3600-Plus

Review Questions for

Anatomy & Physiology

Volume 1

R. Michael Anson, Ph.D.

(c) 2005 - 2009 R. Michael Anson (anson@jhu.edu)
This work is licensed under the Creative Commons Attribution-ShareAlike 3.0 License. To view a copy of this license,
visit http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/2.5/ or send a letter to Creative Commons, 543 Howard Street, 5th
Floor, San Francisco, California, 94105, USA.
This work was previously published under a different title:
1700+ Review Questions for Anatomy and Physiology I

i
 Edition History for '1700+ Review Questions for Anatomy and Physiology I'
(renamed from 4th edition onward to:
“3600 + Review Questions for Anatomy and Physiology: Volume 1”)
August, 2005, R. Michael Anson: First edition.
The questions were written one topic at a time during the summer of 2005. Students in a class which I
was teaching were given access to them, and the positive feedback led me to the decision to compile
them into this document at the end of the course. I would be happy to receive feedback, positive or
negative, or to learn of errors that may be present: my email address is anson@jhu.edu .

November, 2005, R. Michael Anson: Second edition.

A 'note to the student' was added to the preamble, explaining basic study skills relevant to the use of this
question bank.

A 'Study Skills' section was added as an introduction to the use of this question bank.

Language of Anatomy
#6: answer changed from 'microscopic' to 'microscopic anatomy'
Changed all limb-related questions which had 'proximal' as an answer to read 'proximal (or superior).'
Changed all limb-related questions which had 'distal' as an answer to read 'distal (or inferior).'

Appendicular and Axial Skeleton

Moved questions 87 and 88 from appendicular skeleton to axial (they were misclassified in original
placement, as they dealt with the development of the spine).

Cell Overview
Inserted missing figure on question 76.

The Axial Skeleton

Questions 90 and 91: 'thoracic' was a typo, and has been replaced by 'lumbar.'

The Appendicular Skeleton

Corrected a spelling error in question 11 (corocoid --> coracoid).
Corrected a spelling error in question 22 (to --> two).

Muscles
This section was completely revised to emphasize the prime movers in each motion, and the section
renamed to reflect this change.

Nervous Tissue
ii
 Corrected the answer to #84.

CNS
Modified question 45 to include a reference to the corpus callosum.

April, 2006, R. Michael Anson: Third edition.

Bones and Skeletal Tissue
Corrected the answer to question 32 to be 'dense irregular connective tissue'

Appendicular Skeleton
Question 23 was corrected to read, 'The medial bone of the forearm is the _____.'

Joints
The answer to #85 was corrected to read, 'bursae.'

Muscles: Prime Movers

Corrected a misspelling in the answer to question 63.
Corrected a misspelling in question 65.

Nervous Tissue
Deleted questions 126 - 129 in Nervous Tissue, which were essentially trivial, and re-numbered those
remaining.

Special Senses
A clear distinction is now made between receptor cells and receptor proteins.
Question 106 was corrected to refer to the middle, rather than inner, ear.

July, 2009, R. Michael Anson: Fourth Edition

Changed title to “3600 + Review Questions for Anatomy and Physiology: Volume 1”
In addition to the correction of many minor typographical errors (capitalization errors, etc.), the following
changes were made:
Changed the original numbers to “unique ID” codes (UIDs).
Purpose: UIDs are needed by teachers who wish to correlate test banks in various formats (fill in the
blank, multiple choice, T/F, etc.) with the original question. Initially, the original question number was
used as the UID, but these created reader confusion as deleted questions resulted in “missing” numbers,
etc.
To generate UIDs, the first letter of each major word in the section was used as a prefix the original
question number, and “a,” “b,” etc., used as a suffix when changes are necessary.

iii
 Questions numbers from this edition forward are arbitrary and refer only to the position of a particular
question within the particular edition being used.
A table correlating the question number in a particular edition with the UIDs will be provided as an
appendix.

Language of Anatomy:
Deleted: 123, 126, 134
Added:

Tissues
Deleted: 20, 55, 76, 77, 78, 79
Added: T20a, T55a

Bones and Skeletal Tissue

Deleted: 3, 72
Added: BST3a, BST72a

Skin
Renamed entire section to "Integumentary System"
Deleted: 62
Added: InS62a

Axial Skeleton
Deleted: 62, 64, 119
Added: AxS62a, AxS 64a, AxS119a, AxS122

Appendicular Skeleton
Deleted: 64, 83
Added: ApS64a, ApS83a

Joints
Deleted: 21, 43, 68
Added J21a, J43a

Muscle Tissue
Deleted: 9, 38, 62, 70
Added: MT9a, MT38a, MT62a, MT70a

iv
Muscles - Prime Movers
Deleted: 47, 48, 59, 75, 105.
Added: MPM47a, MPM48a, MPM48b, MPM59a, MPM75a, MPM105a.

Nervous Tissue
Deleted: 72, 85, 121, 122, 123, 124
Added: NT72a, NT85a

CNS
Deleted: 3, 5, 18, 21, 23, 28, 60, 76, 83, 84, 89, 114, v123, 126, 132, 139
Added: CNS3a, CNS5a, CNS5b, CNS18a, CNS18b, CNS18c, CNS18d, CNS20a, CNS21a, CNS23a,
CNS28a, CNS33a, CNS59a, CNS60a, CNS60b, CNS76a, CNS83a, CNS84a, CNS89a, CNS114a,
CNS123a, CNS124a, CNS126a, CNS130a, CNS130b, CNS130c, CNS132a, CNS132b, CNS133a,
CNS139a

PNS
Deleted: 41, 80 - 85, 90
Added: PNS41a, PNS90a

ANS
Deleted 11, 17, 24, 25, 26, 27, 59, 60
Added: ANS11a, ANS17a, ANS20a, ANS24a, ANS25a, ANS25b, ANS26a, ANS27a, ANS53a, ANS53b,
ANS59a

Special Senses
In prior editions, the reference point for questions 36 - 38 was the center of the head, rather than the
center of the eye. This was an unintentional change in reference point from the prior questions, in which it
was the center of the eye, and it has been corrected in this edition.
Deleted: 35, 36, 37,38, 39, 55, 59, 61, 63, 82, 92, 93, 94, 95, 96, 113, 121, 123, 128, 132, 133
Added: SS19b, SS35a, SS36a, SS37a, SS38a, SS39a, SS39b, SS55a, SS55b, SS59a, SS59b, SS59c,
SS59d, SS61a, SS63a, SS82a, SS92a, SS93a, SS93b, SS94a, SS95a, SS96a, SS123a, SS128a,
SS128b, SS133a, SS133b

Endocrine System
Deleted: 12, 13, 14, 35, 52, 67
Added: ES40a, ES52a, ES100

v
 Preamble

A note to the student:

Memorization is easiest if questions are answered out loud and in writing. This means that it is a
good idea to have a plentiful supply of scrap paper handy as you study! (As for the out loud aspect
of study, well, in some situations - on a bus, for example - this may not be wise. Thinking an
answer is better than not studying at all, of course!)
If you encounter a word you do not understand while studying this question bank, you should look it
up! Memorizing random, meaningless sounds or letter combinations is much harder than
memorizing words and concepts which you understand, and information you understand is retained
longer! (You will find this especially important on cumulative exams.)
If a question (or an answer) involves something visual (for example: 'After studying hard for hours,
sometimes my ____ hurts,' where the answer is 'head'), be sure that you can picture it in your
imagination. Refer to textbooks, etc., if you cannot. In this way, by studying the review questions,
you are at the same time studying for your laboratory exams. More importantly, you will gain a
greater understanding of the material and this will help you to use it and to remember it on exams
and in your future career.
While you study, don't try to swallow an entire topic in one huge gulp. The first step to learn new
material by using this question bank is to read four or at most five questions. Once theseare
familiar, but before the answers are well-known, hide the answers and try to fill in the blank for
each question. Don't just do it in your head: write each answer down on scrap paper, and if you're
alone, say it out loud. This simple trick can double or triple your learning speed!
Once you've mastered a set of four or five questions completely, don't simply rush to newer
material: consolidate the older material by going back and reviewing the questions that came
before the ones you just mastered. This will help it to move into long-term memory.
Once you have mastered the questions in a section in order, review them by answering every fifth
one until you can answer them all in that way also. (The number five is arbitrary: the key is to
review them out of order.)
Once you know an entire set, you will be surprised at how quickly you can review it. Don't put it
aside completely: spend an hour or so each week reviewing topics you've already mastered, and
midterms and finals will seem easy! (Ok, well, let's be accurate - easier.)

Memorization is not the end of your learning process, it is the beginning. Once you have the facts,
you must learn to use them! This is beyond the scope of this question bank, but is a fact you'll
probably become familiar with during your lectures or laboratory sessions. Good luck with your
studies!

R. Michael Anson
23-Nov-05

A note to my fellow educators:

The memorization of factual information and the application of information using critical thinking
have in recent years come to be viewed by many educators as antithetical. This assumption has
led to arguments against the teaching of factual knowledge at all, and those of us who suggest that
students should commit factual information to memory, perhaps by using flashcards, are often
treated to the sneers and jeers of our colleagues.

vi
 Preamble

Nonetheless, it is my firm belief that a period of memorization prior to exercises in application

accelerates the learning process dramatically. A student who has no prior knowledge in a field,
when presented with a problem in critical thinking, is faced with several hours of flipping through
the indices of various texts to find all of the facts which may be relevant and useful. While the
material learned will be well-retained due to the effort expended, the use of time is inefficient at
best. In contrast, a student who has been guided in the memorization of some basic factual
information, when presented with the same problem, may flip through the mental indices in
seconds or minutes, and the 'aha!' moment is the more dramatic and satisfying for its speed.
With that in mind, this collection of questions was prepared. The questions are essentially
exercises in active reading. Once the students are sufficiently familiar with the topics, they will find
that they can read the questions fairly quickly, rapidly replacing the blanks with the correct word or
phrase. At that point, they have the facts at hand which will allow them to solve many problems
with which they might be presented in anatomy and physiology. Should the serious student stop
after memorizing the material, and never use it, never apply it to problems? Clearly not. It is hoped
that this information will simply be the foundation on which a solid set of problem solving skills will
be built.

R. Michael Anson
26-Aug-05

vii
 Table of Contents

Question
Count Page
Copyright & License ........ N/A ........ i
Edition History ........ N/A ........ ii
Preamble ........ N/A ........ vi
Study Skills ........ 10 ........ 1
Language of Anatomy ........ 166 ........ 2
Chemistry Overview ........ 91 ........ 12
Cell Overview ........ 100 ........ 18
Tissues ........ 84 ........ 24
The Integumentary System ........ 79 ........ 29
Bones and Skeletal Tissue ........ 95 ........ 34
The Axial Skeleton ........ 121 ........ 40
The Appendicular Skeleton ........ 90 ........ 47
Joints ........ 95 ........ 52
Muscle Tissue ........ 136 ........ 58
Muscles - Prime Movers ........ 116 ........ 66
Nervous Tissue ........ 127 ........ 73
The CNS ........ 148 ........ 80
The PNS ........ 93 ........ 90
The ANS ........ 62 ........ 95
Special Senses ........ 137 ........ 99
Endocrine System ........ 99 ........ 107
Appendix 1 ........ N/A ........ A1-1
Appendix 2 ........ N/A ........ A2-1
1849
 Study Skills

1. Memorization is easiest if questions are answered _____ and _____. This means that it is out loud; in writing; scrap paper
a good idea to have a plentiful supply of _____ handy as you study!

2. If you encounter a word you do not understand while studying this question bank, you look it up!
should _____.

3. If a question (or an answer) involves something visual (for example: 'After studying hard picture it in your imagination
for hours, sometimes my ____ hurts,' where the answer is 'head'), be sure that you can
_____. Refer to textbooks, etc., if you cannot.
4. To use these questions to study for a lab, look up a(n) _____ of anything you can't easily picture
imagine, as you study.

5. The first step to learn new material by using this question bank is to _____. read four or five questions
questions

6. Once the current batch or four to five questions is familiar, but before the answers are hide
well-known, the best way to study this question bank is to _____ the answers.

7. Only after _____ questions have been mastered should you proceed to the next few four or five
questions.

8. Once you've mastered a set of four or five questions completely, you should _____ before go back and review the last set
you move forward.

9. Once you have mastered the questions in a section in order, review them by _____ until answering every fifth one
you can answer them all in that way also.

10. Once you know an entire set, you will be surprised at how quickly you can _____. Don't review it; reviewing topics
put it aside completely: spend an hour or so each week _____, and midterms and finals you've already mastered
will seem easy!

1
 Language of Anatomy

1. Anatomy is the study of the _____ of the body, while physiology is the study of its _____. structure; function

2. The study of large body structures is called _____ anatomy. gross

3. The study of a body area such as the foot is called _____ anatomy. regional

4. The study of an organ system's structure is called _____ anatomy. systemic

5. The study of the relationship between internal structure and surface features of the body surface
is called _____ anatomy.

6. _____ is the study of small body structures, often too small to be seen with the naked eye. Microscopic anatomy

7. _____ is the study of tissues, and _____ is the study of cells. Histology; cytology

8. The study of changes in the body's structure over time is called _____ anatomy: a developmental; embryology
specialized sub-field that deals with such changes prior to birth is called _____.

9. One common way to organize physiological knowledge is to classify it by _____. organ system

10. Physiology is the study of the body's function, often at the _____ or _____ level. cellular; molecular

11. The principle which allows us to (in many cases) infer the function of a component of the Principle of Complementarity
body based on its structure, and vice versa, is the _____.

12. Atoms combine to form _____. molecules

13. Tissues consist of _____ <a phrase is appropriate as the answer, rather than a single similar types of cells
word>.

14. An organ is made of several types of _____. tissue

15. Organs working together on a common task form an _____. organ system

16. The _____ system forms the external body covering. integumentary

17. The _____ system protects deeper tissues from injury. integumentary

18. The _____ system synthesizes vitamin D. integumentary

2
 Language of Anatomy

19. The _____ system is the primary site of pressure and pain receptors, as well as sweat integumentary
and oil glands.

20. The _____ system protects and supports body organs. skeletal

21. The _____ system provides a framework and leverage so that muscles can cause skeletal
movement.

22. The _____ system houses the blood-forming cells of the body. skeletal

23. The _____ system stores minerals which may be used as needed. skeletal

24. The _____ system allows us to move objects in the environment, as well as to move our muscular
own bodies.

25. The _____ system is a major source of heat (allowing us to maintain body temperature). muscular

26. The _____ system is the fastest-acting control system of the body, activating muscles and nervous
glands as needed.

27. Organs of the _____ system secrete chemicals called hormones into the blood. endocrine

28. The _____ system regulates processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use. endocrine

29. The _____ system transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, and wastes throughout cardiovascular
the body, in the blood.

30. The _____ system picks up fluid 'leaked' from the blood vessels and returns it to the blood. lymphatic

31. The _____ system attacks foreign substances within the body. immune

32. The _____ system keeps blood supplied with oxygen and disposes of unwanted carbon respiratory
dioxide.

33. The _____ system breaks food down into chemicals which can enter the blood for digestive
distribution to the body's cells.

34. The _____ system disposes of items which have been eaten, but which lack nutrient value. digestive

35. The _____ system eliminates excess nitrogen from the body. urinary

36. The _____ system regulates water and electrolyte levels and (to some extent) the pH of urinary
the blood.

3
 Language of Anatomy

37. The _____ system produces sperm or eggs and sex hormones. reproductive

38. The mammary glands (breasts) are a part of the _____ system. reproductive

39. To live, an organism must separate the _____ and _____ environments. internal; external

40. Living organisms must be able to _____ items; often themselves, but at the least, move
molecules and subdivisions within themselves.

41. To live, an organism must be able to _____ and _____ changes in the environment. sense; respond to

42. Organisms that ingest other organisms must _____ these items to capture energy and digest
raw materials.

43. _____ refers to the entire set of chemical reactions which occur within an organism. Metabolism

44. _____ refers to chemical reactions which lead to the production of complex molecules or Anabolism
structures within an organism.

45. _____ refers to chemical reactions which degrade or destroy complex molecules or Catabolism
structures within an organism in order to capture energy or raw materials.

46. Life forms must dispose of unneeded items, which is done in a process called _____. excretion

47. Since no organism is immortal, any life form existing now must have had ancestors which reproduction
were capable of _____.

48. To avoid a reduction in size from one generation to the next, living organisms must be grow
able to _____.

49. In order to survive, humans (and human cells) require _____ for raw materials and nutrients; oxygen; water
energy, _____ to allow aerobic respiration (one of the major metabolic reactions), and
_____ to dissolve all of the chemicals of life so that reactions can occur.
50. When a constant, dynamic equilibrium is maintained despite changes in the environment homeostasis
(for example, our ability to maintain a constant body temperature), this is called _____.

51. To maintain homeostasis, a(n) _____ must monitor the internal or external environment to receptor
detect changes.

52. To maintain homeostasis, a(n) _____ must respond to signals indicating that a change control center
has occurred by triggering events which will influence the change.

53. To maintain homeostasis, a(n) _____ must be capable of altering the condition that is effector
being maintained.

54. The three components of a system which maintains homeostasis are a(n) _____, a(n) receptor; control center; effector
_____ and a(n) _____.

4
 Language of Anatomy

55. In a(n) _____ feedback system, a change in a condition is sensed and amplified. positive

56. In a(n) _____ feedback system, a change in a condition is sensed and returned toward its negative
previous level.

57. When equilibrium of a bodily system fails, this is described as ______. homeostatic imbalance

58. In anatomical terms, the relative position of the head and the heels during a somersault is unchanged; anatomical position
_____, because such descriptions assume that the body is in the _____.

