 The manual phase shifter resolver of an OBS shifts. The phase of the reference phase
signal by
(a) An amount equal to the variable phase voltage +90 degrees
(b) An amount equal to variable phase voltage -90 degrees
(c) An amount equal to variable phase voltage

7 If 180 degrees phase difference exists between the two I/P's to a VOR (TO-FROM), the
indicator will show
(a) ' TO ' wholly in view
(b) ' FROM' wholly in view
(c) 'TO ' partially in view

8 The OBI continuously indicates

(a) The relative bearing of the station
(b) The magnetic bearing from the station
(c) The magnetic bearing to the station

70
9 The VOR reads 000 degrees to, needle straight on a stationary A/C. If it is faced in the
opposite direction then the information
(a) 000 degrees FROM; Card 180 degrees
(b) 180 degrees FROM; Card 180 degrees
(c) 000 degrees TO; Card 180 degrees

10 The vertical pointer of a cross-pointer indicator reads to the left of center after OBS
has been adjusted to produce an 'On Course' indicator. Has the fly 'TO' the station on
the selected radial
(a) Deviate to the left of the selected course
(b) Deviate to the right of the selected course
(c) Not deviate at all from the selected course

11The automatic VOR shift resolver is operated by

(a) The OBS
(b) A servomotor
(c) A differential synchro

12 The reference frequency of Doppler VOR is

(a) 9960Hz sub-carrier
(b) 9960 F.M 30Hz
(c) 30 Hz A.M

13 Auto VOR O/P would be displayed on

(a) OBI (b) CDI (c) HSI

14 If the variable phase leads the reference phase by 30 degrees the magnetic bearing to the
VOR station will be
(a) 30 degrees (b) 210 degrees (c) 150 degrees

15 With a selected Omni-bearing of 090 degrees and the variable phase lagging the reference
Phase by 280 degrees the flight director will show
(a) Fly Right, FROM
(b) Fly Right, TO
(c) Fly left, TO

16 The frequency range of a VOR Rx is

(a) 108- 117.95 MHz
(b) 108- 111.95 MHz
(c) 118- 135.95 MHz

17 The autopilot, when coupled to a VOR Rx will command the A/c in

(a) The roll axis
(b) The pitch axis
(c) The Yaw axis

18 For a VOR the needle has to move for FSD

(a) 10 degrees (b) 2.5 degrees (c) 0.5 degrees

19 The depth of modulation for the audio signal of reference in VOR is

(a) 40% (b) 30 % (c) 20%

20 Consider the following situation diagram. If the selected course is 280 degrees what is the
position of the deviation bar on the HSI
(a) 2 dots Fly Left
71
(b) 2 dots fly Right
(c) On course

21 In the above diagram if the pilot changes his course selector to 100 degrees what is the
final HSI presentation
(a) To flag, 2 dots Fly Right
(b) FROM flag, 2 dots Fly Right
(c) FROM flag, 150NA fly Right

22 When checking TO-FROM flag operation using a Ramp Test set adjusted to 000 degrees.
A TO flag should appear when OBS is rotated clockwise between
(a) 000 and 180 degrees (b) 090 and 270 degrees (c) 280 and 080 degrees

23 When checking left-Right Deflection using an approved Ramp Test set adjusted to 315 degrees
full scale fly-left should show if OBS is set to
(a) 325 (b) 145 (c) 125

24 An A/c on a magnetic heading of 045 degrees has its RM pointer showing 230 degrees. If the
OBS has been set to 045 degrees. What is the lateral deviation bar on the CDI show?
(a) On course (b) Half scale fly Right (c) Half scale fly left

25 If the question above the CDI would be showing

(a) TO FLAG (b) FROM FLAG (c) NO FLAG

26 If an A/c is on a magnetic heading of 270 degrees and VOR Tx is 90 degrees the

starboard. What is the VOR radial being received
(a) 090 degrees TO (b) 180 degrees TO (c) 180 FROM

27 If a VOR transmitter is 90 degrees to port of an aircraft. What radial is being received?

(a) Could be any Radial between 000 and 359
(b) 180 degrees TO
(c) 180 degrees FROM

28 Using an approved ILS/VOR Ramp test set, when the test set is set to Adb DDM left. The
deviation bar on the CDI should deflect
(a) 2 dots (b) 90uA (c) 75 uA

29 Using an approved ILS/VOR Ramp test set when the attenuators are set to -40dBM.
This means
(a) 40 dB down from maximum
(b) 40 dB down from 1mV
(c) 40 dB down from 1mW

30 The RMI servo amplifier is required for

(a) RMI needle operation
(b) RMI card operation
(c) RMI and RBI card operation

31 When the voice range switch filter is switched to range

(a) 1020Hz signal is rejected
(b) 1020 Hz signal is amplified
(c) Audio signals other than 1020Hz are alternuated

72
 32 Which of the following instruments relies upon automatic VOR operation
(a) RBI (b) RMI (c) HSI

33 For an ON Course indication of the deviation bar in a CDI the phase difference in
the comparator of the instrument tic unit is
(a) 0 degrees (b) 90 degrees (c) 180 degrees

34 The OBS of a CDI is set to 265degrees with the ramp test set at 090 degrees the
deviation bar shows
(a) Full scale Fly Right TO
(b) Half scale Fly Left FROM
(c) Half scale Fly Right FROM

35 With the variable and reference phase signals in phase with the TO-FROM comparator the
CDI flag will indicate
(a) FROM (b) TO (c) No direction

36 An A/c situated on 240 degrees from radial has its OBS set 070 degrees. The deviation
indicator will show
(a) Fly left from (b) Fly Right TO (c) Fly left TO

37 The sub-carrier frequency of a VOR transmission is

(a) 9960Hz (b) 1020 Hz (c) 30 Hz

38 A discriminator is used in a VOR Rx to

(a) Recover the variable phase 30Hz component
(b) Discriminate between the variable and reference 30Hz component
(c) Demodulate the reference phase 30Hz component

39 39 If an A/c is on course 050 degrees "TO" and moves to a position where the 060 degrees
radial is being received, where, where will the deviation bar move to
(a) Full scale deflection Fly Left
(b) FSD Fly Right
(c) Half scale deflection Fly Right

40 VOR beacon provided for en-route Navigation have

(a) A carrier o/p approximately 50 watts providing a service range of approximately
25 nautical miles