59. The knees are _____ to the ankles. proximal (or superior)

60. The spine is _____ to the breastbone. posterior

61. The pinky fingers are _____ to the thumbs. medial

62. The eyes are _____ to the bridge of the nose. lateral

63. The nose is _____ to the mouth superior

64. The mouth is _____ to the forehead. inferior

65. The genitals are _____ to the hips. medial

66. The lips are _____ and _____ to the ears. anterior and inferior

67. The lower back is _____ to the navel. posterior

68. The hips are _____ to the ribcage. inferior

69. The thumbs are _____ to the pinky fingers. lateral

70. The chest is _____ to the shoulder blades. anterior

71. The hands are _______ to the elbows. distal (or inferior)

72. The navel is _______ to the lower back. anterior

5
 Language of Anatomy

73. The shoulder blades are _______ to the chest. posterior

74. The neck is _______ to the chest. superior

75. The pelvis is _______ to the ribs. inferior

76. The breasts are _______ to the lungs. anterior

77. The intestines are _______ to the neck. inferior

78. The elbows are _______ to the wrists. proximal (or superior)

79. The calf is _______ to the shin. posterior

80. The heart is _______ to the ribcage. deep

81. The ankles are _______ to the shins. distal (or inferior)

82. The nipples are _______ to the knees. superior

83. The brain is _______ to the skull. deep

84. The thighs are _______ to the feet. proximal (or superior)

85. The ribcage is _______ to the lungs. superficial

86. The skin is _______ to the muscles. superficial

87. ''Nasal'' refers to the _____. nose

88. ''Oral'' refers to the _____. mouth

89. ''Cervical'' refers to the _____. neck

90. ''Acromial'' refers to the _____. point of the shoulder

6
 Language of Anatomy

91. ''Axillary'' refers to the _____. armpit

92. ''Abdominal'' refers to the _____. abdomen (the "abs")

93. ''Brachial'' refers to the _____. arm

94. ''Antecubital'' refers to the _____. front of the elbow

95. ''Antebrachial'' refers to the _____. forearm

96. ''Pelvic'' refers to the _____. pelvis (the 'basin' at base of

trunk)

97. ''Carpal'' refers to the _____. wrists

98. ''Pollex'' refers to the _____. thumb

99. ''Palmar'' refers to the _____. palm

100. ''Digital'' refers to the _____. fingers or toes

101. ''Pubic'' refers to the _____. genital region

102. ''Patellar'' refers to the _____. front of the knee

103. ''Crural'' refers to the _____. leg

104. ''Pedal'' refers to the _____. foot

105. ''Tarsal'' refers to the _____. ankle

106. ''Frontal'' refers to the _____. forehead

107. ''Orbital'' refers to the _____. eye

108. ''Buccal'' refers to the _____. cheek

7
 Language of Anatomy

109. ''Mental'' refers to the _____. chin

110. ''Sternal'' refers to the _____. breastbone

111. ''Thoracic'' refers to the _____. chest

112. ''Mammary'' refers to the _____. breast

113. ''Umbilical'' refers to the _____. navel (belly button)

114. ''Coxal'' refers to the _____. hip

115. ''Inguinal'' refers to the _____. groin

116. ''Femoral'' refers to the _____. thigh

117. 'Fibular" or "peroneal'' refers to the _____. lateral side of the leg

118. ''Hallux'' refers to the _____. great toe

119. ''Cephalic'' refers to the _____. head

120. ''Otic'' refers to the _____. ear

121. ''Occipital'' refers to the _____. back of head

122. ''Manus'' refers to the _____. hand

123. ''Vertebral'' refers to the _____. spine

124. ''Scapular'' refers to the _____. shoulder blade

125. ''Upper And Lower Extremeties'' refers to the _____. arms and legs

126. ''Dorsum Or Dorsal'' refers to the _____. back

8
 Language of Anatomy

127. ''Olecranal'' refers to the _____. back of the elbow

128. ''Lumbar'' refers to the _____. loin (lower back, on either side
of spine)

129. ''Sacral'' refers to the _____. area between the hips

130. ''Gluteal'' refers to the _____. buttock

131. ''Perineal'' refers to the _____. region between the anus and
genitals

132. ''Popliteal'' refers to the _____. back of the knee

133. ''Sural'' refers to the _____. calf

134. ''Calcaneal'' refers to the _____. heel of the foot

135. ''Plantar'' refers to the _____. sole of the foot

136. The _____ or _____ plane separates the anterior and posterior portions of an object. frontal; coronal

137. The _____ or _____ plane separates the superior and inferior portions of an object. horizontal; transverse

138. The _____ or _____ plane separates the left lateral and the right lateral portions of an median; mid-sagittal
object at the midline.

139. The cranial cavity is within the _____ cavity. dorsal

140. The spinal or vertebral cavity is within the _____ cavity. dorsal

141. The thoracic cavity is within the _____ cavity. ventral

142. The abdominopelvic cavity is within the _____ cavity. ventral

143. The brain is found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, cavity that is cranial
appropriate.)

144. The spinal cord is found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, cavity spinal or vertebral
that is appropriate.)

9
 Language of Anatomy

145. The lungs and heart are found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, thoracic
cavity that is appropriate.)

146. The heart is found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, cavity that is pericardial
appropriate.)

147. The bladder, some reproductive organs, and rectum are found in the _____ cavity. (Use pelvic
the most specific, ie smallest, cavity that is appropriate.)

148. The digestive organs are found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, abdominal
cavity that is appropriate.)

149. The heart, trachea and esophagus are found in the _____ (cavity). (Use the most specific, mediastinum
ie smallest, cavity that is appropriate.)

150. The mediastinum is within the _____ cavity, which is in turn within the _____ cavity. thoracic, ventral

151. The pelvic cavity is within the _____ cavity, which is within the _____ cavity. abdominopelvic; ventral

152. The lungs are found in the _____ cavity. (Use the most specific, ie smallest, cavity that is pleural
appropriate.)

153. The pericardial cavity is within the _____, which is within the _____ cavity, which is within mediastinum; thoracic; ventral
the _____ cavity.

154. The _____ separates the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities. diaphragm

155. Organs in the ventral body cavity are surrounded by double-layered membranes called serous; visceral; parietal;
_____ membranes. The layer closest to the organ is the _____ membrane, and that serous
which lines the body wall is called the _____ membrane. The layers are separated by
_____
156. The fluid.region of the abdomen is superior to the umbilical region of the abdomen.
_____ epigastric

157. The _____ region of the abdomen is superior and left lateral to the umbilical region of the left hypochondriac
abdomen.

158. The _____ region of the abdomen is superior and right lateral to the umbilical region of right hypochondriac
the abdomen.

159. The _____ region of the abdomen is right lateral to the umbilical region of the abdomen. right lumbar

160. The _____ region of the abdomen is left lateral to the umbilical region of the abdomen. left lumbar

161. The _____ region of the abdomen is inferior to the umbilical region of the abdomen. hypogastric or pubic

162. The _____ region of the abdomen is inferior and left lateral to the umbilical region of the left iliac or inguinal
abdomen.

10
 Language of Anatomy

163. The _____ region of the abdomen is inferior and right lateral to the umbilical region of the right iliac or inguinal
abdomen.

164. In humans, "_____" is a synonym for "superior," but in four-legged animals, it means, rostral
"anterior," because it literally means, "toward the mouth."

165. In humans, "_____" is a synonym for "inferior," but in four-legged animals, it means, caudal
"posterior," because it literally means, "toward the tail."

166. '_____' refers to two structures on the same side of the body's midline (such as the left Ipsilateral
arm and left leg).

167. '_____' refers to two structures which are on the opposite side of the body's midline (such Contralateral
as the left arm and right leg).

11
 Chemistry Overview

1. In general, energy can exist in two major forms: _____ (action, or motion) and _____ kinetic energy; potential energy
(stored).

2. Chemical energy is stored in the _____ of chemical substances. electrons which form the bonds

3. When energy is converted from one form to another (eg, from kinetic to potential), some heat
is always converted into _____.

4. Atoms are composed of _____, _____, and _____. protons, neutrons, electrons

5. The nucleus of an atom consists of approximately, but not always exactly, equal numbers protons; neutrons
of _____ and _____.

6. Electrons have a mass of approximately _____ amu, while protons and neutrons both 0; 1; atomic mass unit
have a mass of _____ amu. ('amu' means _____)

7. What is the atomic number of an atom with 5 protons and 6 neutrons? <Note: understand 5
the concept, different numbers may be encountered on test questions.>

8. What is the atomic mass, or 'mass number,' of an atom with 5 protons and 6 neutrons? 5 + 6 = 11
<Note: understand the concept, different numbers may be encountered on test
questions.>
9. If an element is a mixture of equal numbers of atoms whose atomic mass is either 12 or 13 (atomic weight is the
14, what is the atomic weight? <Note: understand the concept, different numbers may be average mass of all the atoms
encountered on test questions.> present)
10. If atom 'A' has 5 protons and 6 neutrons, atom 'B' has 5 protons and 7 neutrons, and atom A and atom B (same
atom 'C' has 6 protons and 6 neutrons: number of protons = same
... _____ and _____ are isotopes of the same element. element);
... _____ is the atom that is most likely to be radioactive. atom B (most unequal number
<Note: understand the concept, different numbers may be encountered on test of protons and neutrons = most
questions.> unstable)

11. If one isotope of an element is radioactive, it is called a(n) _____. radioisotope

12. The four most abundant elements in the human body are _____, _____, _____, _____. CHON (Carbon, Hydrogen,
Oxygen, Nitrogen)

13. When two or more atoms are held together by a chemical bond, the resulting particle is molecule; compound
called a(n) _____. (If the atoms are not all the same element, the particle is also called
a(n) _____.)
14. If two types of atoms or molecules are present in the same solution but are not chemically mixture
bonded, the solution is a(n) _____.

15. Solutions have two components: the substance that is dissolved, called the _____, and solute; solvent
the liquid in which it is dissolved, called the _____.

16. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) In a [mixture/compound], no mixture
chemical bonding occurs.

17. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) [Mixture/Compound] can be mixture
separated by physical (not chemical) methods: heating, spinning, filtering, etc.

12
 Chemistry Overview

18. A(n) _____ mixture varies from place to place in terms of the concentrations of one or heterogeneous; homogenous
more components, while a(n) _____ mixture is the same throughout.

19. _____, _____, and amu all refer to the atomic mass of a particle. Da (daltons); u (universal amu)

20. If a particle weighs 5 Da, a mole of such particles would weigh _____ grams. <Note: 5
understand the concept, different numbers may be encountered on test questions.>

21. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) Particles in a [colloid/suspension] will suspension
settle to the bottom of the container over time.

22. Except for the electron energy level closest to the nucleus, which is full with only _____ 2; 8
electrons, a pair of atoms will interact to allow both to have _____ electrons in their
valence shell
23. Based on the octet rule, oxygen, which has 6 valence electrons, will form bonds in such a 2
way that it acquires _____ more. (Note: understand the concept. A test question could
use a different element.)
24. _____ bonds form by the transfer of an electron, while _____ are formed when electrons Ionic; covalent
are shared by two atoms.

25. Two atoms that share three pairs of electrons are said to be joined by a(n) _____ bond. triple (or triple covalent)

26. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) If one atom of two covalently bonded polar
atoms is more electronegative than the other, which means that it pulls electrons toward
itself, the bond is [polar/non-polar].
27. The 3D shape of proteins, and correct base pairing of DNA, depends on the fact that hydrogen
_____ bonds are linear.

28. -O-H It should be linear.

\ What is wrong with the hydrogen bond shown at the left?
N-
29. C + H
CH4 What is wrong with this reaction? It needs to be balanced:
C + 4H
CH4

30. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) An atom that donates an electron to oxidized
another atom is said to be [reduced/oxidized].

31. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) Increasing the temperature of a faster
reaction causes it to occur [faster/slower].

32. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) Small particles can react faster
[faster/slower] than large ones.

33. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) Increasing the concentration of faster
reactants causes the reaction to occur [faster/slower].

34. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) A catalyst [is/is not] a type of is not; is not
reactant, and so [is/is not] changed during a chemical reaction.

35. Biological catalysts are called _____. enzymes

13
 Chemistry Overview

36. A reaction in which the products have less potential energy than the reactants is an exergonic
[exergonic/endergonic] reaction.

37. energy + A + B --> C endergonic

(Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) This reaction is
[exergonic/endergonic].
38. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) If energy or products are lost from a irreversible
system, the reaction becomes [reversible/irreversible].

39. Organic compounds all contain _____. carbon

40. Inorganic compounds usually do not contain _____. carbon

41. Water is a [polar/non-polar] solvent. polar

42. Ions are often called _____, because they can carry an electric current. electrolytes

43. A solution of pH 3 has _____ moles H+ per liter. (Note: understand the concept. A test 1/1000
question could use a different pH.)

44. A solution of pH 2 has _____ times as many hydrogen ions in solution as one of pH 3. (1/1000) x 10 = (1/100)
(Note: understand the concept. A test question could use different pH values.) Thus, 10 times as many.

45. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) The more hydrogen ions there are in acidic
solution, the more [acidic/basic] the solution is.

46. A substance that decreases the pH of a solution is a(n) _____, while one which increases acid; base
the pH of a solution is a(n) _____.

47. In completely pure water, the concentration of hydrogen cations (H+) is [less than/the the same as
same as/greater than] the concentration of hydroxide (OH-).

48. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) A solution of pH 8 is [more/less] less
acidic than one of pH 7. (Note: understand the concept. A test question could use
different pH values.)
49. (Pick the correct choice within each set of brackets.) A solution of pH 8 is [more/less] more
basic than one of pH 7. (Note: understand the concept. A test question could use different
pH values.)
50. When the concentration of hydrogen cations (H+) in a solution is the same as the 7
concentration of hydroxide (OH-), the pH is _____.

51. The pH scale goes from _____ to _____. 0; 14

52. A substance that stabilizes pH is called a(n) _____. buffer

53. Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid. The ability of carbonic acid to blood
donate or accept a hydrogen ion is important, because this system is the main buffer in
the _____.

14
 Chemistry Overview

54. The four major classes of macromolecule are _____, _____, _____ and _____. (in any order) proteins, lipids,
carbohydrates, nucleic acids

55. Macromolecules are formed in _____ reactions, in which two hydrogens and an oxygen dehydration (or dehydration
(H2O) are removed from the reactants. synthesis)

56. When a macromolecule is broken down into smaller molecules, a molecule of _____ is water; hydrolysis
added and the reaction is called _____.

57. Carbohydrates are made from which atoms? C, H, O

('carbo' = carbon, 'hydrate' =
water)
58. A(n) _____ is a simple, single-ring sugar; a(n) _____ is formed when two of these link monosaccharide; disaccharide;
together, and a(n) _____ is formed when many of them link together. polysaccharide

59. Triglycerides consist of three _____ joined to a molecule of _____. fatty acids; glycerol

60. A(n) _____ is formed by replacing one fatty acid in a triglyceride with a phosphorous- phospholipid
containing molecule.

61. Steroids are _____ with _____ rings. lipids; four

62. Eicosanoids are _____ that contain _____ carbons. lipids; 20

63. Proteins are made of _____, joined together in a chain. amino acids

64. All amino acids have a(n) _____ group, a(n) _____ group, and a(n) _____. amine (or amino); carboxyl (or
carboxylic acid); side chain

65. The bonds between the subunits in a protein are called _____ bonds. peptide

66. The _____ structure of a protein refers to the actual sequence of its subunits. primary

67. The _____ structure of a protein refers to the folding caused by hydrogen bonding secondary
between amino and carboxyl groups within the same molecule, and usually leads to the
formation of beta-pleated-sheets and alpha-helices.
68. The _____ structure of a protein refers to the complex folding caused by interactions tertiary
between the side chains of the subunits with each other and with the solvent.

69. The _____ structure of a protein refers to the interaction of two separate protein quaternary
molecules to form a single functional unit.

70. When a protein unfolds, its function is lost: this process is called _____. denaturation

71. A shift in pH or temperature can cause a protein to _____. denature or unfold

15
 Chemistry Overview

72. Special proteins (enzymes) called _____ help to guide the folding of other proteins. chaperones or chaperonins

73. If a protein has to get through a membrane, it has to be unfolded and threaded through, chaperones or chaperonins
like thread through the eye of a needle. The enzymes that assist in this process and make
sure that the protein refolds correctly after passing through the membrane are called
_____.
74. Most enzymes are _____ <two words>. globular proteins

75. If a word ends in -ase, it probably refers to a(n) _____. enzyme

76. A(n) _____ is an enzyme that has all of the components needed for activity, and no others. holoenzyme

77. Energy that is required to start a reaction is called _____ energy. activation

78. Enzymes and other catalysts work by lowering _____ energy. activation

79. If a reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme, the reactants are usually called _____. substrates

80. The subunits of nucleic acids are _____. nucleotides

81. Nucleotides consist of three parts: _____, _____ and _____. (in any order) phosphate, five-
carbon (pentose) sugar,
nitrogen-containing base
82. The two major types of nucleic acid are _____ and _____. DNA; RNA

83. The five common bases in nucleic acids are _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____. (in any order) adenine,
guanine, cytosine, thymine,
uracil
84. The 'blueprint' for humans (and many other species) is made of _____. DNA

85. In human cells, most of the DNA is found in the _____. nucleus

86. When two single strands of DNA bind to form double stranded DNA, the two strands are anti-parallel
_____ <orientation to one another>.

87. _____ is a nucleic acid that is usually single-stranded. RNA

88. In DNA, the four bases that are found are _____, _____, _____, and _____. (in any order) A; T; C; G

89. In RNA, the base _____ is used instead of the base _____. U; T

16
 Chemistry Overview

90. The three most abundant types of RNA are _____, _____, and _____ RNA. (in any order) messenger;
transfer; ribosomal

91. The primary molecule used by the cell to supply small amounts of energy when needed is ATP; RNA; phosphate (or
_____, which is also one of the four nucleotides used to make _____. The energy in this phosphate's bonds, or
nucleotide is stored in the _____. phosphate bonds)

17
 Cell Overview

1. The smallest unit that scientists agree is alive is the _____. cell

2. The region in a human cell that houses the bulk of the genetic material is the _____. nucleus or nuclear region

3. Most of the cellular machinery in human cells is in the _____. cytoplasm or cytoplasmic
region

4. Cellular interactions with the environment are controlled by which region of the cell? membrane or membrane-
associated region

5. The basic structure of a cell's membrane is a(n) _____ bilayer with associated proteins phospholipid; integral;
that can be either _____ or _____. peripheral

6. Receptors in the cell's surface tend to be made of _____. protein

7. The molecules that allow cells to join and adhere to one another and or objects are made protein
of _____.

8. When a cell is attached to a substrate, the cell's membrane is protected from ripping by membrane proteins
_____ which pass the external forces from the exterior to the interior of the cell.

9. _____ are membrane junctions which prevent passage of materials between two cells. Tight junctions

10. _____ are membrane junctions which allow force to be passed from cell to cell without Desmosomes
separation of, or damage to, the cellular membranes.

11. _____ are membrane junctions which contain hollow channels within them that allow ions Gap junctions
to pass through from cell to cell.

12. When a molecule moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low diffusion
concentration, the process is called _____.

13. Molecules can passively diffuse through the plasma membrane with the aid of _____ channel; carrier
proteins, which form a tunnel that specific molecules can travel, and _____ proteins,
which bind to a molecule and change shape so that un-binding occurs on the opposite
side of the membrane.
14. If a molecule can only pass through a membrane with the assistance of a membrane facilitated
protein, but the direction of its travel is controlled only by its concentration, the process is
called _____ diffusion.
15. When water moves from an area where there is more water to an area where there is osmosis
less, the process is called _____.

16. _____ is the diffusion of water molecules. Osmosis

17. When a cell is surrounded by solution of equivalent solute concentration, the solution is isotonic; absent
said to be _____ to the cell, and the net movement of water is _____.

18. When a cell is surrounded by solution of higher solute concentration, the solution is said hypertonic; out of the cell
to be _____ to the cell, and the net movement of water is _____.

18
 Cell Overview

19. When a cell is surrounded by solution of lower solute concentration, the solution is said to hypotonic; into the cell
be _____ to the cell, and the net movement of water is _____.

20. _____ is the passage of liquids and solutes through membranes due to differences in Filtration
pressure, a process which is important in the kidney.

21. When energy is being used to move a solute from low to high areas of concentration, the active transport
process is called _____.

22. The concentration of sodium is highest [outside / inside] the cell, while for potassium, the outside
reverse is true.

23. Sodium and potassium gradients are maintained by an active-transport protein called the 3; 2
sodium-potassium pump, which moves _____ sodiums out of the cell for every _____
potassium ions brought in.
24. The energy to operate the sodium-potassium pump comes from the hydrolysis of _____, ATP; phosphate bond or high-
which transfers a(n) _____ to the transport protein. energy phosphate bond

25. In _____, interactions between vesicle proteins and plasma membrane proteins cause a exocytosis
vesicle to merge with the plasma membrane and discharge its contents to the cell's
exterior.
26. In _____, clathrin-coated regions of the cell's exterior invaginate and form vesicles which clathrin-mediated endocytosis
bring a portion of the extracellular material into the cell.

27. When a vesicle is formed on one side of the cell to endocytose extracellular material, and transcytosis
actually traverses the cell to leave on the other side, the process is called _____. (This
process is important in digestion.)
28. Endocytosis, exocytosis, and transcytosis are all examples of _____ transport. active

29. A difference in the number of positive and negative charges on the two sides of a membrane potential
membrane is referred to as the _____.

30. The two factors that act in opposite ways to stabilize the resting membrane potential are (concentration gradients (or
_____ and _____. diffusion) and electrostatic
attraction
31. The two major ions responsible for the membrane potential in human cells are _____ and sodium; potassium
_____.

32. The glycocalyx is composed of _____ molecules (a class of macromolecule) attached to carbohydrate
proteins and lipids on the cell surface.

33. Cells sense contact with other cells and with surfaces, and adhere to substrates and other glycocalyx
cells, largely via the use of carbohydrate-rich macromolecules in the cell membrane which
together compose the _____.
34. The three major signal types recognized by membrane receptors are _____ signals, chemical, electrical, contact
_____ signals, and _____.

35. A common function of all _____ is to transmit an external event, as a signal, into the cell membrane receptors
to allow the cell to respond.

36. The entire region between the cellular nucleus and the membrane is called the _____, the cytoplasm; cytosol; organelles
liquid portion is called the _____, and the membrane-enclosed compartments in which
specific functions are localized are called _____.

19
 Cell Overview

37. If a particle in the cell's cytoplasm can be seen with light microscopy, it is called a(n) inclusion
_____.

38. Mitochondria have _____ (how many?) membranes, each of which is a bilayer. two

39. The innermost membrane of mitochondria is folded, forming wrinkles called _____. cristae

40. The major (not only) function of mitochondria is to completely oxidize fuels and to capture ATP
the energy in a molecule called _____.

41. _____ are huge macromolecules composed of RNA and protein, whose function is to Ribosomes
synthesize protein.

42. Cytosolic proteins are made by _____ ribosomes, while proteins destined for export, or free; membrane bound (or ER
use in membrane, are made by _____ ribosomes. bound)

43. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is distinguished by the presence of _____ on its ribosomes
surface, and is responsible for making integral membrane proteins, secreted proteins, and
phospholipids.
44. Ribosomes become bound to the membrane of the rough ER after they have started signal sequence
making protein due to the presence of a(n) _____ on the newly made protein which binds
to receptors called SRPs (Signal Recognition Particles) on the ER surface.
45. The function of the _____ ER varies greatly from cell type to cell type, and can include smooth
lipid metabolism, steroid synthesis, calcium storage and release, and others.

46. Proteins leaving the rough ER are transported to the _____ for modification, packaging, Golgi apparatus
and transport to the appropriate location.

47. The series of organelles that are able to exchange membrane components with one endomembrane system
another are collectively known as the _____.

48. The organelles within the cell whose main functions are digestion and hydrolysis are the lysosomes
_____.

49. The organelles which isolate hazardous chemical reactions within the cell, especially peroxisomes
those producing free radicals, are called _____.

50. The three principle components of the cytoskeleton are _____, _____, and _____. microfilaments, intermediate
filaments, and microtubules

51. The primary functions of _____ are to brace and strengthen the cell's surface and to microfilaments
attach to cellular adhesion molecules which allow binding to substrates and other cells.
They also function in endocytosis and exocytosis.
52. The semi-permanent structural framework of the cell, which transmit force from one point intermediate filaments
in the membrane to others, allowing cells to spread a stretching force across a wide
region and to other cells, are the _____.
53. The dynamic, hollow tubes which help to determine the overall shape of the cell and microtubules
along which organelles move as if on a conveyor belt are the _____.

54. The molecules which use energy from ATP to move organelles along certain components motor molecules
of the cytoskeleton are called _____.

20
 Cell Overview

55. The structures that organize and generate the microtubules for the mitotic spindle during centrioles
mitosis and for cilia and flagella are called _____.

56. Short, cellular projections that allow the cell to move through their environment, or for cilia
human cells, to move fluid across their surface, are called _____.

57. The cytoskeletal components that give cilia their mobility and structural strength are microtubules
_____.

58. The primary difference between cilia and flagella is _____. length

59. The nuclear envelope consists of _____ (how many?) separate membrane bilayers? two

60. The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with the _____. rough E.R.

61. The function of the _____ is to regulate which materials enter or leave the nucleus. nuclear membrane

62. Large molecules are transported into or out of the nucleus through _____. nuclear pores

63. Ribosomal RNA is produced in _____. nucleoli

64. DNA wrapped around histones within the nucleus is called _____ because it could take chromatin
up dyes and showed as a colored substance when a microscope was used.

65. The cell cycle can be divided into two major phases, _____ and _____. interphase; mitotic or mitosis

66. Interphase can be divided into three groups of events, _____, _____, and _____. G1 (or gap 1); S (or synthesis);
G2 (or gap 2)
67. DNA is made during the _____ phase of the cell cycle (be as specific as possible). S or Synthesis

68. Cells that have permanently stopped dividing enter a phase of the cell cycle known as G0
_____.

69. Cell growth and preparation for cell division occur during the _____ and _____ phases, G1; G2
respectively.

70. Replication or division of the nucleus is called _____; once there are two nuclei, the cell mitosis; cytokinesis
itself may divide in a process called _____.

71. Mitosis consists of four phases. In order, they are _____, _____, _____, and _____. prophase; metaphase;
anaphase; telophase

72. During _____, the nuclear envelope dissolves and the chromatin condenses. prophase

73. During _____, the individual chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. metaphase

21
 Cell Overview

74. In _____, the sister chromatids separate. anaphase

75. In _____, a new nuclear envelope forms. telophase

76. Using arrows, draw a cartoon of DNA replication. The arrow head should represent the 3' 0
end. Show both parental strands, and also both daughter strands. Place the short,
unjoined fragments of the lagging strand in the proper position.

77. DNA is made by enzymes called _____. DNA polymerases

78. During DNA synthesis, new nucleotides can only be added to the _____ end of the DNA. 3'

79. The structure of DNA is anti-parallel, meaning that the strands are _____. parallel, but pointed in opposite
directions

80. The _____ strand of DNA is made discontinuously (in small pieces). lagging

81. DNA polymerases require a(n) _____, which in the cell is either a pre-existing piece of primer
DNA, or a newly made piece of RNA.

82. When RNA is removed from the lagging strand during DNA synthesis, it is replaced by 5'; primer
DNA everywhere except at the _____ end of the strand. It cannot be replaced there,
because there is no _____.
83. A hereditary nucleic acid sequence which contains the information needed to make a gene
cellular component is called a(n) _____.

84. Using a codon table, translate <AUGGCUUUU> into the correct amino acid. (Note: methionine-alanine-
understand the principle. The exact sequence will not be the same on a test.) phenylalanine

85. In humans, _____ is the chemical which contains the original sequence information DNA
encoding proteins and other cellular components, and which is the 'master copy' that is
passed on to future generations.
86. In humans, _____ is a disposable copy of the nucleic acid sequence which contains the mRNA
information encoding proteins and other cellular components. It is used by the ribosomes
in the cytoplasm to create a protein with the correct amino acid sequence.
87. _____ is a form of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. TRNA

88. _____ is a form of RNA that is a physical component of the ribosome. RRNA

89. During _____, the sequence of the DNA is copied into RNA. During _____, the ribosome transcription; translation
uses the nucleotide sequence to create a protein with the correct amino acid sequence.

90. Codons are found in _____ RNA, while anticodons are found in _____ RNA. messenger or m; transfer or t

22
 Cell Overview

91. Translation occurs in which part of the cell? Cytoplasm.

92. Non-functional organelles are degraded by _____. lysosomes

93. Proteins which are no longer functional are marked for degradation by the addition of ubiquitin
_____.

94. The _____ is an organized, extracellular mesh of varying density in which cells are found. extracellular matrix

95. At the DNA level, the difference between a liver cell and a brain cell, is that they _____, have different genes active;
although they have the same _____. DNA

96. The development of specific and distinctive features in a cell (example, when a cell differentiation or cell
becomes a liver or a brain cell) is called _____. differentiation

97. In organisms that age, repair of damage is _____. imperfect

98. In organisms that _____, unrepaired, damaged parts are not replaced. age

99. In organisms that _____, life processes which have short term benefits but which have age
negative effects in the long term are allowed to occur.

100. One way to delay the effects of aging on some organ systems (those few for which this is repair
possible) is to engage in activities, such as weightlifting, which induce _____.

23
 Tissues

1. All tissues in the body are classified as _____, _____, _____ or _____. epithelia; connective; muscle;
nervous

2. The defining characteristic of epithelial tissue is that it forms a(n) _____. surface

3. The two major attributes that are used in classifying epithelial tissue are cell _____ and arrangement; shape
cell _____.

4. Epithelia whose cells are arranged into a single layer of cells is classified as _____, simple; stratified
whereas multiple layer epithelia are classified as _____.

5. _____ cells are flat, like a fried egg. Squamous

6. _____ cells are round or square. Cuboidal

7. _____ cells are moderately long and slender. Columnar

8. A(n) _____ is nonliving material in which something is embedded. matrix

9. _____' means 'at the top.' Apical

10. A non-cellular, adhesive supporting layer made up of glycoproteins secreted by epithelial basal lamina
cells is called a(n) _____.

11. _____' means, 'containing no blood vessels.' Avascular

12. _____' means, 'supplied by nerve fibers.' Innervated

13. True or false: epithelial tissue is highly cellular, that is, contains very little extracellular TRUE
matrix.

14. The cells of epithelial tissue are joined by _____ or _____. tight junctions or desmosomes

15. True or false: the apical and basal surfaces of epithelial tissue are identical. FALSE

16. Epithelial tissue is supported on one side by _____ tissue. (This is called, depending on connective; reticular; basal
exact type and location, either the _____ lamina or the _____ lamina.)

17. True or false: most epithelial tissue contains blood vessels. FALSE

18. True or false: nerves can be found within epithelial tissue. TRUE

24
 Tissues

19. True or false: all epithelial cells are non-dividing. FALSE

20. _____ is a tissue which consists of a single layer of flattened cells which control passage Simple squamous epithelium
of materials from one side to the other, but provide no protection.

21. _____ is a tissue which consists of a single layer of roughly round or cubical cells with Simple cuboidal epithelium
large, spherical nuclei in the center of each, and which secrete or absorb substances into
or from their exposed surface.
22. _____ is a tissue which consists of a single layer of tall cells with round or oval nuclei, all Simple columnar epithelia
in a row. It absorbs substances and secretes mucous from its exposed surface.

23. _____ is a tissue which consists of a single layer of tall cells with round or oval nuclei, Pseudostratified columnar
some of which are near the basal lamina and some of which are near the apical surface. epithelia
It secretes mucous from its exposed surface.
24. _____ is a tissue which consists of several layers of cells which separate an open space Stratified squamous epithelia
from a basal or reticular lamina. The surface cells are flat, the basal cells are rounded,
square, or tall.
25. The apical cells of stratified squamous epithelia are dead, and the nucleus and organelles dry (or 'the epidermis')
have been replaced by keratin, if the tissue is _____.

26. The apical cells of stratified squamous epithelia are alive if the tissue is _____. moist (or wet, etc.)

27. _____ is a tissue which consists of two layers of round or square cells which separate an Stratified cuboidal epithelia
open space from a basal or reticular lamina. While most tissue types are found
throughout the body, this one is rare and is only seen in sweat and mammary glands.
28. _____ is a tissue which consists of two layers of tall cells which separate an open space Stratified columnar epithelia
from a basal or reticular lamina.

29. _____ is a tissue which is easily stretched. It consists of several layers of cells which Transitional epithelia
separate an open space from a basal or reticular lamina, and the surface cells are usually
dome shaped if the tissue is not stretched at the time of fixation.
30. A(n) _____ is one or more cells that makes and secretes an aqueous fluid. gland

31. _____ glands are ductless, that is, their products are released directly from the cells into Endocrine
the bloodstream.

32. _____ glands produce hormones. Endocrine

33. _____ glands have a duct through which their products are secreted onto the body's Exocrine
surface or into body cavities.

34. Mucous, sweat, oil, and salivary glands are all _____ glands. exocrine

35. Most glands are multicellular. The only important one that is not is the _____, which goblet cell
produces mucous.

36. An exocrine gland whose duct does not branch is _____. simple

25
 Tissues

37. An exocrine gland whose duct branches is _____. compound

38. An exocrine gland whose secretory units are round is _____. alveolar

39. An exocrine gland whose secretory units are elongated is _____. tubular

40. _____ exocrine glands secrete substances: that is, the substance is exocytosed into the Merocrine
duct.

41. _____ exocrine glands become filled with their product, then rupture, spilling their Holocrine
contents into the duct.

42. Cells in _____ tissue are surrounded by a complex extracellular matrix. connective

43. _____ is the embryonic tissue type that gives rise to all connective tissue in the adult Mesenchyme
body.

44. The unstructured portion of the matrix that fills the space between cells in connective ground substance
tissue is called the _____.

45. In addition to fibers, the matrix in connective tissue contains fluid, adhesion proteins, and ground substance
cushioning molecules called proteoglycans: together, these non-fibrous components are
called the _____.
46. _____ is a tough, extremely strong fibrous protein which gives connective tissue strength. Collagen

47. _____ are fibrous proteins in connective tissue that, when stretched, snaps back to its Elastin or elastic fibers
original length.

48. _____ are fibrous proteins in connective tissue that branch and cross-connect to provide Reticular fibers
a flexible but form-holding framework in which cells reside.

49. The major matrix producing cells in connective tissue proper are called _____. fibroblasts

50. The major matrix producing cells in cartilage are called _____. chondroblasts

51. The major matrix producing cells in bone are called _____. osteoblasts

52. The four major classes of connective tissue are _____, _____, _____ and _____. connective tissue proper;
cartilage; bone (or osseous
tissue); blood
53. Connective tissue proper can be sub-classified as either _____ or _____. loose; dense

54. The three types of loose connective tissue are _____, _____ and _____. areolar; adipose; reticular

26
 Tissues

55. The two types of dense connective tissue are _____, _____, which can be made of _____ regular; irregular; elastic;
or _____ fibers. collagen

56. The three types of cartilage are _____, _____ and _____. hyaline; fibrocartilage; elastic

57. The two types of bone are _____ and _____. compact; spongy (or
cancellous)

58. _____ connective tissue is usually found under epithelia. Areolar

59. _____ connective tissue contains many cells whose nucleus has been pushed aside by Adipose
the large volumes of material that each cell stores.

60. _____ connective tissue forms a soft internal skeleton that supports other cell types. Reticular

61. _____ connective tissue attaches muscle to bone, and is very strong along one axis. Regular

62. _____ connective tissue is strong when pulled from any direction, and tends to form tough Irregular
but flexible enclosures for joints, organs, etc.

63. _____ is a very strong and resilient cartilage which forms parts of the skeleton and joints. Hyaline cartilage

64. _____ is a very strong and resilient cartilage which is extremely flexible, and will spring Elastic
back to its original shape after bending.

65. _____ is a cartilage that can resist both decompression (stretch or pulling) and Fibrocartilage
compression.

66. _____ is a hard connective tissue composed of calcium and other minerals surrounding Bone (or osseous tissue)
reinforcing protein fibers.

67. The epithelial membrane that encloses the entire body is called the _____ membrane. cutaneous

68. The epithelial membranes which line body cavities which are open to the exterior are mucous
called _____ membranes.

69. The double-layered epithelial membranes which line unexposed body cavities, preventing serous
friction between organs, are called _____ membranes.

70. _____ tissue is characterized by large cells with long processes which carry electrical Nervous
signals, surrounded by smaller supporting cells.

71. Striations (stripes) are characteristic of _____ and _____ muscle fibers. skeletal (or voluntary); cardiac

72. Having multiple nuclei, all pushed to the periphery of the cell, is a characteristic of _____ skeletal (or voluntary)
muscle cells.

27
 Tissues

73. Two defining characteristics of cardiac muscle include _____ and _____; the latter branches; intercalated disks
contain gap junctions which allow ions to move between cells.

74. _____ muscle cells lack striations and have only one nucleus. Smooth (or involuntary)

75. During wound healing, cells of the _____ tissues divide to fully regenerate the original epithelial; connective
tissue, while cells of damaged _____ tissue build a new framework which is unlike the
original and is essentially just a patch.
76. In advanced age, the extracellular matrix of the skin becomes _____ and the number and disorganized; elastic
quality of the _____ fibers decreases.

77. In advanced age, the balance between tissue breakdown and tissue rebuilding during breakdown
tissue remodeling often shifts to favor _____.

78. In advanced age, the proteins of the extracellular matrix often become _____ to one cross-linked or linked
another.

79. In advanced age, genes often ____ or change their normal pattern of _____. mutate; expression

80. In advanced age, many cells become _____ to their environment. insensitive

28
 The Integumentary System

1. The skin contains three layers: from deep to superficial, they are the _____, the _____, hypodermis; dermis; epidermis
and the _____.

2. The epidermis is composed of _____. squamous epithelial tissue

3. The dermis is composed of _____ and _____. areolar connective tissue;

dense irregular connective
tissue
4. The hypodermis is composed of _____ and _____. areolar connective tissue;
adipose connective tissue

5. The layer of the epidermis that contains dividing cells (which produce the more superficial stratum basale (or stratum
layers) is the _____. germinativum)

6. The deepest layer of the epidermis is the _____. stratum basale (or stratum
germinativum)

7. The majority of the cells of the epidermis are _____, so-called because they make _____. keratinocytes; keratin

8. Melanocytes in the _____ (which layer?) produce two versions of the pigment, melanin. stratum basale (or stratum
germinativum)

9. Melanin can be decorative, but its major function in skin is to _____. shield DNA from UV light

10. Most of the melanin in skin is in _____ (what cell type). keratinocytes

11. Our most superficial touch receptors are the _____, found in the _____ of the epidermis. Merkel cells; stratum basale (or
stratum germinativum)

12. Cells in the _____ layer of the epidermis are joined by tight junctions and desmosomes stratum spinosum
which give the epidermis its strength.

13. Immune cells in the stratum spinosum which protect against invaders are the _____. Langerhans' cells (or dendritic
cells)

14. The keratinocytes in the _____ of the epidermis degrade some toxic chemicals, if they stratum spinosum
have been absorbed by the skin.

15. In the _____ of the epidermis, keratinocytes begin to accumulate keratohyaline, which is stratum granulosum
necessary for keratin production, and to degrade their nuclei and organelles in their final
living actions.
16. Unlike in the skin, the outermost cells of epithelia that are not exposed to air (and so alive
remain wet or moist) are _____.

17. Keratinocytes in the _____ of the epidermis produce lamellated granules filled with a stratum granulosum
water-proofing glycolipid. <Note: if you can't figure out the meaning of the word - or any
other word in these review questions - you should look them up!>
18. A very thin layer called the _____ is in the epidermis but is visible only in thick skin: it is stratum lucidum
just superficial to the stratum granulosum.

29
 The Integumentary System

19. Keratin cross-linking begins in the _____ of the epidermis, and continues as the cells are stratum lucidum
pushed outward, until each cell is filled with a large, cross-linked mass.

20. The most superficial layer of the epidermis is called the _____, and forms a waterproof stratum corneum
shell around the body.

21. Three quarters of the epidermal thickness is accounted for by the _____. stratum corneum

22. The first level of protection against abrasion and toxic chemicals at the body's surface is stratum corneum
provided by the _____.

23. The dermis consists of two layers: the _____, which is characterized by a dimpled papillary layer; reticular layer
interface with the epidermis, and the _____, which accounts for 80% of the skin's
thickness.
24. The two major fibers found in the dermis are _____ fibers, which provide its strength, and collagen; elastic
_____ fibers, which allow it to resume its original shape after stress or stretch.

25. Many of the molecules in the dermis bind _____, which give it a resilient, shock-absorbing water
quality.

26. The _____ of the dermis contains capillary loops from which nutrients diffuse to nourish papillary layer
the epidermis.