41 An A/c is heading of 000 degrees. The VOR radial on the RMI is 000 degrees and OBS
is selected to 010 degrees . The TO-FROM flag lateral deviation bar indicates
(a) TO; F.S.D Right
(b) TO; F.S.D Left
(c) TO; F.S.D Left

42 When carrying out a check for standard operations of a VOR system automatic
VOR would be checked on which of the following instruments
(a) CDI (b) FDI (c) RMI

43 A resolver used for auto VOR uses

(a) One rotor, two stators
(b) Two rotors, two stators
(c) One rotor, One stator
73
44 A resolver used for manual VOR has its rotor positioned by
(a) A/c heading information
(b) Servo motor in VOR navigation system
(c) OBS knob

45 When checking TO-FROM flag operation using a Ramp Test Set adjusted to 180
degrees, a
FROM flag should appear when the OBS knob rotates clockwise (increased digits) between
(a) 280 and 080 (b) 100 and 260 (c) 180 and 000

46 When checking TO-FROM flag operation using a ramp test set adjusted to 225, no
flag should be in sight when OBS knob rotates clockwise between
(a) 305 and 325 (b) 135 and 135 (c) 080 and 100

47 The method used to determine bearing in a VOR system

(a) Phase comparison (b) Amplitude comparison (c) Relative comparison

48Above VOR beacon there is a cone of confusion in which an Airborne receives give
(a) A bearing indication of 000 degrees
(b) Bearing indication of 180 degrees
(c) A bearing indication characterized by violent fluctuation

49 The information fed to the pointer of a VOR , RMI is

(a) VOR radial information only
(b) Heading information only
(c) Radial and heading information

50 An A/c VOR Rx is receiving a signal whose phase difference between reference phase
and
variable phase is 180 degrees will A/c
(a) Be north of the station
(b) Be south of the station
(c) Be flying away of the station

51 The VOR RMI shows A/c heading to the 030degrees and VOR radial to be 142 degrees.
The relative bearing of the station is
(a) 112 degrees (b) 224 degrees (c) 248 degrees

52 The magnetic bearing of a transmitter from an A/c is 200 degrees, and the A/c compass
heading (Magnetic) is 090 degrees . The relative bearing of the transmitter from the A/craft is
(a) 290 degrees (b) 110 degrees (c) 020 degrees

74
SIX: HYPERBOLIC SYSTEMS ( LORAN , DECCA, OMEGA)

1 The Decca system is

(a) A frequency comparison system
(b) A phase comparison system
(c) An Amplitude comparison system

2 The comparison frequency in a Decca Rx for operation of the people Decameter is

(a) 30f (b) 18f (c) 24f

3 The lane identification sequence in a Decca system is

(a) Purple-Red-Green
(b) Green-Red- Purple
(c) Red-Green-Purple

4 Loran C operations is
(a) Pulse (b) C.W (c) F.M

5 Loran C operates in
(a) 2MHz (b) 100KHz (c) 16.1KHz

6 Omega is
(a) L.F Radar (b) VLF Radar (c) VLF Navigation

7 The frequency band used for Decca transmission is

(a) 70Hz- 130 Hz (b) 70 KHz 130 KHz (c) 70 MHz-130MHz

8 On Decca lattice the Red zone consists of

(a) 18 lanes (b) 24 lanes (c) 30 lanes

9 The fading distance between each lane as the A/c increases its distances from the base line is
(a) Constant (b) Increases (c) Decreases

10 The angle of cut that the A/c makes with the hyperbolic lines should be
(a) As small as possible
(b) As large as possible
(c) As near 90 degrees as possible for the sake of accuracy

11 The position lines on a Decca map represent

(a) Signals of the same phase
(b) Signals that are 180 degrees out of phase
(c) Signals of the same frequency

12 An A/c moves from one position line to another across a lane. In doing so the signals
will undergo
(a) 380 degrees change of phase
(b) 180 degrees change of phase
(c) No change of phase

13 When reading the L.I meter

(a) The venire pointer nearest the sectional pointer is read
(b) The venire pointer inside the sectional pointer is read
75
(c) The venire pointer opposite the sectional pointer is read

14 When the reference-reset button is pressed the fractional pointer should read
(a) Zero (b) 0.5 (c) The position of the Rx

15 The four transmitters in Decca chain give

(a) 0 degrees coverage (b) 120 degrees coverage (c) 360 degrees coverage

16 A fundamental frequency for a Decca chain is

(a) 141.1 KHz (b) 14.1 KHz (c) 14.1 MHz

17 An ONS using software correction for predictable errors will give A/c position to accuracy
(R.M.I) Of
(a) 1-2 nM (b) 0-1 nM (c) 2-5 nM

18 Omega gives worldwide Navigation facilities using

(a) Five station transmitting on 1 0.2, 11.33 and 13.6 KHz
(b) Eight station transmitting on 10.2, 11.3 and 13.6 KHz
(c) Strategically placed stations transmitting frequency-multiplexed signals

19 A Decca chain usually consists of

(a) A master and three slaves
(b) Master- slave pair
(c) Independent stations

20 The usable Night Range of Decca is about

(a) 120nM (b) 240 nM (c) 360 nM

21 Loran C radiates
(a) Pulsed R.F at 100 KHz
(b) Pulsed R.F at 14 KHz
(c) C.W at 100 KHz

22 The Decca master station is transmitting at 84 KHz, the green slave will therefore
be transmitted at
(a) 112 KHz (b) 121 KHz (c) 126 KHz

23 The time for a complete txn schedule of omega is

(a) 10 seconds (b) 1.1 seconds (c) 0.9 seconds

24 The fractional pointer of the people Decometer completes one revolution. The lane pointer will
have moved through
(a) 15 degrees (b) 12 degrees (c) 20 degrees

25 The omega transmission sequence is

(a) 10.2 KHz, 11.3 KHz, 13.6 KHz.
(b) 11.3 KHz, 13.6 KHz, 10.2 KHz.
(c) 10.2 KHz, 13.6 KHz, 11.3 KHz.