27. The papillary layer of the dermis contains _____ and _____ to sense gentle contact with Meissner's corpuscles; free
objects in the environment. nerve endings

28. The reticular layer of the dermis contains _____ and _____ to sense firm pressure. Pacinian corpuscles; Ruffini’s
corpuscles

29. True or false: the dermis has a rich blood supply. TRUE

30. Three pigments contribute to skin color: two types of _____ and, to a lesser degree, melanin; carotene
_____.

31. In addition to skin pigments, _____ also contributes to skin color, especially in fair- hemoglobin
skinned individuals.

32. A yellow complexion, including a yellow tone to the whites of the eyes, is called _____ jaundice; bile
and is due to a build up of _____ in the blood following liver malfunction.

33. Lack of circulation or low levels of hemoglobin cause _____, in which non-pigmented pallor
areas of the skin look white.

34. Excessive dilation of the surface blood vessels or binding of carbon monoxide to flushing
hemoglobin (which causes it to look oxygenated, even when it is not) cause _____, in
which non-pigmented areas of skin look red.
35. Poor blood oxygenation causes _____, in which non-pigmented areas of skin look blue. cyanosis

36. Apocrine and eccrine glands are both _____ (sweat) glands. sudoriferous

30
 The Integumentary System

37. Sudoriferous glands are _____ glands, meaning that their products enter the duct via merocrine
exocytosis.

38. 99% of the volume secreted by _____ (a type of sweat gland), is water. eccrine glands

39. _____ glands are sudoriferous glands that are found in the axillary and anogenital regions Apocrine
of adults, and which secrete a nutrient broth for bacteria.

40. The ducts of _____ (a type of sweat gland) open into hair follicles, rather than directly apocrine
onto the skin's surface.

41. _____ glands are modified apocrine glands which produce a waxy substance to protect Ceruminous
the ear canal from dust, small insects, etc.

42. _____ are modified sweat glands which produce milk. Mammary glands

43. _____ glands secrete an anti-bacterial oil onto the hair shafts and skin. Sebacious

44. Sebacious glands are _____ glands, which means that the cells rupture in order to spill holocrine
their contents into the duct.

45. Sebacious glands are found on all skin, except for the _____ and _____. palms; soles

46. The portion of the hair that is above the surface of the skin is called the _____. hair shaft

47. The sub-surface portion of the hair is called the _____. root

48. The origin of the hair shaft, deep within the dermis, is called the _____. hair bulb

49. The sheath in which a hair is held is called a(n) _____. follicle

50. The hair follicle is composed of cells from the _____ (which tissue layer in general?), but epidermis; stratum basale
deep within the follicle, at the hair matrix, only cells of the _____ (which layer,
specifically?) are present.
51. In hair, cell division occurs only in the _____. hair matrix

52. In the hair, pigment is made by melanocytes and exported to keratinocytes in the _____, hair matrix
within the hair bulb.

53. The _____ is a sensory nerve cluster that wraps each hair bulb, allowing the hair to serve root hair plexus
as a sensitive touch receptor.

54. The length of a hair's growth cycle determines the _____ of the hair. length

31
 The Integumentary System

55. The muscles that allow hairs to 'stand on end' (and which cause goose bumps) are the arrector pili
_____.

56. Pale, fine hair like that found on the face of a child is _____ hair. vellus

57. Coarse hair, such as the hair of the head, a man's beard, etc., is called _____ hair. terminal

58. Loss or thinning of hair is called _____. alopecia

59. The growth of finger- and toenails occurs in the _____. nail matrix

60. Finger- and toenails are composed of _____. dead, keratinized cells

61. Excess heat can be removed from the body by [dilation/constriction] of blood vessels in dilation
the skin.

62. Vitamin D can be manufactured by blood vessels in the _____, if the area is exposed to dermis; UV light
_____ (from sunlight, usually).

63. The least malignant and most common skin cancer is _____. basal cell carcinoma

64. _____ results from transformation of cells of the stratum basale leading to invasive, Basal cell carcinoma
uncontrolled growth.

65. _____ results from transformation of cells in the stratum spinosum leading to invasive, Squamous cell carcinoma
uncontrolled growth.

66. Squamous cell carcinomas _____ and _____ if not removed. grow rapidly; metastasize

67. Squamous cell carcinomas are found most frequently on the _____, _____, and _____. scalp, ears, lower lip

68. _____ is the most dangerous type of skin cancer. It can be cured easily by excision until it Melanoma
metastisizes, after which the prognosis is poor.

69. Melanomas can often be spotted by application of the ABCD(E) rule. The letters refer to: asymmetry, borders that are
_____, _____, _____, _____ and _____. irregular, color variations,
diameter over 6 mm, and
elevation above the surface
70. In a(n) _____ burn, only the epidermis is damaged. first degree

71. In a(n) _____ burn, the epidermis and upper region of the dermis are damaged. Blistering second degree
is common.

72. In a(n) _____ burn, the entire thickness of the skin (and possibly underlying tissue) is third degree
damaged.

32
 The Integumentary System

73. Burns are considered critical if over _____ of the body has second degree burns. 25%

74. Burns are considered critical if over _____ of the body has third degree burns. 10%

75. Burns are considered critical if there are third degree burns on the _____. face, hands or feet

76. The area of a body covered by a burn is estimated using _____, which divides the body the rule of nines
into regions each containing a defined amount of the total body area.

77. In advanced age, there are _____ dermal papillae. fewer and/or smaller

78. In advanced age, the amount of dermal _____ decreases, and the fibers become thicker elastin (or elastic fibers)
and disorganized.

79. In advanced age, some cells in the skin will have responded to DNA damage by arresting growth; pre-cancerous
_____ and altering gene expression, while others may be _____.

33
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

1. True / False: Nutrients for cells within skeletal cartilage are not delivered directly to the TRUE
cells by the blood, but must instead diffuse from a remote region.

2. True / False: Skeletal cartilage is avascular. TRUE

3. True / False: Skeletal cartilage is innervated. FALSE

4. Skeletal cartilage is enclosed by the _____, which is made of _____, so that it can resist perichondrium; dense irregular
outward expansion. connective tissue

5. _____ cartilage covers ends of long bones. Articular

6. _____ cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum. Costal

7. _____ cartilage makes up the larynx and reinforces air passages. Respiratory

8. _____ cartilage supports the nose. Nasal

9. Articular cartilage is composed of _____. hyaline cartilage

10. Costal cartilage is composed of _____. hyaline cartilage

11. Respiratory cartilage is composed of _____. hyaline cartilage

12. Nasal cartilage is composed of _____. hyaline cartilage

13. _____ cartilage is strong, moderately flexible, and resilient, but does not stretch or bend Hyaline
very far.

14. _____ cartilage is fairly strong, very flexible, and somewhat stretchable. Elastic

15. _____ <which type of cartilage?> is very strong and extremely resistant to compression, Fibrocartilage
but does not stretch or bend.

16. The external ear and epiglottis are made of _____ cartilage. elastic

17. The shock-absorbing cartilage in the knee and between the vertebral disks is made of fibrocartilage
_____.

18. In _____ growth, cells in the perichondrium secrete matrix against the external face of appositional
existing cartilage.

19. In _____ growth, lacunae-bound chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix. interstitial

34
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

20. Calcification (in which cartilage becomes bone) occurs at two times: _____ and (less during bone growth; in old age
desirably) _____.

21. The bones of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column make up the _____ skeleton. axial

22. The bones of the limbs, shoulders, and hips make up the _____ skeleton. appendicular

23. Bones are classified by shape as being _____, _____, _____ or _____. long, short, flat, irregular

24. Bones provide support, protection, and leverage for movement: in addition, they serve mineral storage; blood
two other purposes, _____ and _____. formation

25. The tubular shaft that forms the axis of long bones is called the _____, which is diaphysis; compact; cavity
composed of _____ bone surrounding a central _____.

26. _____ is found in the central (medullary) cavity of an adult's long bones, and is composed Yellow marrow
of fat.

27. The _____ are the expanded ends of long bones: The exterior is _____ bone, and the epiphyses; compact; spongy
interior is _____ bone. (or cancellous)

28. Cancellous bone is found in the _____ of long bones. epiphyses

29. The exterior surface of the epiphyses of long bones is covered with _____ cartilage. articular or hyaline

30. The line that separates the diaphysis from the epiphysis in a long bone is called the epiphyseal line
_____.

31. The perimeter of the bone is covered with a two-layered membrane called the _____. periosteum

32. The periosteum's outer layer is composed of _____. dense irregular connective
tissue

33. The periosteum's inner layer is composed of _____ whose job is to remodel the surface osteoblasts and osteoclasts
of the bone.

34. True / False: The periosteum has an extensive vasculature. TRUE

35. True / False: The periosteum is highly innervated. TRUE

36. True / False: The periosteum lacks lymphatic vessels. FALSE

37. The periosteum is held to the bone by _____ fibers. Sharpey's or perforating

38. The inner surface of the bone, where it meets the marrow, is covered by a delicate endosteum
membrane called the _____.

35
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

39. Flat bones contain bone marrow between the _____ (bony bridges of spongy bone). trabeculae

40. Flat bones are thin plates of periosteum-covered compact bone on the outside with spongy bone; diploë
endosteum-covered _____ called _____ on the inside.

41. In infants, red marrow, which makes blood cells, is found in the _____ and _____. medullary cavity; all areas of
spongy bone

42. In adults, red marrow is found in the _____, _____ and _____. The rest has been diploë of flat bones; head of the
replaced by yellow marrow. femur; head of the humerus

43. A canal is also a(n) _____. passage or opening through a

bone

44. On a bone, a(n) _____ is a structure which protrudes from a bone. These are often process
named for what they protrude toward.

45. On a bone, a(n) _____ is similar to a process, but is usually named for the bone on which protuberance
it is found.

46. On a bone, a(n) _____ is also similar to a process, but is one which articulates with condyle
another bone and allows motion between them.

47. On a bone, a(n) _____ is a narrow ridge. A(n) _____ is a smaller version. crest; line

48. On a bone, a(n) _____ is a deep groove or notch. fissure

49. On a bone, a(n) _____ is a large, rounded projection. A small, rounded projection is tuberosity; tubercle
called a(n) _____.

50. On the femur, a(n) _____ refers to a large, blunt, unevenly shaped process. trochanter

51. A raised area on a condyle is called a(n) _____. epicondyle

52. A sharp, axe-like or needle-like projection on a bone is called a(n) _____. spine

53. A bony bulb or structure on a narrow neck is called a(n) _____. head

54. The flat, smooth face on a bone where it meets another bone is called a(n) _____. facet

55. Compact bone consists of long, multi-layered cylinders called _____, surrounding a osteons (or the Haversian
central, blood-vessel and nerve-containing canal called the _____. systems); Haversian canal

56. Blood vessels and nerves may move from one Haversian canal to another by detouring perforating (or Volkmann's)
through a(n) _____. canal

57. Osteocytes in lacunae within an osteon maintain contact with one another by extending canaliculi
processes through _____.

36
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

58. Bone-building cells are called _____. osteoblasts

59. Cells that dissolve bone are called _____. osteoclasts

60. Young, dividing cells usually have names that end in _____; mature cells usually have blast; cyte
names that end in _____.

61. Mature bone cells are called _____. osteocytes

62. The unmineralized, organic substances which makes up roughly 1/3 of the bone matrix is osteoid
called _____.

63. _____ in bone serves several purposes: it provides flexibility, stretch and twist resistance, Collagen
and - since neighboring molecules are connected by bonds that can break and re-form -
shock resistance.
64. The fibers in adjacent lamella within an osteon spiral in _____ to provide resistance to different directions
twisting forces.

65. _____ is responsible for bone hardness and its resistance to compression. Hydroxyapatite (or 'calcium
phosphate and other mineral
salts')
66. The body's main reserve store of calcium and phosphate buffer is _____. bone

67. When, during development, bone forms within a fibrous membrane, the process is called intramembranous ossification
_____.

68. Most bone is formed by calcification of hyaline cartilage, a process called _____. endochondral ossification

69. During long bone formation, calcification of the _____ begins before any other region of diaphysis
the bone.

70. Long bone growth involves two major processes _____ and _____. growth; remodeling (or
resorption)

71. Long bones get thicker in a process called _____ growth, which is the task of the appositional; periosteum
osteoblasts in the _____.

72. The length of long bones is increased by calcification of cartilage within each epiphysis, closest to
on the cartilage surface that is [closest to / farthest from] the diaphysis.

73. A 'remodeling unit' in a bone consists of an adjacent _____ and _____. osteoblast; osteoclast

74. Remodeling units are found at the _____ and _____ surfaces. periosteal; endosteal

75. Resorption involves osteoclast secretion of _____ that convert calcium salts into soluble acids; lysosomal enzymes
forms and _____ that digest the organic matrix (collagen, etc.).

76. In children, long bone growth occurs primarily at the _____. epiphyseal plate

37
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

77. The epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone to form the epiphyseal line under the influence sex hormones (or testosterone
of _____. or estrogen)

78. Formation of gender-specific skeletal structures (wide hips in female, etc.) are triggered sex hormones (or testosterone
by _____. or estrogen)

79. Two types of signal induce bone remodeling: _____ and _____. chemical or hormonal; physical
or mechanical or flexion

80. Spongy bone is completely replaced every _____; compact bone, every _____ or so. 3-4 yrs; 10 years

81. The two opposing hormones which are the primary controls of bone calcification or PTH (or parathyroid hormone);
decalcification are _____ (which pulls calcium from bone) and _____ (which adds calcium calcitonin
to bone).
82. The fact that a bone will thicken and strengthen in response to the stress placed upon it is Wolff's Law
called _____.

83. A bone break that shatters the bone into several pieces is a(n) _____ fracture. comminuted

84. A crushing injury to a bone is a(n) _____ fracture. compression

85. A fracture resulting from twisting is a(n) _____ fracture. spiral

86. Separation of the diaphysis and epiphysis is a(n) _____ fracture (and occurs in children). epiphyseal

87. A blow to the head often results in a(n) _____ fracture. depression

88. An incomplete break is called a(n) _____ fracture. greenstick

89. Put the following events of fracture repair in the correct order: C, D, A, B
(A) spongy bone formation
(B) bone remodeling
(C) hemotoma formation
(D) fibrocartilage deposition and capillary formation
<Note: do not memorize the letter-order in the answer to this question, know the events!>

90. _____ is due to improper bone calcification, and leads to soft, weak bones. It is usually Osteomalacia
due to a dietary deficiency.

91. _____ results from over-active bone remodeling. The result is too much spongy bone Paget's disease
(and too little compact bone) and bone deformities due to the formation of new structures.

92. In _____, bone resorption outpaces deposition. It leads to extremely brittle bones and is osteoporosis
very common in advanced old age.

93. True / False: Drugs have been developed which can prevent osteoporosis if it is caught TRUE
early.

94. True / False: Endurance exercise is more effective than weight-lifting in the prevention of FALSE
osteoporosis.

38
 Bones and Skeletal Tissue

95. True / False: Ossification of the skeleton occurs in such a predictable pattern that it can TRUE
be used to determine fetal age.

39
 The Axial Skeleton

1. _____ are formed by the articulation of two cranial bones. Sutures

2. Sutures are formed <when?> _____. within a year or two of birth

3. Prior to suture formation, the cartilage-filled spaces between cranial bones are called fontanels
_____.

4. The _____ is formed by the top and sides of the cranium. cranial vault

5. A sinus is a(n) _____. cavity inside a bone

6. A fossa is _____. a depression or indentation

7. The cranial fossae are _____. depressions in the floor of the

cranium

8. A foramen (pl. foramina) is _____. a passage or opening through

a bone

9. A septum is _____. a dividing wall or structure

10. The _____ forms the forehead. frontal bone

11. The _____ forms the superior aspect of each orbit (eye socket). frontal bone

12. The _____ forms the anterior cranial fossa. frontal bone

13. The _____ articulates posteriorly with the parietal bones via the coronal suture frontal bone

14. In the region just deep to the eyebrows, _____ are present which allow nerves and supraorbital foramina
arteries to pass.

15. The _____ bone contains the frontal sinus. frontal

16. The area of bone <where?> _____ is called the glabella. just above the bridge of the
nose

17. The two mirror-image bones which form much of the superior & lateral portions of the parietal
skull are the _____ bones.

18. The coronal suture is formed by articulation of <which bones>? parietal and frontal bones

40
 The Axial Skeleton

19. The sagittal suture is formed by articulation of <which two bones>? the two parietal bones

20. The lambdoid suture is formed by articulation of <which bones>? occipital and parietal bones

21. The squamosal suture is formed by articulation of <which two bones>? parietal and temporal bones

22. The _____ suture is formed by articulation of the parietal and frontal bones. coronal

23. The _____ suture is formed by articulation of the two parietal bones. sagittal

24. The _____ suture is formed by articulation of the occipital and parietal bones. lambdoid

25. The _____ suture is formed by articulation of the parietal and temporal bones. squamosal

26. The posterior and base of the skull is formed by the _____ bone. occipital

27. The foramen magnum is the _____ <physiology, not anatomy>. passageway through which the
spinal cord leaves the skull

28. The foramen magnum is the _____ <anatomy, not physiology>. largest opening in the occipital
bone

29. Cranial nerve XII leaves the skull via small openings immediately lateral to the foramen hypoglossal canals
magnum which are called the _____.

30. The function of the occipital condyles is to _____. articulate with C1 (the first
vertebra) to allow the head to
nod
31. The external occipital protuberance and crest and the nuchal lines are _____ sites of muscle and ligament
<physiology, not anatomy>. attachment

32. The two mirror-image bones which form the inferolateral aspect of skull and part of the temporal
middle cranial fossa are the _____ bones.

33. The _____ of the _____ bone forms the posterior section of the zygomatic arch. zygomatic process; temporal

34. The mandible articulates with the _____ of the temporal bone. mandibular fossa

35. The external acoustic meatus is the _____ in the _____ bone. canal leading to the eardrum;
temporal

36. The hyoid bone is attached by ligaments to the _____ of the _____ bone. styloid process; temporal

41
 The Axial Skeleton

37. The facial nerve leaves the cranial cavity through the _____ in the _____ bone. stylomastoid foramen; temporal

38. The _____, which are passages for the optic nerve and ophthalmic arteries, are found in optic canals; sphenoid
the _____ bone.

39. The hypophyseal fossa, a depression in a region of the _____ bone called the _____, is sphenoid; sella turcica
the seat for the pituitary gland.

40. The anterior clinoid process of the _____ bone serves as _____. sphenoid; anchoring point for
the brain

41. The foramen rotundum of the _____ bone serves as _____. sphenoid; passageway for the
nerves innervating the
maxillary region of the face
42. The _____ bone forms part of the anterior cranial fossa, the superior portion of the nasal ethmoid
septum, the lateral walls and roof of nasal cavity, and part of the medial wall of the orbits.

43. The crista galli is <physiology> _____. an attachment point for the
meninges

44. The crista galli is a small crest on the _____ bone. ethmoid

45. The cribriform plate is a surface filled with small foramina on the _____ bone. ethmoid

46. The cribriform plate contains <physiology> _____. passages for nerve filaments of
the olfactory (sense of smell)
nerves
47. The superior and middle nasal concha are regions of the _____ bone. ethmoid

48. The nasal concha create _____, which increases the ability of the nose to trap dust, turbulence
preventing it from reaching the lungs.

49. The temporalis muscle, which helps close the jaw, attaches to the _____ of the mandible. coronoid process

50. The _____ of the mandible articulate with the temporal bone. mandibular condyles

51. During development, the two halves of the mandible fuse to form the _____. mandibular symphysis

52. Mandibular alveoli serve as _____. sockets for the teeth

53. The inferior alveolar nerves (which innervate the teeth of the lower jaw) travel through the mandibular foramina
_____ of the mandible.

54. Blood vessels and nerves reach the chin and lower lip through the _____ of the mandible. mental foramina

42
 The Axial Skeleton

55. The _____ bones are found deep to the upper lip; they form part of the 'cheekbone' and maxilla
the lateral aspects of the bridge of the nose.

56. The maxilla includes a canal for the passage of nerves and blood vessels whose incisive fossa
entrance, the _____, is found in the roof of the mouth.

57. The _____ of each _____bone form the anterior portion of the hard palate (the bony part palatine processes; maxilla
of the roof of the mouth).

58. In each orbit, the _____, whose inferior edge is formed by the maxilla, provides a inferior orbital fissure
passageway for nerves and blood vessels.

59. There is a(n) _____ on each maxilla, inferior to the orbit, to allow passage for nerves and infraorbital foramen
blood vessels to the face.

60. The _____ bone, together with the temporal bone and maxilla, forms the bony part of zygomatic
each cheek.

61. The mirror-image bones that form the anterior aspect of the bridge of the nose are the nasal
_____ bones.

62. Each orbit is formed, in part, by a small bone called the _____ bone, which contains lacrimal; nasolacrimal canals
tunnels leading into the nose called the _____ to allow tear drainage.

63. The L-shaped palatine bones form the _____. posterior of the hard palate

64. The palitine bones have a process which extends all the way to the _____. orbits

65. The bones of the skull which contain one or more sinuses are the _____, _____, _____ frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid,
and _____ bones. maxilla

66. The hyoid is unusual because it is the only bone in the body that _____. doesn't articulate with another
bone

67. The hyoid is fastened to the _____ of the _____ by ligaments. styloid processes; temporal
bones

68. The hyoid plays a role in _____ and _____. swallowing; speech

69. There are _____ cervical vertebrae, _____ thoracic vertebrae, and _____ lumbar 7; 12; 5
vertebrae.

70. All of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with _____. ribs

71. The laminae and pedicles of each vertebra makes up the _____. vertebral arch

72. The spinal cord passes through the _____ of each vertebra. vertebral foramen

43
 The Axial Skeleton

73. The _____ region of the vertebrae is called the body or centrum. weight-bearing

74. Vertebrae articulate with one another via projections from their upper and lower surface superior articular processes;
called _____ and _____, respectively. inferior articular processes

75. The _____ are formed by notched areas on two articulated vertebrae, and provide intervertebral foramina
passages through which spinal nerves to leave the spinal cord.

76. Distinguishing features of the cervical vertebrae include the _____, which provide a bony transverse foramen
channel for blood vessels supplying the brain.

77. The first cervical vertebra is called _____; the superior surfaces of the lateral masses the atlas; occipital condyles
articulate with the _____ of the skull.

78. The articulation between C1 and the skull allows <what motion>? nodding of the head

79. The unusual feature that makes identification of C2 easy is _____. the dens (or odontoid process)

80. The function of the odontoid process is to _____. serve as a pivot during side to
side head-shaking

81. The vertebral foramina of cervical vertebrae are _____ <what shape?>. triangular

82. The body of a cervical vertebra is _____ <what shape?>. oval

83. The spinous processes of most cervical vertebrae are _____. forked

84. The vertebral foramina of thoracic vertebrae are _____ <what shape?>. round

85. The spinous processes on _____ are long, thin, blade-like structures. thoracic vertebrae

86. Inter-vertebral articulation of thoracic vertebrae allows _____ <what motion(s)>. rotation

87. Inter-vertebral articulation of thoracic vertebrae does not allow _____ <what motion(s)>. flexion and extension

88. Superior articular processes on thoracic vertebrae have the facet facing in a(n) _____ posterior
direction.

89. Inferior articular processes on thoracic vertebrae have the facet facing in a(n) _____ anterior
direction.

90. Superior articular processes on lumbar vertebrae have the facet facing in a(n) _____ medial
direction.

44
 The Axial Skeleton

91. Inferior articular processes on lumbar vertebrae have the facet facing in a(n) _____ lateral
direction.

92. Inter-vertebral articulation of lumbar vertebrae allows _____ <what motion(s)>. flexion and extension

93. Inter-vertebral articulation of lumbar vertebrae does not allow _____ <what motion(s)>. rotation

94. The spinous processes on _____ are short and flat, like an axe blade. lumbar vertebrae

95. The vertebral foramina of lumbar vertebrae are _____ <what shape?>. oval or diamond

96. The sacrum consist of _____ vertebrae. five fused

97. The _____ is inferior to the sacrum and articulates with it. coccyx

98. Continuous bands of connective tissue which cover the front and back of the vertebral anterior and posterior
column are called the _____. longitudinal ligaments

99. The nucleus pulposus is the _____. inner gelatinous core of an

intervertebral disc

100. The annulus fibrosus is the _____. outer, fibrocartilage layer of an

intervertebral disc

101. The _____ is the inner gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc. nucleus pulposus

102. The _____ is the outer, fibrocartilage layer of an intervertebral disc. annulus fibrosus

103. An abnormal mediolateral curvature of the vertebral column is called _____. scoliosis

104. An abnormal increase in the thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called _____. kyphosis

105. An abnormal increase in the lumbar curvature of the vertebral column is called _____. lordosis

106. The thoracic cage is formed from the _____, _____, _____ and _____. thoracic vertebrae, ribs, costal
cartilages, and sternum

107. The sternum is formed by the fusion of three bones: the _____, _____, and _____. manubrium, body, xiphoid
process

108. The 'true ribs' are so-called because _____. they are connected directly to
the sternum

45
 The Axial Skeleton

109. The 'false ribs' are so-called because _____. they do not connect directly to
the sternum

110. The two false ribs which do not have an anterior connection at all are the _____ ribs. floating

111. Ribs _____ to _____ are the true ribs. 1; 7

112. The _____ and _____ of each rib articulates with one or more vertebrae. head; tubercle

113. True / False An adult's skull has more bones than the infant's. FALSE

114. At birth, sutures are not present and the bones of the fetal skull are connected by _____. fontanels

115. The _____ fontanel is formed at the intersection formed by the two parietal bones and the frontal or anterior
two halves of the fetal frontal bone.

116. The _____ fontanel is formed at the intersection formed by the two parietal bones and the posterior
occipital bone.

117. The _____ fontanel is formed at the intersection of a parietal bone, the occipital bone, and mastoid
a temporal bone.

118. The _____ fontanel is formed at the intersection formed by a parietal bone, the frontal sphenoid
bone, a temporal bone, and the sphenoid bone.

119. The _____ and _____ in the fetal face are unfused. mandible; maxilla

120. True / False Only the thoracic and sacral spinal curvatures are present in the newborn. TRUE

121. True / False Only the lumbar and cervical spinal curvatures are present in the newborn. FALSE

122. The _____ forms the lower part of the nasal septum and is also visible when the skull is vomer
viewed inferiorly.

46
 The Appendicular Skeleton

1. The upper limbs are attached to the trunk by the _____. pectoral girdle or shoulder
girdle

2. The lower limbs are attached to the trunk by the _____. pelvic girdle

3. The shoulder girdle consists of the _____ and the _____. scapulae; clavicles

4. The lateral end of the clavicle articulates with the _____ of the _____. acromion; scapula

5. The medial end of the clavicle articulates with the _____. sternum (or manubrium)

6. Shoulder blade' is the common term for the _____. scapula

7. The scapulae articulate with the _____ and the _____. clavicle; humerus

8. The scapulae articulate only indirectly with the axial skeleton via the _____. Thus, they clavicle
exhibit a large range of motion.

9. The _____ of the scapula articlates with the clavicle. acromion

10. The _____ of the scapula articulates with the humerus. glenoid cavity

11. The _____ of the scapula serves as an attachment point for the biceps of the arm (the coracoid process
biceps brachii).

12. The suprascapular notch of the scapula is important because it _____. serves as a nerve passageway

13. The upper limb consists of the arm (_____), forearm (_____), and hand (_____). brachium; antebrachium;
manus

14. The _____ is the only bone in the arm (using the word 'arm' in its anatomical sense, not in humerus
the common sense).

15. The humerus articulates with the _____, _____, and _____. scapula; radius; ulna

16. The proximal end of the humerus includes the _____, which articulates with the scapula, head; tubercles
and the greater and lesser _____, which serve as attachment points for muscles.

17. The proximal end of the humerus includes a large groove called the _____, which guides intertubercular groove
a tendon of the biceps to its attachment site.

18. The large bump in the central region of the humerus is an attachment point for the major deltoid tuberosity
muscle of the shoulder, the deltoid, and is called the _____.

47
 The Appendicular Skeleton

19. At the distal end of the humerus are two epicondyles which serve as attachment sites for medial
ligaments and muscles. The _____ epicondyle is the larger of the two.

20. The distal end of the humerus includes two condyles: one is the medial _____, which has trochlea
an indentation in the center and which articulates with the ulna.

21. The distal end of the humerus includes two condyles: one is the lateral _____, which capitulum
looks like a ball in the anterior view and articulates with the radius.

22. The distal end of the humerus includes two shallow indentations called the _____ and coronoid; olecranon
_____ fossae, which allow the ulna to move freely though a full range of motion.

23. The medial bone of the forearm is the _____. ulna

24. The lateral bone of the forearm is the _____. radius

25. The largest bone palpable in the posterior elbow is the _____ of the _____. olecranon process; ulna

26. The _____ at the proximal end of the _____ articulates tightly with the trochlea of the trochlear notch; ulna
humerus.

27. At the distal end of the ulna is the sharp _____ of the _____, from which ligaments run to styloid process; ulna
the wrist.

28. The radius is widest at its _____ end. distal

29. The superior surface of the _____ of the _____ articulates with the capitulum of the head; radius
humerus.

30. At the distal end of the radius is the somewhat rounded _____ of the _____ which is an styloid process; radius
attachment site for ligaments of the wrist.

31. At the proximal end of the radius is a bump called the _____ to which the biceps of the radial tuberosity
arm attaches.

32. The hand contains three types of bone: the _____ of the fingers, the _____ of the palm, phalanges; metacarpals;
and the _____ of the wrist. carpals

33. The scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate form carpus (or wrist)
the _____.

34. The five fingers are numbered so that the thumb is number _____. 1

35. The heads of the metacarpals articulate with the _____. phalanges

36. The _____ does not contain a middle phalanx. thumb (or pollex)

48
 The Appendicular Skeleton

37. The hip bones are called the _____, and are actually formed by fusion of three bones: the coxal bones (or os coxae);
_____, _____ and _____. ischium; ilium; pubis

38. The _____ is formed by the two hip bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx. pelvis

39. Three bones fuse to form each coxal bone. The superior portion of the coxal bone is ilium
formed by the _____.

40. The ilium is divided into two regions, the wing-like _____ at the top and the inferior _____. ala; body

41. The _____ of the ilium articulates with the sacrum. auricular surface

42. The _____, formed by all three bones that make up the coxal bone, articulates with the acetabulum
femur.

43. Two structures that on slender individuals can easily be seen as features of surface iliac crest; anterior superior
anatomy are the _____ and _____ of the ilium. iliac spine

44. The iliac spines serve as _____. attachment points for muscles

45. The _____ forms part of the 'pelvic brim,' which marks the boundary between the lower arcuate line
'true pelvis' and the upper 'false pelvis.'

46. The _____ forms the posteroinferior portion of the coxal bone. ischium

47. The ischial spine serves as _____. attachment points for muscles

48. The lesser sciatic notch of the _____ serves as a(n) _____. ischium; passageway for
nerves and blood vessels (to
the anogenital region)
49. The _____ bears one's weight when one is sitting. ischial tuberosity

50. The _____ forms the anteroinferior part of the coxal bone. pubis

51. The _____ of the _____ is the articulation point for the two coxal bones. pubic symphysis; pubis

52. The very large openings in each os coxa is called the _____. Its name means, 'closed.' obturator foramen.

53. The cavity of the _____ in women is broad, to allow room for a baby's head during birth. true pelvis

54. The _____ in the female pelvis is often moveable. coccyx

49
 The Appendicular Skeleton

55. The pubic arch in the _____ is wide and shallow. female

56. True/False The thigh is a part of the anatomical 'leg.' FALSE

57. The largest and strongest bone in the body is the _____. femur

58. The femur articulates proximally with the _____ and distally with the _____. hip (or coxal bone, os coxa, or
acetabulum); tibia

59. The head of the femur is anchored to the acetabulum by a small ligament which attaches fovea capitis
at the _____ of the femur's head.

60. The phrase 'broken hip' usually refers to a fracture of the _____ of the _____. neck; femur

61. Two prominent bumps which serves as attachment sites for muscles of the thigh and the greater and lesser
buttock are found on the proximal end of the femur, and are called _____. trochanters

62. The _____ and _____ of the femur articulate with the tibia. lateral condyle; medial condyle

63. The _____ of the femur articulates with the 'knee cap.' patellar surface

64. The _____ (knee cap) _____ and increases the _____. patella; protects the knee;
leverage of the quadriceps
femoris
65. Which bones are found in the anatomical leg? tibia; fibula

66. The tibia articulates with the _____, the _____, and the bones of the _____. fibula; femur; ankle (or tarsus)

67. The weight-bearing bone of the leg is the _____. tibia

68. The _____ side of the _____ condyle of the tibia articulates with the fibula. inferolateral; lateral

69. The _____ of the tibia is the site at which the 'knee cap' is attached. tibial tuberosity

70. The _____ of the tibia is the 'shinbone.' anterior crest

71. The medial 'ankle bone' is actually the _____ of the _____. medial malleolus; tibia

72. The notch on the distal end of the tibia is the _____, and is the site of articulation with the fibular notch
fibula.

50
 The Appendicular Skeleton

73. The _____ of the fibula articulates with the proximal end of the tibia. head

74. The lateral 'ankle bone' is actually the _____ of the _____. lateral malleolus; fibula

75. The region of the fibula that articulates with the talus of the foot is the _____. lateral malleolus

76. The foot is divided into three regions: the _____, _____, and _____. toes; metatarsus; tarsus

77. The bones of the toes, like the bones of the fingers, are called _____. phalanges

78. The talus, navicular, the three cuneiforms, the cuboid, and the calcaneus form the _____ tarsus; tarsals
and are collectively called the _____.

79. The major weight-bearing bones of the foot are the _____ and _____. talus; calcaneus

80. The _____ of the foot articulates superiorly with the tibia and laterally with the fibula. talus

81. The talus articulates inferiorly with the _____. calcaneus

82. The digits of the foot, like those of the hand, are numbered from 1 to 5: the great toe is 1
number _____.

83. The _____ and two _____ bones form the ball of the foot. head of metatarsal 1; sesamoid

84. Each of the toes is composed of three phalanges except the _____. hallux (or great toe, or first toe)

85. The three arches of the foot are the _____, _____, and _____. lateral longitudinal; medial
longitudinal; transverse

86. True / False A child's arms and legs grow more slowly than the head. FALSE

87. One detrimental change in old age is that the costal cartilage (and other cartilage) may ossify (or calcify)
_____.

88. One detrimental change in old age is that bones lose _____. mass (or density)

89. Bone loss due to age, in weight-bearing bones, can be delayed by _____ exercise weight-bearing
(although recovery time between exercise sessions is crucial).

90. Calcification of cartilage due to age can be delayed by _____ the cartilage regularly flexing (or stretching, or using
(although not frequently enough to cause irritation and inflammation). through full range of motion)

51
 Joints

1. A(n) _____, or joint, is any site where two bones meet. articulation

2. Joints are classified by two criteria: _____ and _____. structure; function

3. The three structural classifications for joints are _____, _____, and _____. fibrous; cartilaginous; synovial

4. The three functional classifications for joints are _____, _____, and _____. synarthrotic; amphiarthrotic;
diarthrotic

5. A joint that is immobile is a(n) _____ joint. synarthrotic

6. A joint that allows only a small amount of movement is a(n) _____ joint. amphiarthrotic

7. A freely movable joint is a(n) _____ joint. diarthrotic

8. For _____ joints, there is no joint cavity and the joints themselves are synarthrotic or at fibrous
most amphiarthrotic. The bones are joined by fibrous connective tissue and their function
is more to prevent separation than to resist compression.
9. Sutures are joints that are _____ (function) and _____ (structure). synarthrotic; fibrous

10. If the fibrous connective tissue in a suture is lost and the bones completely fuse (as often synostosis
happens in late adulthood), the joint is called a(n) _____ instead of a suture.

11. If the connective tissue in any joint is lost and the bones fuse (as when a child stops synostosis
growing and the ephyseal plate forms the epiphyseal line), the result is a(n) _____.

12. _____ are fibrous joints that are either synarthrotic or amphiarthrotic: the bones are Syndesmoses
connected by a ligament. Examples include the articulations of the tibia with the fibula.

13. Articulations of the alveolar sockets of the mandible or maxilla with the teeth are _____. gomphoses

14. Gomphoses are classified as _____ (function) and _____ (structure). synarthrotic; fibrous

15. The ligament that connects a tooth to an alveolar socket is called a(n) _____ ligament. periodontal

16. For _____ joints, there is no joint cavity and the bones are united by cartilage which cartilaginous
functions to resist compression as well as prevent separation.

17. When two bones are joined by hyaline cartilage which does not permit any movement to synchondrosis
occur between them, the joint is called a(n) _____. An example would be the joints
between the diaphyses and epiphyses of a child's long bones.
18. In _____, hyaline cartilage covers the articulating surface of the bone and is fused to an symphyses; intervertebral
intervening pad of fibrocartilage. As a result, the joint resists compression and separation joints
while still allowing limited movement. The best examples are the _____.

52
 Joints

19. Most joints in the body are _____. synovial

20. In synovial joints, the articulation of the bones is _____. enclosed in a fluid-containing
cavity

21. Synovial joints all include a layer of _____ covering the articulating bones, as well as a articular cartilage; synovial
joint cavity filled with _____ and surrounded by a(n) _____. In addition, they are always fluid; articular capsule;
strengthened by _____. reinforcing ligaments
22. The stability of synovial joints is provided by _____, _____, and _____. shape of the articular surface,
ligaments, and muscle tone

23. _____ are flattened, fibrous sacs lined with synovial membranes and containing synovial Bursae
fluid.

24. _____ are common where ligaments, muscles, skin, tendons, or bones rub together, and Bursae
allow for friction-free movement.

25. A(n) _____ is an elongated bursa that wraps completely around a tendon, allowing it to tendon sheath
slide and roll without friction and protecting it from damage due to contact with adjacent
structures.
26. The _____ of a muscle is its attachment to an immovable bone. origin

27. The _____ of a muscle is its attachment to a bone that moves when the muscle is insertion
contracted.

28. Movements of synovial joints are classified according to way in which they move around axis
a(n) _____.

29. The joints of the wrist and ankle are _____: they are examples of the relatively few joints synovial; nonaxial; gliding
of this type that do not rotate around an axis, and so are classified as _____. They move
by _____.
30. Bending the knee is _____ of the knee. flexion

31. Straightening the knee is _____ of the knee. extension

32. Moving the elbow dorsally is ____ of the shoulder. extension

33. Moving the elbow ventrally is _____ of the shoulder. flexion

34. Bending forward at the waist is _____ of the trunk. flexion

35. Bending backward at the waist is _____ of the trunk. hyperextension

36. Tilting the chin downward is _____ of the neck. flexion

53
 Joints

37. Tilting the chin upward is _____ of the neck. hyperextension

38. Lifting the toes toward the back of the foot and the shin is _____ of the foot. dorsiflexion

39. Extending the toes (e.g., tip-toeing) is _____ of the foot. plantar flexion

40. Moving the limbs (or fingers) apart, away from the midline, is _____. abduction

41. Moving the limbs (or fingers) together or toward the midline ('adding' them together, as it adduction
were) is _____.