26 The number of Omega station transmitting at any instant is

(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 1

27 In VLF Navigation DSTRK means

(a) Distance across Track
(b) Designed track
76
(c) Distance along track

28 Omega time information is entered as

(a) Local time (b) D.S.I (c) GMI

29 Loran A has
(a) Only one station
(b) Two stations synchronized by the same PRF
(c) Two stations synchronized to different PRF's

30 During lane identification transmissions which transmitter remains wholly operative?

(a) Red slave transmitter (b) Master transmitter (c) Green slave transmitter

31When the fractional pointer of the people deccometer completes one revolution the lane
pointer will have moved through
(a) 15 degrees (b) 12 degrees (c) 20 degrees

32 The sector pointer of the Decca lane identification meter is operated by the result of phase
comparison in the Rx at a frequency of
(a) f (b) 8f (c) 6 f

33 The zone indicator of the green deccometer will change from one letter to the next letter after
the
lane pointer completes
(a) Two revolutions (b) Half a revolution (c) One revolution

34 The number of Decca lanes forming a zone depends on

(a) Phase comparison between any two slave transmitters at certain comparison frequency.
(b) Phase comparison between the masters transmitter and a particular slave transmitter
at certain comparison frequency.
(c) Phase comparison between the master transmitter and slave transmitter at the basic
chain frequency.

35 Decca transmissions take place

(a) In the low frequency band between 70 and 180 KHz
(b) In the medium frequency band between 300 and 3000 KHz.

36 Decca transmissions take place

(a) In the long wave band between 30 and 60 KHz.
(b) In the medium wave band between 350 and 410 KHz.
(c) In the long wave band between 70 and 130 KHz.

37 The division for the Decca lanes is derived from

(a) The fundamental frequency
(b) The Comparison frequency
(c) The master frequency

38The vernier pointer of the Decca lane identification meter are operated by the result in
the
of phase comparison at
(a) f (b) 5f (c) 6f

39 The position lines on a Decca map represents:

(a) Signal of the same phase
(b) Signal that are 180 degrees out of phase
77
(c) Signals of same frequency

40 On a Decca lattice a green zone contains

(a) 18 lanes (b) 24 lanes (c) 30 lanes

78
SEVEN: SYNCHROS

1 In a servo system, when the synchro transmitter rotor and control transformer rotor are at right
angles, the error signal is
(a) In phase (b) Antiphase (c) Zero

2 In a synchro system the A.C feed to the Rotors is

(a) In phase (b) Antiphase (c) Unrelated in phase

3 A Tachogen in a Servo system is used to

(a) Generate mechanical friction
(b) Reduce hunting
(c) Amplify the servo Amp. O/P

4 A control transformer in a servo system is connected to

(a) The 1/p to the SYN. TX
(b) The 1/p to the Servo Amp.
(c) The o/p of the servo Amp.

5 If the amplitude of one phase of a two-phase inductor motor is decreased it would

(a) Slow down (b) Speed up (c) Produce more torque

6 A servo system is designed to

(a) Maintain the Error signal constant
(b) Decrease the Error signal
(c) Increase the Error signal

7 The speed of a two-phase induction motor can be controlled typically by

(a) Controlling the phase of the I/p
(b) Controlling I/p frequency
(c) Controlling I/p Amplitude

8 In a synchro system, the three lines O/p from the TX consists of

(a) Three O/P's differing in phase by 120degrees
(b) Three O/P's varying in Amplitude all of the same phase
(c) Three O/p's varying in Amplitude either in phase or Antiphase

9 If two connections on a synchro TX stator are reversed

(a) The receive shaft will stop
(b) The receive shaft will be displaced 120 degrees

10 A Synchro TX Rotor is in the zero position when

(a) Rotor aligned with S1R1 Closet
(b) Rotor aligned with S2R2 Closet
(c) Rotor aligned with S2R1 Closet

11 A Control Differential Synchro transmitter

(a) Combined two electrical I/p's to give a resulting mechanical O/P
(b) Combined two mechanical 1/P's to give a resultant electrical O/P
(c) Combines an electrical and mechanical 1/P to give a resultant electrical O/P

79
12 A differential synchro Tx would have
(a) 3 stators winding and 3 rotor winding
(b) 3 stators winding and 1 rotor winding
(c) 1 stator winding and 3 rotor winding

13 If the rotor of a synchro Tx is in a position of maximum coupling to a particular stator winding

for minimum coupling to that winding it would have to be rotated
(a) 90 degrees (b) 120 degrees (c) 180 degrees

14 A synchro system would typically be used to

(a) Drive the drift angle needle in a doppler
(b) Drive an altimeter needle
(c) Drive a magslip rotor

15 The speed of a low power D.C motor is typically controlled by

(a) Controlling the field current
(b) Controlling the armature current
(c) Controlling the armature and field current

16 To prevent hunting a servo system

(a) The synchro transmitter is mechanically damped
(b) The motor employs a squirrel cage construction
(c) A tacho-generator

17 The I/P to a servo Amp comes from

(a) A synchro transmitter
(b) A servomotor
(c) Control transformer

18 If the error signal in a servo system is decreasing the driven element will be
(a) Getting further from the correct position
(b) Getting closer from the correct position
(c) Stopped

19 In a servo system the synchro transmitter and control transformer rotor are
(a) Fed in phase by 115V a.c
(b) Fed in phase quadrative by 115V a.c
(c) At 90 degrees to one another

20 To reverse the direction of a two-phase motor

(a) Both supply phase are reversed in phase
(b) Control phase is reversed in phase
(c) The control phase is altered by 90 degrees in phase

21 In a synchro system, if the rotor is in a maximum position to the stator, how will it have to
be moved to give the next maximum O/P from stator
(a) 60 degrees (b) 90 degrees (c) 180 degrees

22 If a servomotor were increased in speed towards the correct speed the error signal would be
(a) Decreasing (b) Increasing (c) Not changing

23 In a synchro system the rotor are fed with

(a) AC in phase (b) AC in Anti phase (c) DC

24 The symbol drawn below is the symbol used for

80
(a) A synchro Tx
(b) A synchro Rx
(c) Both (a) and (b)

25 In a servo Amplifier the gain is reduced by

(a) Power f/back
(b) Velocity f/back
(c) Current f/back

26 A synchro differential Tx requires

(a) No supply
(b) An A.c supply
(c) A D.C supply

27T he phase difference between the supplies of two-phase induction motor determined
(a) The speed of rotation
(b) The direction of the rotation
(c) The mechanical torque

28 When a servo has reached its Null position and the motor slopes the velocity f/back is
(a) Zero (b) Max. In phase (c) Max. In anti-phase