42. Moving the hand or foot in a circular path, so that the outer surface of a cone is followed circumduction
by the limb itself, is called _____.

43. _____ rotation of the arm or leg so that the thumb or great toe moves toward the opposite Medial
limb.

44. _____ rotation moves the thumb or great toe to a position pointing away from the Lateral
opposite limb.

45. Shaking the head is an example of _____. rotation

46. Turning the palm so that the radius and ulna are parallel (as you must do to hold, for supination
example, a bowl of soup in the palm of your hand) is _____.

47. Turning the palm so that the radius rotates over the ulna is _____. pronation

48. To stand on the lateral edge of your foot, you would need to _____ your foot. invert

49. To stand on the medial edge of your foot, you would need to _____ your foot. evert

50. Closing your mouth and shrugging your shoulders are both examples of _____. elevation

51. Opening your mouth or lowering your shoulders are both examples of _____. depression

52. Jutting your jaw forward is an example of _____. protraction

53. Pulling your jaw backward, toward the ear, is an example of _____. retraction

54. Touching the thumb to a finger of the same hand is called _____. opposition

54
 Joints

55. Joints that allow nonaxial movements (gliding) are called _____ synovial joints. An plane
example would be the wrist.

56. A cylinder-in-trough joint structure is called a(n) _____ joint: a typical example is the elbow. hinge

57. Movement of hinge joints is _____. uniaxial

58. A joint in which the bone or one of its processes is in a sleeve or ring that allows rotations pivot
is called a(n) _____ joint. An example is the articulation of the dens (which is part of the
axis) with the atlas.
59. A joint in which an oval projection on one bone fits into a concave surface of another is condyloid (or ellipsoidal);
a(n) _____ joint. Movement of such joints is _____. (Good examples of such joints are the multiaxial; proximal knuckles
_____.)
60. A joint in which both bones have both convex and concave surfaces, so that one bone saddle; carpometacarpal joint
straddles the other and can rock back and forth or side to side, is a(n) _____ joint. The at the base of the thumb
clearest example is the_____.
61. A joint in which a round head on one bone is actually held in a cup formed by the ball and socket; shoulder and
articulating bone, is called a(n) _____ joint. The best examples are the ____ and ____. hip joints

62. A(n) _____ connects a bone to a muscle, while a(n) _____ connects two bones or tendon; ligament
connects an organ to an anchoring point.

63. Which bone or bones articulate(s) with the distal end of the humerus? Both the radius and ulna.

64. _____ prevent side to side movement in the elbow. Ligaments

65. Much of the support for the elbow is supplied by _____ which cross and support the joint. the tendons of several muscles

66. Stability of the elbow is provided by both _____ and _____. muscles OR tendons; ligaments

67. Supination and pronation of the forearm are allowed by rotation of radial head within the annular ligament
_____.

68. At full extension, _____ resulting in a 'locked' knee that resists bending in the absence of the femur spins medially
muscle contraction. relative to tibia (or tibia spins
laterally relative to femur)
69. The main movements that present a danger of knee injury are abnormal _____ or _____. hyperextension; rotation

70. _____ are the main stabilizers of the knee. Muscles

71. The glenoid fossa is very shallow. This has two effects: shoulder movement is _____, and maximized; destabilized or
the joint itself is _____. weakened or any synonym

72. While ligaments help to stabilize the shoulder, most stability is provided by _____. tendons

55
 Joints

73. The two groups of tendons which provide shoulder stability are the _____ and the four tendon of the biceps (brachii);
tendons which collectively are called the _____. rotator cuff

74. Most of the stability of the hip is due to _____. (the shape of) the articular
surfaces themselves

75. The second most important contributor to the stability of the hip is _____. a group of ligaments which
hold the femur into the
acetabulum
76. The depth of the acetabulum is enhanced by _____. a connective tissue rim OR the
acetabular labrum

77. One of the ligaments of the hip is exceptionally important because _____. it contains an artery which
supplies blood to the head of
the femur
78. A sprain is due to _____. stretching or tearing of the
ligaments of a joint

79. A torn ligament will repair itself _____ <when?>. never

80. Cartilage damage is a problem because, since it is avascular, _____. cartilage cannot support repair

81. Cartilage fragments created by damage can cause _____. problems with joint mobility (or
any synonymous phrase)

82. Most cartilage injuries must be treated with _____. surgery

83. When two bones that normally articulate are separated forcibly, the injury is called a(n) dislocation; subluxation
_____. If the separation is incomplete (the bones resume their normal position in at least
some angles of joint flexion), the disorder is called _____.
84. Bursitis is inflammation or irritation of the _____, which leads to mild to severe pain when bursae
the joint is flexed.

85. Tendinitis refers to inflammation of a(n) _____. tendon

86. Tenosynovitis refers to inflammation of a(n) _____. tendon sheath

87. When the joint itself becomes inflamed for any reason, the condition is called _____. arthritis

88. The acute form of arthritis is usually caused by _____. bacteria (or infection)

89. The chronic forms of arthritis are _____, which is a disease of overuse and age, _____, osteoarthritis; gout OR gouty
which is caused by a build up of uric acid crystals, and _____, which is an autoimmune arthritis; rheumatoid arthritis
disorder.
90. The most common joint disease is _____. osteoarthritis

56
 Joints

91. The fundamental cause of osteoarthritis is that in aged or over-used cartilage, _____. breakdown is faster than
replacement or repair

92. The immune system's destruction of the body's joints is called _____. rheumatoid arthritis

93. The first joint to be affected by gout in most affected individuals is _____. the metatarsal-phalangeal joint
of the great toe

94. In all forms of arthritis, lack of treatment presents the danger of _____. joint fusion

95. To maximize joint health, activities that emphasize _____ and _____ are required. full range of motion; recovery

57
 Muscle Tissue

1. The ability of a tissue or cell to receive and respond to stimuli is called _____ or _____. excitability; irritability

2. The ability of a tissue or cell to forcefully shorten is called _____. contractility

3. The ability of a tissue or cell to be stretched or extended is called _____; if it resumes its extensibility; elasticity
original shape or length afterward, the property which allows it to do so is called _____.

4. _____ muscle cells must be controlled independently, so that force can be modulated Skeletal (or voluntary)
precisely to meet a need.

5. Slow, sustained contractions are the specialty of _____ muscle. smooth

6. Since _____ and _____ muscle cells can communicate with one another, not all of them smooth; cardiac
must be individually supplied with instructions by a nerve.

7. The most fatigue-resistant muscle cells are those of _____ muscle. cardiac

8. Muscle cells are also called muscle _____. fibers

9. Striations are seen in cardiac and skeletal muscle because the _____ are _____. myofilaments; aligned

10. The myofibrils of _____ muscle are not aligned, so that the muscle appears to be _____. smooth; smooth

11. Cardiac muscle fibers contain large numbers of _____, which allow them to have mitochondria
incredible endurance.

12. _____ muscle is found in hollow organs whose contents must be moved. Smooth

13. Blood pressure is controlled by _____ muscle. smooth

14. Much of the heat in the body is produced by _____ muscle. skeletal (or voluntary)

15. (True/False) The biceps is considered to be a discrete organ. (Note: understand the True (each muscle is a discrete
concept, the muscle name could be different on a test.) organ)

16. A group of muscle fibers is called a muscle _____, which means 'bundle'. fascicle

17. Within a skeletal muscle, a connective tissue membrane called the _____ surrounds each perimysium
fascicle.

18. _____ is a dense irregular connective tissue surrounding an entire skeletal muscle. Epimysium

58
 Muscle Tissue

19. Each muscle fiber is enclosed in a delicate, areolar connective tissue sheath called the endomysium.
_____.

20. For many muscles, the connective tissue membranes within the muscle merge at the tendon
ends with a connective tissue 'rope' called a(n) _____.

21. A muscle's more mobile attachment is called the _____. insertion

22. A muscle's more immobile attachment is called the _____. origin

23. When a muscle attaches directly to a bone, rather than to a tendon which is attached to a epimysium; periosteum
bone, the _____ of the muscle fuses with the _____ of the bone.

24. A connective tissue structure that connects a muscle to a bone, and which is wide and aponeurosis
flat, is called a(n) _____.

25. A(n) _____ is a bundle of fibers (not muscle fibers) which carry electrochemical signals. nerve

26. Each skeletal muscle is served by _____ nerve. one

27. Each skeletal muscle is served by _____ artery and _____ vein. one; more than one

28. A nerve or blood vessel usually enters a skeletal muscle in a(n) _____ location. central

29. Place the following in order from small to large: myofibril, myofilament, muscle, fascicle, myofilament, myofibril, muscle
muscle fiber. fiber, fascicle, muscle

30. A(n) _____ is the smallest contractile unit of a skeletal muscle: it extends from one Z-disk sarcomere
to the next.

31. There are two types of _____, actin and myosin. myofilament

32. Another name for 'thin myofilament' is _____. actin

33. Another name for 'thick myofilament' is _____. myosin

34. Skeletal muscle fibers are formed when several stem cells merge: as a result, skeletal multiple nuclei
muscle fibers have _____.

35. The nuclei of a skeletal muscle are located _____. just beneath the plasma
membrane (or 'just beneath the
sarcolemma')
36. The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle is called the _____. sarcolemma

59
 Muscle Tissue

37. Skeletal muscle fibers are syncytiums, which means that _____. they are formed by the fusion
of several cells

38. Individual skeletal muscle cells can be _____ micrometers long, while smooth muscle over 10,000; much less than
fibers and cardiac fibers are _____ micrometers long. 1000

39. _____ is a molecule found in muscle cells. It is similar in some ways to hemoglobin, and Myoglobin; store oxygen for the
its function is to _____. muscle cell to use

40. Muscle cells store carbohydrates for use as fuel in the form of _____. glycogen (or glycosomes)

41. The cytoplasm of a muscle cell is called _____. sarcoplasm

42. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) of muscle cells is called the _____. sarcoplasmic reticulum

43. At the end of each sarcomere, the sarcoplasmic reticulum forms chambers which extend terminal cisternae
across the cell and are called the _____.

44. Between sarcomeres, _____ form channels running transversely through the skeletal T tubules
muscle cell.

45. The terminal cisternae of two adjacent sarcomeres, and the T tubules that separate them, triad
are called a(n) _____.

46. Dark striations called A bands are formed where _____. actin and myosin overlap

47. Light striations called I bands are formed where only _____ is present. actin

48. _____ are found at each end of the sarcomere. Z disks

49. One end of each _____ is attached to a Z disk, and the other end is pulled past myosin. actin microfilament
As a result, the Z disks move closer together.

50. The major function of the smooth ER (sarcoplasmic reticulum) in muscle cells is to _____. store and release calcium (or
'control calcium levels in the
cell')
51. Action potentials that are carried deep into the cell by _____ signal the sarcoplasmic T tubules; release calcium
reticulum to _____.

52. In a skeletal muscle fiber, when ADP and inorganic phosphate are bound to myosin, the myosin is 'set' and can
_____. contract when the signal is
given
53. The signal for a skeletal muscle to contract is calcium, which binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin; move out of
_____ to _____. myosin's way

54. In a skeletal muscle fiber, after tropomyosin shifts in response to calcium, _____ binds to myosin
actin.

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 Muscle Tissue

55. Once myosin binds to actin, _____ changes shape, pulling the two filaments past one myosin
another.

56. As the two filaments (actin and myosin) slide past one another, _____ are released from ADP and inorganic phosphate
the myosin.

57. In order for myosin to release actin, it must bind _____. ATP

58. Since a muscle will keep contracting if calcium and ATP are both present, and calcium is both to start and to stop the
returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport, ATP is needed _____. contraction

59. A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and _____. all of the muscle fibers that it
innervates

60. All of the fibers in a motor unit contract _____. at the same time

61. The first event in a muscle contraction is _____. the arrival of the signal from
the nerve

62. Muscle fibers are stimulated to contract in two phases: (1) _____ (2) _____. the action potential phase;
excitation-contraction coupling

63. After a nerve releases a chemical signal (the neurotransmitter _____), receptors on the acetylcholine; open to admit
muscle fiber, at the neuromuscular junction, _____. sodium ions

64. After a few sodium ions enter the skeletal muscle cell at the neuromuscular junction, channel proteins; allow more
nearby voltage-sensitive _____ respond to the increased positive charge and open to sodium to enter
_____.
65. After many sodium ions have entered a cell in a given region, causing the membrane blocked or stopped; open;
potential there to become positive, two things happen: (1) sodium's entry is _____, and potassium to leave the cell
(2) potassium channels _____, allowing _____.
66. In order to fully restore ion balance, the _____ must use energy to bring potassium into sodium potassium pump
the cell, and push sodium out.

67. The events which occur after the action potential travels through the muscle fiber's excitation-contraction coupling
membrane and which cause the muscle to contract are called _____.

68. The action potential traveling down the T-tubule triggers _____ by the _____. calcium release; sarcoplasmic
reticulum (or smooth ER)

69. After the action potential ends, contraction will eventually stop because _____ is calcium; transported back into
constantly being _____. the sarcoplasmic reticulum

70. The three phases of a muscle twitch are the _____, _____, and _____. latent period; period of
contraction; period of relaxation

71. The latent period in muscle contraction is the delay during which _____ occurs; the excitation-contraction coupling;
slowest step is believed to be _____ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to tropomyosin. the movement of calcium

72. During the period of contraction, _____ form and the muscle fiber shortens. actin-myosin crossbridges

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 Muscle Tissue

73. Since calcium is either released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum in the innervated cells, or it partially contract
is not, a motor unit cannot _____.

74. A single stimulus to a muscle fiber results in _____. a single twitch

75. The effect of frequent stimuli on a muscle fiber is to increase _____. the force of the contraction

76. _____ refers to a single, constant muscle contraction. tetanus

77. When a muscle is stimulated so rapidly that calcium re-uptake into the sarcoplasmic tetanus (or, 'a single, constant
reticulum has no time to occur, the result is _____. contraction')

78. Treppe refers to an increase in contraction intensity during several sequential calcium levels return to
contractions even though _____. baseline between contractions

79. The threshold stimulus is the stimulus strength at which _____ contracts. one motor unit

80. _____ is the process in which more and more motor units are stimulated to create a Recruitment
combined force.

81. The maximal stimulus for a muscle is one which causes all _____ to _____. motor units; reach tetanus

82. In a(n) _____ contraction, the distance between a muscle's origin and insertion does not isometric
change.

83. In a(n) _____ contraction, the force generation does not change. isotonic

84. Three methods used by muscle cells to regenerate ATP are _____, _____ and _____. direct phosphorylation;
anaerobic respiration (or
glycolysis); aerobic respiration
85. In direct phosphorylation, phospate from _____ is directly transferred to ATP. creatine phosphate

86. In _____, a small amount of the energy in glucose is captured, very quickly, in ATP; the anaerobic respiration (or
rest is exported in lactic acid. glycolysis)

87. In _____, as much of the energy in glucose as possible is captured in ATP, but the aerobic respiration
process is slow and requires oxygen.

88. If ATP production in a muscle does not keep pace with ATP usage, the result will be muscle fatigue
_____.

89. If the supply of ATP in a muscle becomes severely limited, the result will be a(n) _____, contracture; rigor mortis
which is a 'locked' muscle that cannot relax. (When this happens after death, the result is
called _____.)
90. The lactic acid 'burn' felt during intense anaerobic exercise will cause _____. muscle fatigue

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 Muscle Tissue

91. Muscle fatigue means that the muscle _____. will not contract in response to
a signal to do so

92. If the levels of calcium or potassium are too low in a muscle, or if sodium is too high, the muscle fatigue
result will be _____.

93. Recovery from fatigue due to intense, brief exercise is usually _____. rapid

94. Recovery from fatigue due to prolonged exercise is usually _____. slow

95. Fatigue caused by alterations in sodium and potassium balances in a muscle cell is intense, brief
usually caused by _____ exercise.

96. Fatigue caused by disruption of calcium regulation or glycogen depletion is usually prolonged
caused by _____ exercise.

97. Although muscle can contract anaerobically by relying on _____, _____ will be needed glycolysis; oxygen
later for replacement of glycogen stores, metabolism of lactic acid, and restoration of
creatine phosphate reserves.
98. The need for oxygen to restore the body to its resting state after muscular activity has oxygen debt
been completed is called _____.

99. If the overlap between actin and myosin is minimized due to muscle stretch, the force of will decrease
contraction _____.

100. When actin and myosin in a muscle approach the point at which they are fully decreases
overlapping, the force of the contraction _____.

101. If the number of motor units stimulated increases, the force of the contraction will _____. increase

102. If the number of fibers in each motor unit is _____, then each motor unit will produce high
more force than it would otherwise.

103. If the number of _____ in each fiber is high, the force exerted by the fiber will be high. myofilaments

104. If the frequency of stimulation is raised, there is not time for tendons and connective will increase
tissue to stretch between contractions, and the overall force of the contraction _____.

105. If a muscle contains primarily glycolytic muscle fibers, its contractions will be _____. rapid

106. If a muscle contains primarily fatigue-resistant muscle fibers which rely on oxygen for slow
metabolism, its contractions will be _____.

107. The speed of a muscle's contraction will be increased if the load is _____. decreased (or light)

108. The duration of muscular effort will be increased if most fibers rely on _____ for aerobic respiration
generation of ATP.

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 Muscle Tissue

109. The duration of muscular effort will be _____ if oxygen is not available. decreased or low

110. Loads light enough to be moved by a small number of the available motor units increase each motor unit has time to rest
the endurance of a muscle because _____.

111. _____ can contract over and over for ages (a marathon). Slow oxidative fibers

112. _____ can do hard work for a moderate length of time (100 yard dash). Fast oxidative fibers

113. _____ can give a burst of power (that car is coming right for you! JUMP!). Glycolytic fibers

114. _____ are red due to the presence of myoglobin, which holds a small amount of reserve Oxidative fibers (both slow and
oxygen. fast)

115. The major direct effects of aerobic exercise on muscle are to increase _____ and _____. the blood supply; the number
of mitochondria

116. The major indirect effect of aerobic exercise is to increase the efficiency (and health) of cardiovascular
the _____ system.

117. Recovery time between exercise sessions is important for two major reasons: it prevents overuse injuries; adaptation (or
_____ and allows _____. strengthening)

118. The two major direct effects of anaerobic (e.g., resistance) exercise on muscle are to myofilaments per myofibril;
increase the number of _____ and _____ in fast muscle cells. myofibrils per cell (or fiber)

119. In addition to adaptation in the muscle fibers, two other adaptations occur in order to allow nervous system; connective
an athlete to lift heavy weights: the _____ changes to maximize motor unit recruitment, tissue
and _____ thickens and strengthens.
120. Smooth muscle is found primarily in _____. the walls of hollow organs

121. In order to allow them to shorten or squeeze a tubular organ, the cells of smooth muscle longitudinal; circular
are organized into _____ and _____ layers.

122. Unlike skeletal muscle fibers, each of which is controlled by a nerve, smooth muscle lacks neuromuscular junctions
individual _____.

123. Nerves which control smooth muscles release neurotransmitters from bulbous regions in varicosities
their axons called _____. These diffuse across the gap and may stimulate several smooth
muscle cells.
124. Calcium in smooth muscles is stored both in the _____ and _____. sarcoplasmic reticulum; outside
the cell

125. Instead of being evenly stacked, myofibrils in smooth muscle are arranged _____ along diagonally (or in a criss-cross
the cell's length. pattern, or in a diamond
pattern, etc.)
126. Instead of pulling against Z disks as in skeletal muscle, myofilaments in smooth muscle dense bodies
pull against structures called _____.

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 Muscle Tissue

127. When skeletal muscle is stretched, _____: when smooth muscle is stretched, however, it can no longer contract
this is not so.

128. Only _____ muscle fibers can divide. smooth

129. In smooth muscle, _____ may be transmitted from cell to cell through _____, allowing action potentials; gap junctions
entire sheets of cells to contract in response to a single signal.

130. Smooth muscle that must contract regularly contains pacemaker cells that initiate a signal from a nerve (or 'an
contractions periodically, without needing _____. external signal')

131. Unlike in skeletal muscle, calcium in smooth muscle does not interact with _____, but troponin
instead indirectly triggers the phosphorylation of myosin.

132. The cells of _____ smooth muscle are coupled by gap junctions and contract as a group. single unit

133. The cells of _____ smooth muscle are rarely coupled by gap junctions and contract multi-unit
individually.

134. One major difference between voluntary and involuntary muscle during development is fuse; gap junctions
that the cells of voluntary (skeletal) muscle _____, while those of smooth and cardiac
muscle do not, often developing _____ at sites of contact instead.
135. Only one type of muscle, _____ muscle, has good regenerative capacity (since its cells smooth
can divide).

136. Muscular development depends on _____ and _____. innervation; use

137. In the long term, both disuse and aging result in the replacement of muscle fibers with connective tissue
_____.

*The skeletal muscle fiber length cited above is based on Anat Rec. 2001 Mar
1;262(3):301-9.

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 Muscles - Prime Movers

1. The direction of a muscle's pull is determined by the direction of the _____. fascicles or fibers

2. (True/False) A muscle cannot lengthen itself. TRUE

3. (True/False) After a muscle contraction ends and the muscle relaxes, it automatically FALSE
returns to its resting length.

4. _____ provide the major force for producing a specific movement. Prime movers

5. _____ are pairs of muscles which lengthen one another: e.g., extensors and flexors Antagonists
around a common joint.

6. _____ are muscles which assist in a particular movement by adding force, stability, or Synergists
direction. They are not covered in this question bank in detail, but are involved in almost
all movements.
7. Synergists which stabilize a muscle's origin so that it does not move during contraction fixators
are called _____.

8. The _____ protract the jaw. (They provide the “front” motion in grinding while chewing - pterygoids
contracting one side at a time helps produce side to side grinding as well.)

9. The _____ pulls the coronoid process of the mandible toward the temple, deep to the temporalis
zygomatic arch.

10. The temporalis _____ the jaw and also _____ it. retracts; elevates

11. The _____ is the prime mover in jaw elevation: it pulls the ramus of the mandible toward masseter
the zygomatic arch.

12. The _____ has two bellies held together by a tendon which runs through a fibrous loop on digastric muscle
the hyoid.

13. Contraction of the _____ pulls the mandible down toward the hyoid, if movement of the digastric muscle; infrahyoid
hyoid is prevented by contraction of the _____. muscles

14. The _____ (one on each side) pull the mastoid process of the skull toward the sternum sternocleidomastoid muscles
and clavicle. When both contract together, they flex the neck.

15. The _____ pull the mastoid process and transverse processes of C2 to C4 toward the splenius muscles
spinous processes of C7 through T6. If the muscles on both sides of the body contract
together, the neck is extended or hyperextended.
16. If the scapulae are fixed, the _____ is also a powerful neck extensor. trapezius

17. Contracting the _____ on one side and the _____ on the other side results in head rotation. sternocleidomastoid; splenius

18. Unilateral contraction of the _____ rotates head away from contracting side. sternocleidomastoid

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 Muscles - Prime Movers

19. Unilateral contraction of the _____ muscles rotates head toward the contracting side. splenius

20. Contracting the _____ and the _____ on the same side results in tilting of the head sternocleidomastoid; splenius
toward that side.

21. Contracting the _____ on one side of the body and the _____ of the other rotates the external oblique; internal
thorax relative to the pelvis. oblique

22. The _____ pull posterior regions of the ribs toward the midline of the abdomen, the pubic external obliques
crest, and relatively anterior portions of the iliac crest.

23. Portions of the _____ pull the anterior ribcage toward relatively posterior portions of the internal obliques
iliac crest, and the lumbar fascia.

24. Most of the synergists for the internal and external obliques are fairly distant: they are along the spine
found _____.

25. The _____, a pair of segmented muscles, pulls the xiphoid process and costal cartilages rectus abdominis
of the ribs toward the pubic crest and symphysis, thereby flexing the lumbar vertebrae.

26. The _____ pull superior ribs and vertebral process toward relatively inferior vertebral erector spinae
processes and the dorsal iliac crests, extending the back. (There are several synergists
nearby.) They are visible in the lumbar region: above this, they are deep to other muscles.
27. When the _____ and _____ on one side of the body contract together, rotation is internal obliques; external
prevented, and the lateral ribcage is pulled toward the iliac crest. obliques

28. Contraction of the entire _____ pulls a tuberosity of the humerus toward the clavicle and deltoid
scapula.

29. For abduction beyond horizontal (to bring arm above head) the _____ and _____ must trapezius; serratus anterior
raise and rotate the scapula, so that the glenoid cavity faces upward.

30. The _____ and _____ act together to pull the intertubercular groove of the humerus pectoralis major; latissimus
toward the ribcage: one pulls toward the front, and the other toward the back. dorsi

31. The ____ portion of the _____ is used to flex the shoulder from the adducted position by anterior; deltoid
pulling the humerus upward, toward the clavicle.

32. The _____ flexes the shoulder from the abducted position by pulling the intertubercular pectoralis major
groove of the humerus toward the sternum.

33. The _____ extends the shoulder by pulling the intertubercular groove of the humerus latissimus dorsi
toward the vertebral column.

34. The tendon connecting the _____ to its insertion (on the lesser tubercle of the humerus) subscapularis
wraps around the humerus from front toward back, so that contraction spins the humerus
medially.
35. The tendons of the _____ and _____ wrap the humerus from back toward front, so that teres minor; infraspinatus
contraction rotates the humerus laterally.

36. The upper fascicles of the _____ allow us to shrug by pulling the scapula toward the trapezius
cervical vertebrae.

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37. The _____ and the inferior fascicles of the _____ depress the shoulder. rhomboids; trapezius

38. The _____ pulls the radial tuberosity of the radius toward the shoulder, flexing the elbow. biceps brachii; pronated
Its leverage is reduced dramatically if the forearm is _____, since in this position the
radial tuberosity faces away from the shoulder.
39. The _____ pulls the coronoid process of the ulna toward the humerus, thus flexing the brachialis
elbow.

40. If the forearm is pronated, the _____ and _____ are the prime movers in elbow flexion: brachioradialis; brachialis
the biceps brachii cannot contribute much force.

41. The _____ extends the forearm by pulling the olecranon process toward the superior, triceps brachii
posterior shaft of the humerus and toward the scapula.

42. The _____ wraps around the radius, originating at the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. supinator
Contraction rotates the radius.

43. The _____ in the arm is also a powerful supinator, since its insertion (the radial biceps brachii
tuberosity) is rotated to face the shoulder when this muscle contracts.

44. The _____ pulls the front of the radius toward the front of the ulna. pronator quadratus

45. The _____ pull the bones of the wrist and hand toward the medial epicondyle of the flexor carpi radialis; flexor carpi
humerus. ulnaris; flexor digitorum
superficialis
46. The _____ pulls the posterior surfaces of several bones of the hand toward the lateral extensor digitorum
epicondyle of the humerus, resulting in both finger and wrist extension. (Other extensors
also contribute to wrist extension.)
47. The flexor carpi radialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis and abduction of the wrist
abductor pollicis longus all contribute to _____.

48. The _____ and _____ contribute to adduction of the wrist. flexor carpi ulnaris; extensor
carpi ulnaris

49. The _____ and _____ both flex the fingers. flexor digitorum superficialis;
flexor digitorum profundus

50. The _____ flexes the pollex (thumb). flexor pollicis longus

51. Flexors are on the _____ of the forearm. anterior

52. The _____ and _____ extend the fingers. extensor digitorum; extensor
indicis

53. The _____ and _____ extend the pollex (thumb). extensor pollicis longus;
extensor pollicis brevis

54. Extensors are on the _____ of the forearm. posterior

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 Muscles - Prime Movers

55. Abduction of the thumb is accomplished by the _____ in the forearm, as well as by abductor pollicis longus; in the
several muscles _____. hand itself

56. Abduction and adduction of the other fingers is accomplished by _____. (Details are muscles in the hand
beyond the scope of this question bank.)

57. The _____ pulls the femur toward the iliac crest, sacrum, and lumbar vertebrae, thus iliopsoas
flexing the hip.

58. The _____ pulls the femur toward the dorsal ilium, sacrum, and coccyx, extending the hip. gluteus maximus

59. The _____ pull the fibula and tibia toward the ischial tuberosity of the os coxa; with the hamstrings or biceps femoris,
knee locked, this extends the hip. semimembranosus, and
semitendinosus
60. The _____ pulls the greater trochanter of the femur toward the iliac crest, abducting the gluteus medius
thigh.

61. The _____, _____, and _____, together with the _____, pull the medial surface of the adductor longus; adductor
femur toward the pubis, thus adducting the thigh. brevis; adductor magnus;
pectineus
62. The _____ pulls the medial surface of the tibia toward the pubis, thus adducting the thigh. gracilis

63. Medial rotation is accomplished by the same muscles that _____ the thigh, together with adduct; gluteus medius;
the _____ and _____. gluteus minimus

64. A group of muscles in the posterior of the upper thigh and hip, the sartorius in the anterior laterally rotate the thigh
thigh, and the popliteus in the back of the knee work together to _____.

65. Prior to knee flexion, the _____ rotates the tibia medially relative to the femur, unlocking popliteus
the knee.

66. The _____, _____ and _____ flex the knee. Together, these three muscles are called the biceps femoris,
_____. semitendinosus, and
semimembranosus; hamstrings

67. The _____, _____ and _____ pull the tibial tuberosity toward the proximal femur, vastus lateralis; vastus
extending the knee. intermedius; vastus medialis

68. The _____ pulls the tibial tuberosity toward the ilium, extending the knee. rectus femoris

69. The four muscles which together constitute the quadriceps are the _____, _____, _____ vastus lateralis; vastus
and _____. intermedius; vastus medialis;
rectus femoris
70. The _____ pulls the calcaneus toward the distal end of the femur, plantar flexing the gastrocnemius
ankle. It is most powerful when the knee is straight.

71. The _____ pulls the calcaneus toward the proximal ends of the tibia and fibula, plantar soleus
flexing the ankle.

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72. Together, the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are known as the _____. triceps surae

73. The _____ pulls the foot toward the lateral tibial condyle and proximal tibia, dorsiflexing tibialis anterior
the ankle.

74. The _____ pulls the medial edge of the foot toward the superior tibia and fibula via a tibialis posterior
tendon adjacent to the medial malleolus, inverting the foot.

75. The _____, _____ and _____ pull the lateral edge of the foot toward the lateral surface of fibularis longus; fibularis brevis;
the fibula, everting the foot. fibularis tertius

76. The four smaller toes are flexed by the action of the _____, whose tendon passes through flexor digitorum longus
a fibrous band at the ankle which serves as a pulley before reaching the toes.

77. The hallux (great toe) is flexed by the _____, whose tendon passes through a fibrous flexor hallucis longus
band at the ankle which serves as a pulley before reaching the toes..

78. Several muscles in _____ also play a role in toe flexion. the foot itself

79. The four smaller toes are extended by the action of the _____, whose tendon passes extensor digitorum longus
through a fibrous band at the ankle which serves as a pulley before reaching the toes.

80. The hallux (great toe) is extended by the _____, whose tendon passes through a fibrous extensor hallucis longus
band at the ankle which serves as a pulley before reaching the toes.

81. Abduction and adduction of the toes is accomplished by _____: although important, these muscles in the foot
are beyond the scope of this question bank.

82. The _____ raises the eyebrows. epicranius (or frontalis)

83. The _____ pulls the eyebrows together into a frown. corrugator supercilii

84. One winks, blinks, or squints by contracting the _____. orbicularis oculi

85. The corners of the mouth are raised during a smile by the _____ and _____. zygomaticus; risorius

86. We raise the upper lip to show the front teeth by contracting the _____. levator labii superioris

87. To pout (push the lower lip down and out), we contract the _____ and _____. depressor labii inferioris;
mentalis

88. To pull the outer corners of the mouth down into a grimace, we contract the _____. depressor anguli oris

89. To purse the lips when we want to kiss or whistle, we contract the _____. orbicularis oris

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 Muscles - Prime Movers

90. To widen the mouth, or compress puffed cheeks, we contract the _____. buccinator

91. The _____ pulls the mouth down, tensing the skin of the neck. platysma

92. The prime mover for inspiration (breathing in) is the _____, which presses into the diaphragm
abdominal cavity, expanding the thoracic cavity as it does.

93. The _____ assist in inspiration. external intercostals

94. The _____ draw ribs together during forced exhalation, but for forced expiration, the internal intercostals; abdominal
_____ are used to increase intra-abdominal pressure. muscles

95. The bulk of the crushing force applied by the jaw during mastication is provided by the masseter
_____.

96. In order to manipulate food, the shape of the mouth and position of the tongue must be changed continuously
_____.

97. The _____ pushes food from the cheek to the center of the mouth. buccinator

98. The extrinsic tongue muscles (primarily the _____, _____ and _____) control the position genioglossus, the styloglossus,
of the tongue. and the hyoglossus

99. The _____ control the shape of the tongue. intrinsic tongue muscles

100. The muscles used for mastication are also used for _____. speaking

101. In the first stage of swallowing, the _____ widen the pharynx and close the larynx by suprahyoid muscles
pulling they hyoid bone forward and upward.

102. In the second stage of swallowing, the _____ and _____ close the nasal passage by tensor veli palatini; levator veli
elevating the soft palate. palatini muscles

103. In the third stage of swallowing, the _____ propel the food into the esophagus. pharyngeal constrictor muscles

104. In the fourth stage of swallowing, the _____ pull the hyoid bone and larynx down to their infrahyoid muscles
original positions.

105. Intra-abdominal pressure is increased by contraction of the _____, the _____ and _____, rectus abdominis; internal;
the _____ and the _____. external obliques; transversus
abdominis; diaphragm

106. If the breath is held and _____ is increased, the entire trunk serves as a supportive intra-abdominal pressure
column many times stronger than the spine itself so that heavy weights can be lifted.

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 Muscles - Prime Movers

107. Forced expulsion during childbirth, defecation, vomiting, and forced exhalation (e.g. intra-abdominal pressure
coughing and sneezing) are all accomplished by increasing _____.

108. If the bladder or anal sphincters are weak, involuntary “forced expulsion” of urine or feces intra-abdominal pressure
may occur whenever _____ is increased.

109. The _____ lifts the anal canal to resist intra-abdominal pressure (and prevent defecation, levitor ani muscle
etc.).

110. The _____ constricts the urethra and inhibits urination. sphincter urethrae

111. The _____ constricts the anus and inhibits defecation. external anal sphincter

112. The _____ and _____ retard blood drainage from the penis (male) or clitoris (female), ischiocavernosus;
allowing erection. bulbospongiosus

113. The _____ forms the lower muscular boundary to the abdominopelvic cavity: its two major pelvic diaphragm; levator ani;
muscles, the _____ and _____, contract to resist intra-abdominal pressure and to support coccygeus
the abdominal and pelvic organs.
114. The most important function of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and dislocation of the humerus
subscapularis is to prevent _____.

115. The glenoid cavity is so shallow and the range of motion so great that the shoulder is held rotator cuff
together primarily by the tendons of the muscles that surround it. The four muscles whose
tendons contribute the most stability are together called the _____.
116. The four muscles which comprise the rotator cuff are the _____, _____, _____ and supraspinatus, infraspinatus;
_____. teres minor; subscapularis

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 Nervous Tissue

1. A(n) _____ is a gland, muscle, etc., that responds to a signal by changing the internal or effector
external environment in some way (altering secretions, contracting, etc.).

2. Involuntary effectors control _____ reflexes. autonomic

3. Nerve fibers that carry signals toward the brain are called _____ or _____ fibers. afferent; sensory

4. Nerve fibers that carry signals from the brain are called _____ or _____ fibers. motor; efferent

5. The brain and spinal cord make up the _____ nervous system. All other nerves are part of central; peripheral
the _____ nervous system.

6. The PNS has two major divisions: the _____ division and the _____ division. sensory; motor (OR afferent;
efferent)

7. There are two classes of motor nerves: _____ fibers, which control involuntary effectors, visceral efferent; somatic
and _____ fibers, which control voluntary effectors (muscles). efferent

8. The _____ nervous system receives signals and controls actions which are not autonomic (OR visceral)
consciously perceived or controlled.

9. The _____ nervous system receives signals and controls actions which are consciously somatic
perceived or controlled.

10. The two principal cell types of the nervous system are _____ and supporting cells called neurons; glial cells
_____.

11. _____ are excitable cells that transmit electrical signals. Neurons

12. _____ are supporting cells that help neurons to function and thrive. Glial cells

13. In the CNS, _____ are supporting cells which guide the migration of young neurons. astrocytes

14. In the CNS, _____ are cells which line the fluid-filled cavities and which produce, ependymal cells
transport, and circulate the fluid surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

15. _____ are cells in the PNS which surround the cell bodies of neurons which are grouped Satellite cells
in ganglia. They maintain the microenvironment and provide insulation.

16. A(n) _____ is a coating wrapped around neuronal axons which insulates them and myelin sheath
protects them.

17. _____ are cells which produce the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system, but Schwann cells
not in the central nervous system.

18. _____ adjacent Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes are called 'nodes of Ranvier.' Short, unmyelinated regions
between

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 Nervous Tissue

19. In the CNS, _____ are cells which are phagocytic: they defend against pathogens and microglia
ingest cellular debris.

20. In the CNS, _____ regulate the transport of nutrients and wastes to and from neurons and astrocytes
form part of the barrier which limits substances which may enter the CNS.

21. _____ are cells which produce the myelin sheath in the central nervous system, but not in Oligodendrocytes
the peripheral nervous system.

22. In the CNS, _____ are the glial cells which regulate the microenvironment (ion astrocytes
concentrations, etc.) surrounding the neuron.

23. In the CNS, _____ are the glial cells which anchor neurons to blood vessels. astrocytes

24. An electrical impulse carried along the length of a neuron's axon is called a(n) _____. action potential

25. (True/False) The strength of a single action potential is controlled by the strength of the FALSE
stimulus.

26. The rough ER and Golgi bodies in neurons, taken together, are called _____. Nissl bodies

27. The function of the Nissl bodies is to produce _____. neurotransmitters

28. Nissl bodies are found in the _____ of the cell. body (or soma)

29. The cell body and dendrites of a neuron contain _____ which allow them to respond to chemically gated ion channels
neurotransmitters.

30. _____ are short, branching neuronal processes which receive stimuli from receptors or Dendrites
other neurons.

31. One of the main differences between an axon and a dendrite is that the axon contains voltage gated; chemically gated
_____ ion channels, while the dendrite contains _____ ion channels.

32. There is a secretory region at the distal end of each axon which releases _____. neurotransmitters

33. A(n) _____ is a collection of neuronal cell bodies located inside of the CNS. nucleus

34. A(n) _____ is a group of neuronal cell bodies located in the PNS. ganglion

35. A(n) _____ is a collection of neuronal axons, blood vessels, and connective tissues in the nerve
PNS.

36. A(n) _____ is a collection of neuronal axons with a common origin and destination found tract
in the CNS.

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37. One of the differences between a nerve and a tract is that a(n) _____ does not carry its tract
own blood and lymphatic supply.