29 Asynchro control transfer is said to be positioned at Zero degrees when

(a) The voltage induced in the rotor by the S2 winding is a max
(b) The voltage induced in the rotor by the S2 winding is a min
(c) The voltage induced in the rotor by the S1winding is a min

30 A synchro differential Tx provides

(a) Both electrical and mechanical o/p's
(b) An electrical O/P only
(c) Both electrical and mechanical I/P

31 A synchro differential Tx is said to be positioned at zero degrees when

(a) The Axis of the R2 winding lines up with the S1 winding
(b) The Axis of the R2 winding lines up with the S2 winding
(c) The Axis of the R2 winding lines up with the S3 winding

32 In the resultant rotating stator magnetic f/d of a 2 induction is rotating in a clockwise direction,
will the rotor
(a) Rotate in step in the same direction
(b) Rotate slightly behind the stator in the same direction
(c) Rotate slightly ahead the stator in the same direction

33 A basic synchro system is used to

(a) Transmit position information
(b) Control large amounts of current
(c) Transfer energy

34 If S1 and S3 are reversed at the synchro Rx the rotor will

(a) Reverse direction with no error
(b) Be 180 degrees in error
(c) Be 120 degrees in error

35 The differential synchro tx uses a rotor having

81
(a) A single coil
(b) Three star connected coils
(c) Three delta-connected coils

36 The direction of rotation of an induction motor may be

(a) Reversing the phase of the I/P to the controlled winding
(b) Reversing the phase of both the I/P to the reference winding and to the controlled winding
(c) Reversing the Rotor I/P.

37 If the connections to the rotor of the Rx of a synchro torques bearing indicator are reversing
will the indicator pointer
(a) Present the positional information without error
(b) Present the positional information with an error of 180 degrees
(c) Present the positional information with an error of 90 degrees

38 If the O/P of one stator of an inductive resolver is max when the rotor is positioned at zero
degree position, it will be minimum when the rotor is turned
(a) 180 degrees (b) 120 degrees (c) 90 degrees

39 A synchro control transformer is used

(a) To add the O/P of two synchro Tx's
(b) To obtain 26 V A.c reference supply.
(c) To derive an error voltage from synchro Tx signal and shaft I/P

40 A closed servo loop is a Txn system

(a) With information f/back
(b) With no information f/back
(c) Utilizing a human operator in the chain command

41 Velocity f/back in airborne equipment is usually obtained from

(a) Tacho generator
(b) Synchro Tx
(c) A mechanical generator

42 A torque synchro with one rotor reverse connected introduce

(a) An error of 180 degrees
(b) Reverse direction of rotation
(c) An error of 120 degrees

43 In a simple torque synchro system of the tx is at 0 degree position and the Rx at the 120 degrees
or 240 degrees position a possible fault is
(a) Rotors supplied with 26V 400Hz in parallel but not in phase
(b) One stator line short circuit to earth
(c) Two connections between stators reversed.

44 Reversing S and S of a synchro torque receiver of an RMI will result in the indicator pointer
(a) Rotating in the same direction as the transmitter rotor with 120" error
(b) Rotating in the opposite direction as the transmitter rotor with 120" error
(c) Rotating in the opposite direction as the transmitter rotor with 240" error.

82
83
EIGHT : COMPOSITE QUESTIONS

01. FM systems are less affected by noise than AM systems because noise modulates
The carrier in:
(a) Phase (b) amplitude (c) frequency

02. The frequency of the modulating signal of an FM transmitter determines

(a) Carrier Amplitude
(b) Carrier frequency deviation
(c) Rate of carrier frequency deviation

03. FM systems always operate at VHF or above to achieve the required;

(a) Channel separation
(b) Frequency stability
(c) Power O/P

04. When compared to an A.M modulator, the F.M modulator require

(a) Greater power
(b) Less power
(c) The same power

05. Which of the following A/C systems employ F.M technique

(a) ILS (b) ADF (c) Radio altimeter

06. The center of the I/C-R/T switch is connected to

(a) 28 V D.C (b0 Earth (c) The hand set jack socket

07. To Tx on pax address, the pilot selects

(a) R/T (b) I/R (c) O/R

08. Which of the following switch positions could give a cross-talk condition
(a) 0 I/C OFF (b) O/R (c) Amp Fail (Emergency)

09. If the North -Emergency switch in an audio integrating systems at Emergency

(a) X-talk will be reduced
(b) A standby isolations Amplifier is used
(c) Audio 0/p's are taken direct from the Rx's

10. A passenger control unit will be found

(a) In the seat armrest
(b) In the overhead panel
(c) Adjacent to the video recorder

11. What aural sound is used to alert passengers to a flight crew message?
(a) A chime (b) A bell (c) A beeper
84
12 A build up of PPI static on an A/C is due to
(a) Distant thunderstorms
(b) Flying through rain, hail or snow
(c) Poor airframe bonding

13. To reduce the noise picked up by a mic circuit use is made of

(a) Earthed screen cables
(b) A carbon microphone
(c) A low frequency filter

14. Static dischargers are fitted to the Airframe at points of high electrical potential
(a) Wing tips
(b) Leading edges
(c) Wing roots

15. To reduce the noise picked up by a microphone circuit, use is made of a

(a) Balanced mic I/P transformer
(b) Low frequency filter
(c) Carbon microphone

16. Switching transients are mainly transmitted by

(a) Radiation (b) Conduction (c) Induction

17. The number of omega transmitter located worldwide is

(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10

18. An Omega Rx may utilize, with suitable coupler /Amplifier

(a) An ILS marker Ae
(b) A VOR antennae
(c) An ADF loop or sense antennae

19. Omega operates in the

(a) VLF band (b0 LF band (c) MF band

20. The three transmitted Omega frequencies are

(a) 10.6KHz, 11.2 KHz and 13.33KHz.
(b) 10.2 KHz, 11.33 KHz and 13.6 KHz.
(c) 10.33KHz, 11.6 KHz and 13.2 KHz.

21. The most significant propagation Variable in the Omega transmission system requiring
correction is
(a) Diurnal variation of phase velocity
(b) Phase velocity variations due to ground path conductivity
(c) Sudden ionosphere disturbance

22. The Omega RCU can calculate an A/C's position using a minimum of
(a) Two stations (b) Three stations (c) Four stations

23. Rate aiding

(a) Sets the A/C's position before take-off
(b) Prevents the A/c's from drifting off track
(c) Ensures that a lane is not accidentally slipped

24. In the Omega Navigation System the letter DSRTK stand for
85
(a) Desired track Angle
(b) Distance -off track
(c) Distance along track to next waypoint

25. On an Omega CDU, groundspeed is displayed in

(a) Miles per hour (b) Kilometer per hour (c) Knots

26. The main disadvantages of a carbon microphone is that it

(a) Has a very low o/p voltage
(b) Has a very high Impedance
(c) Is a noise generator?

27. When checking on electromagnetic mic with an Avometer a serviceable reading will be
(a) Less than 1 ohm
(b) About 100 ohms
(c) About 500 ohms

28. Another name for the dynamic type of microphone is

(a) Carbon (b) Moving coil (c) Electro- Magnetic

29. The best type of microphone for high fidelity reproduction is

(a) Ribbon (b) Moving coil (c) Electro-magnetic

30. Side tone can be derived from the transmitter’s

(a) Master Oscillator (b) Buffer Amplifier (c) Power Amplifier

31. On a mic/tel socket, which connections must be earthen

(a) None
(b) Tel Negative, and mic screen
(c) Tel Negative, ans the mic positive

32. A permanent magnet loudspeaker has

(a) Two terminals (b) Three terminals (c) Four terminals

33. The normal line Impedance of an A/C headset when the earpieces are connected in series is
(a) 150 ohms (b) 300 ohms (c) 600 ohms

34. If the telephone receiver of a boom headset is checked for continuity using an Avometer
connected to the jack plug, a satisfactory resistance reading would be of the order of
(a) 5 ohms (b) 50 ohms (c) 500 ohms

35. The purpose of an Amplifying device, such as a transistor in an Oscillator circuit is to provide
(a) The 180 phase shift
(b) Sufficient gain to overcome losses
(c) For feeding following stages

36. Crystal units invariably are employed in VHF TX's because of their;
(a) Greater reliability than LC circuits
(b) Extremely small dimensions
(c) Excellent frequency stability

37. Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to ;

86
(a) 1000MHz (b) 100 KHz (c) 30MHz

38. A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a;

(a) Resistive bridge network
(b) High Q resonant circuit
(c) Pair of tuned coupled circuits

39. Which of the following Oscillators has the best frequency stability; -
(a) Hartley (b) Colpits (c) Tuned collector

40. At 120 MHz the most practical type of transmission line for A/C use is
(a) Coaxial cable (b) Twin-wire feeder (c) Wave guide

41. A twin - wire feeder txn line is most suitable for

(a) H.F (b) VHF (c) UHF

42. Which of the following will radiate electro-magnetic waves when fed with alternating current
at radio frequencies
(a) Coaxial cable (b) Copper screened cable (c) Unscreened wire

43. A coaxial cable is said to be 73 ohms. This figure is its

(a) D.C resistance (b) Impedance per 100ft (c) Characteristic Impedance

44.A Tx stage with an O/P Impedance of 50 ohms requires a txn line Impedance of
(a) 75 and 25 ohms (b) 25 and 25 ohms (c) 50 and 50 ohms

45 An ideal VSWR reading for an aerial system would be

(a) 0:1 (b) 1:1 (c) 2:1

46. The standing current at the centre of a half wave dipole aerial is always
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) The same as the standing current

47. The standing voltage at the end of a half wave dipole aerial is always
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) The same as the standing current

48. The radiation resistance Rr of an aerial is used in the formula I2 Rr. This is the formula for the
Power
(a) Supplied the aerial (c) Dissipated by the aerial (c) Last in the aerial

49. If a quarter- wave unipole aerial is folded its I/P Impedance

(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same

50.Most A/c VHF aerials are developed from the basic unipole, the length of which is
(a) T/8 (B) T/4 (c) T/2

51. The B/width of a half-wave dipole aerial is increased by

(a) Adding directors and reflectors
(b) Increasing the diameter of aerial rod
(c) Increasing its length

52. If a fixed length aerial is too short at the frequency of txn it can be resonated by adding series
(a) Capacitance (b) Resistance (c) Inductance

53. Increasing the number of elements in a yagi aerial array decreases

87
(a) Ae gains (b) Beam width (c) Radiated power

54. When painting a whip aerial with a neoprene cover should you use
(a) Cellulose paint (b) On no account cellulose paint (c) Any paint

55. Radiation of waves takes place, when

(a) Electric and magnetic fields are both vertically polarized
(b) Electric and magnetic fields are mutually at 90 degrees
(c) Electric wavelies in the plane of propagation

56. The plane of polarization is defined as the plane in which the

(a) E field lies (b) H field lies (c) E and H fields are parallel

57. To detect SSB txns the carrier must be reinserted. This has a frequency equal to the
(a) Incoming RF signal (b) Last IF (c) First LO

58. If an SSB Rx working suppressed carrier switches from ILS to LSB, the O/P of the Rx will
(a) Not change(b) Be alternated (c) Be distorted

59. To retain intelligible O/P the carrier Oscillator in a SSB Rx must be stable to within
9a) 10Hz (c) 100Hz (c) 1000Hz

60. An advantage of SSB reception over DSB transmission the carrier is

(a) Increased (c) 1:1 (c) Reduced

61. When using 'using suppressed carrier SSB transmissions the carrier is
(a) Not transmitted (b) Reduced in power (c) Transmitted Intermittently

62. The O/Ps from a SSB balanced modulator are

(a) LSB and USB
(b) Carrier and both sidebands
(c) AF and carrier

63. Removal of the USB or LSB is achieved by a

(a) Balanced modulator (b) Selective filter (c) Limiter

64. When using ' pilot carrier' SSB txns, the carrier is transmitted
(a) At full power (b) At reduced power (c) Intermittently.

65.For VHF comms, the lowest frequency allocated is

(a) 112.00 MHz (b) 118.00 MHz (c0 131.00MHz

66. An A/c at 40, 000ft can communicate by VHF up to a distance of approximately

(a) 50N miles (b) 120N miles (c) 260 N miles

67. All A/c VHF comms is carried out by

(a) Single channel simplex
(b) Double channel simplex
(c) Double channel duplex

68. An A/c VHF Tx-Rx is connected to its aerial by a

(a) Screened twin -wire feeder
88
(b) Co-axial cable
(c) Four coded screened cable

69. A/c HF aerials should not be made of stainless steel wire because it has
(a) High tensile strength
(b) High RF resistance
(c) Low elasticity

70. The length of a basic aerial used for VHF comms is

(a) T/8 (b) T/4 (c) T/2

71. The length of an A/c VHF rod aerial is approximately

(a) 23 inches (b) 39 inches (c) 47 inches

72. During Rxn, the Tx/ RX relay, in an HF communication system connects the aerial to the
(a) Aerial tuning unit (b) Power Amplifier (c) RF Amplifier

73.The weak link in an HF wire is a safety device fitted

(a) To the rear tensioner
(b) At the forward mast
(c) 2 ft from the forward mast

74. A/c HF transmitters

(a) Present no hazard to health
(b) May cause burns if contact is made with the aerial
(c) Produce radiation dangerous to health

75. A typical O/P power of Airborne comms DSB Tx

(a) 30watts (b) 150 watts (c) 400 watts

76. To enable a single aerial to be used in a comms system for transit and receive, use is made of a
(a) Double-pole single way switch
(b) Aerial changes over relay
(c) Make before break relay

77.Selcal is fitted to A/c

(a) Because it is mandatory on public transport A/c
(b) To relieve the flight crew from the need to maintain a continuous listening watch
(c) As an aid to air navigation

78. The function of the selcal selector switch normally located on a control panel in the cockpit is
to select
(a) A comms Rx to feed into the selcal detector
(b) A selcar code
(c) The alarm lamp or chimer, which is operated by the selcal decorder

79.In a superhet Rx the frequency of the BFO with respect to the intermediate
frequency is normally
(a) Different by 1KHz. (b) Different by 10KHz. (c) Tuned to 1KHz.

80. When carrying out an AGC check on a VHF comms Rx the O/P power reading should remain
89
fairly constant as the
(a) I/P R/F signal voltage is varied
(b) Depth of modulation is varied
(c) AF pre-set gain control is adjusted

81. In a radio Rx the AGC normally controls the

(a) If , RF and Mixer
(b) Oscillator, IF and RF
(c) Oscillator IF and Mixer

82. A Rx squelch circuit mutes the

(a) RF stage (b) IF stage (c) AF stage

83. One purpose of a squelch circuit is to

(a) Mute the Rx when the signal ceases
(b) Reduce background noise during RXn
(c) Eliminate noise pulses from nearby radar equipment.

84. Distortion in the o/p of an SSB Rx may be caused by

(a) Master Oscillator drift
(b) Increased IF B/W
(c) Increased RF B/W

85. SSB transmissions can be detected by using

(a) A double superhet SSB Rx
(b) A triple superhet AM Rx with BFO
(c) Either (a) or (b)

86. The frequency range 300KHz-3 MHz is called the

(a) LF band (b) MF band (c) VHF band

87. The distance over which VHF communication maybe achieved is limited
(a) By local weather conditions in the troposphere
(b) To radio line of sight
(c) By conditions in the ionosphere

88. Radio waves are said to have line -of- sight propagation
(a) Above about 30MHz
(b) Not below 1000MHz
(c) From about 10MHz upwards

89. When is the radio wave absorption effect greatest in the ionosphere?
(a) In the evening (b) By night (c) By day

90. If the frequency of a radio wave is decreased will its penetration of the ionosphere
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain the same

91 Is the ground wave attenuation of a radio wave over desert

(a) Greater than over water?
(b) Less than over water?
(c) The same as over water?

92. Fading can be caused by

90
(a) Changes in the height of the troposphere
(b) The E-layer being constant and frequency also being constant
(c) The ionosphere changing in density

93.Attenuation of the ground wave increases as frequency increases. This is due to the
(a) Earth's skin effect
(b) Decreasing wavelength w.r.t. the earth's horizon
(c) Fact that the wave must pass over water

94. A tuned circuit load in a mixer stage is necessary because

(a) Mixing can only be done in a tuned circuit
` (b) It selects the required frequency and rejects all others
(c) Mixing takes place at RF and the tuning circuit is the only possible load.

95. The coefficient of coupling across a tuned circuit transformer

(a) Must be as high as possible
(b) Should be kept low
(c) Depend on the required B/ width

96. In the majority of MF Rx's the local Oscillator is tuned

(a) Above the I/P signal frequency
(b) Below the I/P signal frequency
(c) To 465-470KHz

97. The selectivity of a superhet Rx depends upon the

(a) IFB/width (b) Mixer circuit B/width (c) A.F B/width

98. An Rx has an IF of 465 KHz. When it is tuned to a signal frequency of 200KHz the
local oscillator will normally be tuned to
(a) 265 KHz (b) 465KHz (c) 665KHz.

99. If the IF B/W is decreased, the Rx noise will

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain the same

100. IF an Rx fail to meet the specification for second channel (imaged) rejection, the first
circuit to check is the
(a) IF amplifier (b) RF amplifier (c) Local oscillator

101. Second channel interference can be rejected by using a

(a) Beat frequency oscillator
(b) Low intermediate frequency
(c) High intermediate frequency

102. Adjacent channel interference may be reduced by

(a) Utilizing a lower IF
(b) Increasing the IF B/width
(c) Introducing an RF stage

103. A RF amplifier in a superhet Rx improves

(a) Adjacent channel rejection
(b) Local oscillator radiation
(c) The signal to noise ratio

104. In the block diagram the block marked x is a

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(a) Mixer (b) Detector (c) IF amplifier

105. Which of the following is needed to receive CW transmission a

(a) Side tone circuit (b) Squelch circuit (c) B.F.O circuit

106. The frequency of the BFO in a superhet Rx is

(a) Tuned in sympathy with the RF amplifier
(b) Always the same frequency as the IF amplifier
(c) A fixed frequency above or below the intermediate frequency

107. The purpose of AGC is to keep the O/P level of a Rx constant regardless of the
(a) Incoming signal strength
(b) Gain of the values or transistors used
(c) Depth of modulation

108.The selcal modulation on communication channels consists of

(a) Two sequential pulses, each having two tones
(b) One pulse having two tones
(c) Two sequential pulses, each having four tones

109 In a selcal decoder each reed relay resonates at a frequency principally determined by the
(a) Inductance of its coil
(b) Construction of the reed
(c) Characteristics of the magnetic circuit

110 Selcal may be used with

(a) VHF only
(b) HF only
(c) Both VHF and HF

111. Reception of a selcal transmission is indicated on the flight deck by

(a) A lamp indicator
(b) Ringing chimes
(c) Both lamp indicator and ringing chimes

112. VOR is an aid to Air Navigation, which provides

(a) Bearing information
(c) Distance to go information
(c) Both (a) and (b)

113. The A/c VOR equipment determines the bearing of the ground beacon by comparing
(a) The amplitude of two 30 Hz tones
(b) The phase of two 30Hz tones
(c) One 30Hz tone and one 9960 Hz tone in Amplitude

114. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR

(a) 109.3 MHz (b) 114.3 MHz (c) 118.3 MHz

115.A VOR Tx is identified by Morse code, which consists of amplitude modulation at

(a) 400Hz (b) 1020 Hz (c) 1300Hz

116. In manual VOR, shifting of the Ro is affected by

(a) A discriminator (b) A comparator (c) A resolver Synchro

117. In manual VOR, the deviation indication is operated by the o/p of a phase comparator, after
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phase comparing
(a) No and Ro
(b) Vo and SRo-90degrees
(c) Vo and SRo +90 degrees

118. If the deviation bar indicates 'fly right' the i/ps to the manual VOR phase comparator are
(a) Less than 90 degrees out of phase
(b) More than 90 degrees out of phase
(c) Exactly 90 degrees out of phase

119. When the VOR Rx is bearing 060 degrees (M) from the VOR station
(a) Vo leads RO by 60degrees
(b) V0 lags RO by 60 degrees
(c) VO lags -R O by 60 degrees

120 When the I/Ps to the TO-FROM phase comparator are in phase quadrature, the TO-FROM
flag show
(a) TO (b) FROM (c) No flag

121. The raw O/P of Auto VOR is

(a) Magnetic bearing information
(b) Relative bearing information

122.The raw o/p of auto VOR will be directly indicated on

(a) An omni-bearing indicator
(b) A radio magnetic indicator
(c) A course deviation indicator

123. The I/P to the auto VOR phase

(a) -S RO-90
(b) SRO +90
(c) -SRO +90

124. In auto VOR, the O/P two-phase motor is controlled by signal direct from
(a) The phase shift resolver
(b) The phase comparator
(c) The chopper Amplifier

125. In order to display on an RMI, the autoVOR O/P

(a) Is added to A/c heading
(b) Has A/c heading subtracted from it
(c) Is added to the relative bearing of the beacon

126. The indicator which displays the raw O/P of auto VOR IS
(a) CDI (b) OBI (c) RMI

127. The VOR facility shares its receiver with

(a) Both its localizer and glide slope
(b) ILS glide slope only
(c) ILS localizer only

128. A VOR dipole antenna is bent

(a) To minimize aerodynamic drag
93
(b) To give a more omni-directional radiation pattern
(c) To improve reception of ILS signals

129. The frequency of signals received from a Tx traveling towards the Rx will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain unchanged

130 Doppler VOR makes use of

(a) An antenna rotating at 30 Hz
(b) A circle of antennas fed in sequence
(c) A rotating cardioid of antennas fed in sequence

131. Compared with C VOR, D VOR

(a) Changes the roles of RO and VO signals
(b) Does not employ FM in its transmission
(c) Has more sitting problems.

132. On the localizer center line the received signal is a RF carrier modulated equally by
each tone to a depth of
(a) 10% (b) 20 % (c) 30 %

133. The ILS localizer carrier frequencies are allocated the range 108- 112MHz.
(a) Odd decimals only(b) Even decimals only (c) Odd and even decimals

134. Azimuth guidance to the extended runaway centerline is given by

(a) Localizer systems (b) Glide path system (c) Marker system

135. The localizer carrier is modulated at tone frequencies of

(a) 30 and 60 Hz` (b) 30 and 90 Hz (c) 30 and 90 Hz

136. The localizer Rx determines the A/c deviation from the center line by measuring the
(a) Amplitude of the RF carrier
(b) Difference in amplitude between the two tones
(c) Frequency difference between the two tones

137.The ILS deviation indicator flag has an FSD of 250uA. This is supplied by
(a) A D.C proportional to the difference in amplitude of the 90 Hz and 150 Hz tones
(b) A D.C proportional to the sum of the amplitude of the 90 Hz and 150 Hz tones
(c) An A.C proportional to the sum of the amplitude of the 90 Hz and 150 Hz tones

138. Full scale deflection of an ILS deviation indicator corresponds to Rx deviation o/p of
(a) 5mA (b) 50uA (c) 150uA

139. The glide path Rx frequency is selected by selecting the

(a) Glide path frequency at the Nav. controller
(b) Glide path frequency at the G/p controller
(c) Paired localizer frequency at the Nav controller

140. Up/down guidance to an ideal descent path is given by the

(a) Localizer system (b) G/ path system (c) Marker system

141. The glide path receiver operates at

(a) HF (b) VHF (c) UHF

142. On the glide path center line the received signal is an RF carrier, modulated equally
by each tone to a depth of
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(a) 20% (b) 30 % (c) 40 %

143. The blue marker lamp on an A/c with zero glide path deviation should flash at an altitude of
approximately
(a) 500ft (b) 1200ft (c) 2000ft

144. The function of the HI-LO Marker switch is to

(a) Select the frequency of operation
(b) Control the sensitivity of the Rx
(c) Adjust the illumination of the marker lamps

145. The ILS middle marker modulation is keyed with

(a) Alternate dots and dashes (b) Dots (c) Dashes

146. The ILS outer marker lamp is colored

(a) Blue (b)Amber (c) White

147. The ILS outer marker transmissions are modulated by a

(a) 3000Hz tone (b) 1300 Hz tone (c) 400Hz

148. The approximate distance of the middle marker transmitter from the runway threshold is
(a) 3500ft (b) 4N mile (c) 6Nmiles

149. Marker information is presented to the pilot

(a) Visually and aurally (b) Aurally only (c) Visually only

150 The transmission of data in an MLS is by

(a) BCD (b) DPSK (c) 2 voltage level binary signal

151. The time multiplexed signal from an MLS ground facility; -

(a) Must be a particular sequence since in order to allow identification of individual block
functions
(b) Need not be particular sequence since block functions can be identified by the fact that
different blocks are transmitted on different frequencies.
(c) Need not be in a particular sequence since blocks function can be identified by the
pre-amble at the beginning of each block

152.The channel spacing for ILS is

(a) 300 KHz (b) 3MHz (c) 1 MHz

153. In MLS angle measurement; -

(a) The FRO beam is received before the TO beam
(b) The difference in time between TO and FRO beams
(c) The difference in time between TO and FRO beams being transmitted is an
analogue of the angle

154. One of the sector signals in a block is a constant amplitude signal which can be used for;-
(a) A/c aerial selector
(b) Phase acquisition
(c) A timing reference

155. Prolonged lock on to multipath signals is avoided by;-

(a) Detecting excessive slew rates
(b) Comparison of pulse amplitude
(c) Checking preamble function identification
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156. If an A/c is not drifting there is no
(a) Difference between heading and track
(b) Wind
(c) Radio information

157. The path of an A/c over the ground is known as its

(a) Track (b) Drift (c) Heading

158. If the RMI compass card is read against the fixed lubber, the information obtained is
(a) Drift angle (b) Relative bearing (c) A/c heading

159. The magnetic track to steer away from a beacon is known as

(a) QDM (b) QDR (c) QTR

160. The green pointers always indicate

(a) ADF2 or VOR bearing
(b) ADF2 bearing and VOR1 or VOR2 bearings as selected
(c) ADF1 or VOR 1 bearing

161. Airborne ADF receivers operate at;-

(a) MF and LF (b) HF (c) VHF

162. An ADF Rx requires a; -

(a) Loop aerial only
(b) VHF aerial and a loop aerial
(c) Sense aerial and a loop aerial

163. A loop aerial has

(a) One null (b) Two nulls (c) Four nulls

164. The change in phase occurring as a loop aerial is rotated through a null is;-
(a) 90 degrees (b) 180 degrees (c) 360 degrees

165. The o/p from the loop aerial shown in plan on the night is
(a) Zero (b) 0.707 maximum (c) Maximum

166. A bethni-tosi aerial has; -

(a) One loop (b) Two loops (c) three loops

167. When a fixed loop aerial is used , the associated goniometer is normally located in the
(a) Loop aerial (b) QE corrector (c) Receiver

168. In an Airborne ADF installati8on the loop aerial (or goniometer search coil) is driven to its
null by a;
(a) Synchro torque Rx
(b) Two phase motor
(c) Synchro resolver

169. The o/p from the balanced modulator in an ADF Rx is added to the;-
(a) Loop aerial
(b) Sense signal
(c) Low frequency switching signals

170. In a ADF Rx the torque transmitter driving the RMI needle torque Rx is connected to the
96
 (a) Goniometer search coil
(b) Bellini-tosi fixed loop aerial
(c) QE correction attenuation

171. The extent of loop alignment error present is shown in a correction device by; -
(a) The Amplitude of the peaks
(b) Vertical displacement of the curve
(c) Horizontal displacement of the curve

172.When carrying out an ADF test outside the hangar and without a test set, the times
to avoid are around; -
(a) Midday and midnight
(b) Dawn and dusk
(c) Dawn and midday

173. When testing ADF systems on an airport bearing errors can be expected. These errors may be
due to ;-
(a) Loop alignment
(b) Reflections and Re-radiations
(c) Quadrantal Error

174. Quadrantal error has a value, which is -

(a) Constant for all bearings
(b) Maximum for bearings of 90 degrees and 270 degrees, and minimum in line with
the fore-and -after axis of the A/craft
(c) Zero at 0 degrees, 90 degrees, 180 degrees and 270 degrees, and maximum at about 45
degrees, 135 degrees, 225 degrees and 315 degrees

175. For an A/c to fly to NDB when using ADF equipment the angle between the needle and the
fixed lubber of the RMI must be
(a) O degrees (b) 90 degrees (c) 180 degrees

176. Two signals may be compared in phase only if both are

(a) Modulated (b) At the same frequency (c) Of the same amplitude

177. As an A/c flies at right angles to the base line the width of a lane
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same

178. The number of A/c able to use a Decca chain at any time is
(a) Limited to 142 (b) Limited to 250 (c) Unlimited

179. The fundamental Decca frequency is approximately

(a) 14.2 KHz (b) 71KHz (c) 113. 6 KHz

180. If, during normal operation the A/craft Decca navigation equipment measure s a phase
change of 360 degrees the A/c will have flown over a Decca
(a) Lane (b) Zone (c) Area

181. The master slave Tx's of a Decca chain must be locked together in
(a) Frequency (b) Amplitude (c) Phase

182. Adjacent chains of the Decca Navigation System use different

(a) Numbers of lanes in a given zone
(b) Numbers of slave transmitters
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(c) Fundamental frequencies

183. During lane identification transmissions of a Decca Navigation system, the distance
between two half wave length s at the comparison frequency is known as a
(a) Lane (b) Zone (c) Ident

184. The width of a zone at the base line is approximately

(a) 1.o6 KM (b) 10.6 KM (c) 106 KM

185. Lane identification is achieved by transmissions from the

(a) Master station only
(b) Master and one slave station
(c) Red and green slave stations

186. The comparison frequency during lane identification transmissions is

(a) IF and 6F (b) 5F and 6F (c) 8F and 9F

187. The window in a Deccometer indicates

(a) Zone (b) Lane (c) Frequency channel

188. Once the fractional pointer on a Deccometer has made one revolution, the A/c has
flown over a Decca
(a) Lane (b) Zone (c) Area

189. Once the lane pointer on a Deccometer has made one revolution the A/c has
flown over a Decca
(a) Lane (b) Zone (c) Area

190. The use of the Decca mark 8 Rx is restricted to

(a) Light A/craft
(b) A/c with a speed of not more than 240 knots
(c) A/c not requiring the flight log facility

191. The normal comparison frequency between purple slave and master is
(a) 18F (c) 24 F (c) 30 F

192. The o/p from a Decca flight log computer gives a drive to the
(a) Pen motor only
(b) Paper motor only
(c) Both pen and paper motors

193. In a Decca flight lag computer the angle between the green and purple lanes is resolved to
approximately
(a) 30 degrees (b) 45 degrees (c) 90 degrees

194. The pen motor on a Decca flight log provides movement known as
(a) Easting (b) Northings (c) Westings

195. The paper motor on a Decca flight log provides movement in the
(a) X axis (b) Y axis (c) Z axis

98