38. The _____ functions to protect the axon and to electrically insulate axons from each other. myelin sheath

39. One of the main functions of the myelin sheath is to increase the _____. speed of signal transmission

40. In the PNS, the myelin sheath is formed by _____. Schwann cells

41. In the PNS, a Schwann cell encloses the axon of a single neuron with an empty portion of plasma membrane
its _____.

42. The _____ is the nucleus and cytoplasm of a Schwann cell which is wrapped around an neurilemma
axon.

43. A single Schwann cell is capable of interacting with the axons of how many neurons? one

44. The myelin sheath of axons in the CNS is formed by _____. oligodendrocytes

45. An oligodendrocyte is capable of interacting with the axons of how many neurons? several

46. During formation of a myelin sheath, the cytoplasm and nucleus of a(n) _____ remains oligodendrocyte
free and does not form a neurilemma.

47. Neurons can be classified functionally as _____, _____ or _____. sensory, motor, interneurons
(OR afferent, efferent,
association neurons)
48. Neurons can be classified by structure according to the number of _____ extending processes; cell body
directly from the _____.

49. Action potentials in neurons are generated in the region called the _____. trigger zone

50. Resting membrane potential in nerve cells is _____ millivolts. -70

51. VR is an abbreviation for _____. resting membrane potential

52. The major ions which contribute to the resting membrane potential are _____ and _____. sodium; potassium

53. There is _____ potassium inside of, than outside of, the cell. more

54. There is _____ sodium inside of, than outside of, the cell. less

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55. Cells allow _____ to diffuse slowly but freely across the cell membrane to generate a potassium
membrane potential.

56. The concentrations of sodium and potassium inside of the cell are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump
_____.

57. Potassium tends to diffuse from the inside to the outside of a cell due to its _____. concentration gradient

58. The amount of potassium which leaves the cell is limited by _____. electrostatic attraction

59. An electrochemical gradient is the sum of the _____ and _____, both of which influence concentration gradient;
the motion of an ion across a membrane. electrostatic attraction

60. A change in membrane potential which is due to ion influx or efflux in a single region with graded potential
the ions then diffusing away from that region is called a(n) _____.

61. _____ potentials decrease in intensity as the distance from the site of generation Graded
increases.

62. The magnitude of a(n) _____ potential varies directly with the strength of the initial graded
stimulus.

63. In an action potential, the membrane potential of the neuron or muscle changes from -70; +30
_____ millivolts to _____ millivolts.

64. Another word or phrase used to refer to an action potential in a neuron is _____. impulse (or 'nerve impulse')

65. Only two types of cells can generate action potentials: _____ cells and _____. muscle; neurons (or nerve
cells)

66. As the membrane potential near a voltage regulated sodium channel increases from -70 activation gate; opens to admit
mV to -55 mV, the _____ of the voltage regulated sodium channel _____. sodium

67. As the membrane potential near a voltage regulated sodium channel approaches +30 inactivation gate; close
mV, the _____ begins to _____.

68. As the membrane potential near a voltage regulated _____ channel approaches +30 mV, potassium
the channel opens.

69. In the resting state, before or long after an action potential occurs, the activation gates of closed; open; closed
voltage regulated sodium channels are _____, the inactivation gates of the voltage
regulated sodium channels are _____, and the voltage regulated potassium channels are
_____.
70. An influx of positive sodium ions causes opening of the activation gates of voltage positive
regulated sodium channels resulting in a further influx of positive sodium ions, and thus
the initial stages of an action potential are regulated by _____ feedback.
71. An influx of positive sodium ions eventually causes closing of the inactivation gates of negative
voltage regulated sodium channels, stopping the influx of positive sodium ions, and thus
the final stages of an action potential are regulated by _____ feedback.
72. During the _____ phase of an action potential, both gates of the voltage regulated sodium depolarization
channels are open and the voltage regulated potassium channels are closed.

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73. During the _____ phase of an action potential, the membrane potential is greater than -70 repolarization
mV but potassium is leaving the cell and sodium is no longer entering, so membrane
potential is decreasing.
74. During the _____ phase of an action potential, so much potassium has left the cell that hyperpolarization
the membrane potential is actually less than -70 mV.

75. During the _____ phase of an action potential, both the voltage regulated sodium hyperpolarization
channels and the voltage regulated potassium channels are relatively insensitive to
voltage changes.
76. During an action potential, the intracellular concentration of sodium increases and of sodium-potassium pump
potassium, decreases. The normal concentrations must be restored by the _____.

77. While the inactivation gate is closed and the activation gate is open, sodium channels are inactive
_____.

78. During the _____ phase of an action potential, the voltage regulated sodium channels absolute refractory; increase
are open or inactive and voltage regulated potassium channels are open. During this
time, the channels cannot respond to a voltage _____.
79. The relative refractory period occurs during the time when _____ channels are inactive. many voltage regulated sodium

80. During the relative refractory period, action potentials require a(n) _____ stimulus. stronger than normal

81. A change in the voltage near a voltage regulated sodium channel that is exactly sufficient threshold stimulus
to generate an action potential is called the _____.
82. The voltage required to cause action potentials to be generated so rapidly that their rate is maximal stimulus
controlled by the refractory period is called the _____.

83. A voltage greater than that which is required to cause action potentials to be generated so supramaximal stimulus
rapidly that their rate is controlled by the length of the refractory periods is called a(n)
_____.
84. The narrower the diameter of the axon, the _____ the speed of the action potential. slower

85. The speed of an action potential is greatest when it is traveling through an axon which is myelinated
_____.

86. In myelinated neuronal processes, ions enter during an action potential only _____. at the nodes of Ranvier.

87. In _____ conduction, the change in membrane potential is caused by shifting and saltatory
crowding of ions due to electrostatic repulsion, as opposed to ion diffusion.

88. Saltatory conduction depends on the presence of _____, which are gaps through which nodes of Ranvier
ions in the extracellular fluid can reach the neuron's plasma membrane.

89. A(n) _____ is a junction between a neuron and another cell which allows the transfer of synapse
information.

90. The _____ neuron conducts the signal to a synapse, while the _____ cell responds or presynaptic; postsynaptic
conducts a signal away from it.

91. Synapses are named for the types of presynaptic and postsynaptic cell structures that are axodendritic
involved: for example, if the axon of a presynaptic cell meets the dendrite of a
postsynaptic cell, it is a(n) _____ synapse.

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92. The _____ is the fluid-filled space separating the pre- and postsynaptic cells. synaptic cleft

93. (True/False) A presynaptic cell participating in a synaptic junction via a chemical synapse TRUE
releases chemicals into the synaptic cleft.

94. (True/False) A postsynaptic cell participating in a synaptic junction via a chemical FALSE
synapse releases chemicals into the synaptic cleft.

95. In a(n) _____ synapse, the pre- and postsynaptic cells are joined by gap junctions, and electrical
changes in the membrane potential of one cell are transmitted to the other.

96. _____ synapses provide a one-way transmission of signals, as opposed to _____ Chemical; electrical
synapses, which transmit signals in both directions.

97. When a nerve impulse reaches the axonal terminal of a presynaptic neuron, _____ calcium
channels open and ions enter the cell.

98. In response to the influx of calcium, presynaptic neuronal axon terminals release a(n) neurotransmitter
_____ into the synaptic cleft.

99. With only a very few exceptions, human synapses are _____ synapses. chemical

100. When the postsynaptic cell is a neuron, it responds to the neurotransmitter by _____. opening ion channels

101. The number of ions entering or leaving a neuron in response to a neurotransmitter amount; duration
depends on the _____ of the neurotransmitter and the _____ of the signal.

102. A(n) _____ postsynaptic potential (abbreviated _____) occurs when the neurotransmitter inhibitory; IPSP
activates channels which allow positive ions to leave the cell or negative ions to enter.

103. A(n) _____ postsynaptic potential (abbreviated _____) occurs when the neurotransmitter excitatory; EPSP
activates channels which allow positive ions to enter the cell.

104. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential results in a(n) _____ in membrane potential. decrease

105. An excitatory postsynaptic potential results in a(n) _____ in membrane potential. increase

106. Both excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials are _____ potentials, not _____ graded; action
potentials.

107. More than one EPSP is required to produce a(n) _____. action potential

108. In temporal summation of postsynaptic potentials, several signals are received _____. in a short time

109. In spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials, several signals are received _____. from different presynaptic cells

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110. _____ are chemicals used for neuronal communication with the body and the brain. Neurotransmitters

111. Neurotransmitters are generally classified as _____ or _____, depending on their typical excitatory; inhibitory (order is
effect on cells having appropriate receptors. unimportant)

112. Whether a neurotransmitter is excitatory or inhibitory to a given cell is determined by the type of receptors expressed by
_____. the cell

113. In skeletal muscle, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is _____. excitatory

114. In cardiac muscle, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is _____. inhibitory

115. _____ neurotransmitters bind to ion channels and cause them to open. Direct

116. ____ neurotransmitters cause membrane proteins to change shape, which activates Indirect
second messengers within the cell.

117. The response of cells to _____ neurotransmitters is much more rapid than their response direct; indirect
to _____ neurotransmitters.

118. A(n) _____ messenger is a molecule that carries a signal to the cell. first

119. A(n) _____ is an intracellular molecule that carries a signal within a cell, allowing the cell second messenger
to respond to an extracellular signal.

120. Second messenger systems allow complex cellular responses, but their signaling is slow
usually _____.

121. Signaling from a neurotransmitter is ended by the _____, _____, or _____ of the destruction; absorption;
neurotransmitter. diffusion

122. _____ during development, or in the PNS after an injury, is guided by a scaffold of Axonal growth
proteins, glial fibers, nerve growth factor, repulsion guiding molecules, and perhaps most
importantly, nerve cell adhesion molecule (N-CAM).
123. Absence of a guiding line of Schwann cells after axonal damage in the PNS _____. prevents axonal regeneration

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1. The _____ is the tube of ectoderm formed early in embryological development as the embryonic neural tube
embryonic tissue folds longitudinally.

2. The three primary brain vesicles are formed during the _____ week after conception. 4th

3. Between the fifth week post-conception and birth, the prosencephalon (aka _____) forebrain; cerebrum;
develops to produce the _____ and _____ of the adult brain. diencephalon

4. Between the fifth week post-conception and birth, the mesencephalon develops to midbrain
produce the _____ of the adult brain.

5. Between the fifth week post-conception and birth, the rhombencephalon (aka _____) hindbrain; pons; medulla;
develops to produce the _____, _____ and _____ of the adult brain. cerebellum

6. In an adult, the _____ are a functional unit and are called the brain stem. midbrain, pons, and medulla
oblongata

7. (True/False) The neural tube, initially hollow, remains filled with liquid in the adult. TRUE

8. The shape and size of the skull causes the embryonic neural tube to _____ during flex and fold
development.

9. _____ form the gray matter of the CNS. Neuron bodies and
unmyelinated axons

10. White matter is composed of _____. myelinated neuronal axons

11. _____ is found in the central region of all major CNS areas. Gray matter

12. The outermost layer of an organ or structure (such as the cerebrum or kidney) is often cortex
referred to as the _____.

13. Gray matter is found in the cortex of the _____ and _____. cerebrum; cerebellum

14. _____ surrounds the central core of gray matter in the CNS. White matter

15. _____ are fluid-filled chambers within the brain. Ventricles

16. _____ is the fluid which surrounds, and fills the hollow areas in, the CNS. Cerebrospinal fluid

17. (True/False) The ventricles of the brain are connected to one another and to the space TRUE
surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

18. There are _____ (how many?) ventricles in the brain. 4

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19. The folds and convolutions of the cerebral hemispheres are named for their three gyri; gyrus
dimensional form. The ridges are called _____ (singular, _____).

20. The folds and convolutions of the cerebral hemispheres are named for their three sulci; sulcus
dimensional form. The shallow grooves are called _____ (singular, _____).

21. The central sulcus is a deeper than average sulcus separating the _____ (it is often not posterior and anterior portions
clearly visible). of the cerebral cortex

22. The folds and convolutions of the cerebral hemispheres are named for their three fissures
dimensional form. The deep grooves between gyri or regions are called _____.

23. The two hemispheres of the brain are separated by a deep cleft called the _____. longitudinal fissure

24. The cerebrum and cerebellum are separated by the _____. transverse fissure

25. The cerebral cortex is divided conceptually and functionally into five lobes: the _____, frontal; temporal; parietal;
_____, _____, _____ lobes, and a fifth, hidden lobe called the _____. occipital; insula

26. One of the lobes of the cerebral cortex, the _____, is not visible unless the sides of the insula
lateral fissure are separated.

27. The _____ areas of the cerebral cortex control voluntary movement. motor

28. The _____ areas of the cerebral cortex are responsible for conscious awareness of sensory
sensation.

29. The _____ areas of the cerebral cortex allow us to integrate and consider information. association

30. The function of the primary motor cortex, which is located in the _____, is to _____. precentral gyrus; control
unrehearsed (novel) voluntary
movements
31. The function of the pre-motor cortex, which is _____ to the primary motor cortex, is to anterior; control learned
_____. movements (typing, walking,
etc.)
32. The left hemisphere contains Broca's area, which is responsible for _____, _____ and planning speech; thinking in
_____. words; writing

33. The _____ is responsible for bringing information regarding touch, surface temperature, primary somatosensory cortex;
etc., to conscious awareness. It is normally located in the _____. post-central gyrus

34. The _____ region of the brain is responsible for interpretation of physical sensations, after somatosensory association
they have been sorted and integrated by the primary somatosensory cortex. cortex

35. The visual cortex is responsible for sight, and is located in the _____. occipital lobe

36. The _____ cortex, responsible for taste, is in the _____ lobes. gustatory; parietal

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37. The _____ cortex, responsible for our sense of smell, is located in the _____ lobes, olfactory; temporal
superior and slightly posterior to the crista galli and cribriform plate.

38. The _____ cortex allows us to maintain balance and is located in the _____. vestibular; insula

39. The _____ cortex allows us to perceive sound, and is located in the _____ lobes. auditory; temporal

40. Each small region of the motor and somatosensory cortices correspond to a particular homunculus
body region. This is often represented by a cartoon human called a(n) _____.

41. Areas responsible for the integration and analysis of information are located near the areas that receive the
_____. information

42. The _____ stores memories of sounds and allows identification of sounds. auditory association area

43. A patient who is able to speak but who chooses words at random and is unable to Wernicke's; left
connect thought to language is likely to have damage to _____ area, in the _____
hemisphere.
44. A patient unable to speak despite having a clear concept of what is conceived (e.g., Broca's; left
wanting coffee but unable to think of the word 'coffee') has most likely incurred damage to
_____ area in the _____ hemisphere.
45. The ability to interpret the connotation of speech (whether or not a speaker is angry, affective language; right
sarcastic, etc.) is the _____ area in the _____ hemisphere.

46. The ability to distinguish between (for example) a coin and a key by touch is localized in somatosensory association
the _____ cortex.

47. The fact that each hemisphere of the cerebrum has abilities not shared with its partner is lateralization
referred to as _____.

48. The _____ hemisphere usually controls math and logic. left

49. The _____ hemisphere usually controls visual and spatial skills, emotion, and artistic right
skills.

50. Cerebral dominance refers to the hemisphere of the cerebrum that is _____. dominant for language

51. _____ are axons which connect the corresponding gray areas of the two brain Commissural fibers; corpus
hemispheres. Most pass through (and form) the _____. callosum

52. _____ are axons which connect different parts of a single brain hemisphere. Association fibers

53. _____ are nerve fibers which connect the hemispheres of the brain to the spinal cord and Projection fibers
PNS.

54. Masses of gray matter found deep within the cerebral white matter are called _____. basal nuclei

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55. For historical reasons, the basal nuclei are also known as the _____, a name whose use basal ganglia
is discouraged.

56. The correct timing and velocity of movements is controlled by the _____. basal nuclei

57. A patient exhibiting spastic movements, tremors, slowness, rigidity, or difficulty initiating basal nuclei
voluntary movement may well have damage to the _____.

58. The _____ is the central core of the forebrain. diencephalon

59. The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus constitute the _____. diencephalon

60. Afferent impulses converge in the _____, where those of similar function are sorted and thalamus
relayed on as a group.

61. Blood pressure, rate and force of heartbeat, digestive tract motility, the rate and depth of hypothalamus
breathing, and many other autonomic functions are controlled in the _____.

62. Emotional responses to events are in part mediated by the _____. hypothalamus

63. Body temperature is mediated by the _____. hypothalamus

64. Appetite is mediated by the _____. hypothalamus

65. Sleep and the sleep cycle are regulated by the _____. hypothalamus

66. Much of the influence of the hypothalamus is due to the release of hormones which releasing hormone
control the release of other hormones: appropriately enough, their names usually include
the phrase, "_____".
67. The pineal gland, habenula, and choroid plexus of the third ventricle constitute the _____. epithalamus

68. The _____ connects the limbic system to the midbrain - it's physiological roles are still habenula
under active investigation.

69. The main product of the pineal gland is _____, which helps to control the sleep-wake melatonin
cycle (and is sold in health food stores to alleviate 'jet lag').

70. The continuation of automatic behaviors necessary for survival (e.g., breathing) is brain stem
controlled by the _____.

71. The _____ connects the brain to the spinal cord. brain stem

72. Ten of the twelve pairs of cranial nerves originate in the _____. brain stem

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73. Auditory signals from the ears, and eye and head reflexes, are mediated by the corpora midbrain
quadrigemina, a subdivision of the _____.

74. The midbrain is a subdivision of the _____. brain stem

75. Red, blood-rich neural centers called red nuclei assist in the unconscious regulation of midbrain
motor activities and are found in the _____.

76. Along with the corpus striatum (one of the basal nuclei), the substantia nigra regulates midbrain
coordination of movement and is found in the _____. (Some authors consider it to be one
of the basal nuclei.)
77. The fear response, suppression of pain, and the motor nuclei for two of the cranial nerves midbrain
which control eye movement, are found in the periaqueductal gray matter of the _____.

78. The cerebral peduncles found on the ventral face of the _____, house the pyramidal fiber midbrain
tracts and convey signals from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord and PNS.

79. Respiration is in part regulated by nuclei of the _____, the fibers of which are part of the pons
brain stem.

80. Fibers of the _____ relay impulses between the motor cortex and the cerebellum. pons

81. The pons is a subdivision of the _____. brain stem

82. The lowest portion of the brain stem is the _____. medulla oblongata

83. The reverse-lateralization of hemispheric function (in which the right half of the body is medulla oblongata
controlled by the left hemisphere, etc.) is caused by crossover of long nerve tracts (the
pyramidal tracts) on the ventral surface of the _____ at a point called the decussation of
the pyramids.
84. Respiratory rate, heart rate, and blood pressure are primarily controlled by various nuclei medulla oblongata
in the _____ of the brain stem.

85. Coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting are controlled by nuclei found in the medulla oblongata
_____.

86. The gyri of the cerebellum are called _____. folia

87. The _____ is the central region of the cerebellum. vermis

88. The cerebellum is connected to the _____ by the superior peduncle, to the _____ by the midbrain, pons, medulla
middle peduncle, and to the _____ by the inferior peduncle. oblongata

89. Integration of impulses from the motor cortex and sensory pathways, and comparison of cerebellum
actual to intended motion, is the function of the _____.

90. The emotional interpretation of events (enjoyable/aversive, etc.) is controlled by the limbic system
_____.

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91. The _____ is a group of nuclei and tracts which surround, and include several parts of, limbic system
the diencephalon.

92. The _____ is a bundle of nerve tracts linking structures in the limbic system to one fornix
another.

93. Interactions between the prefrontal lobes and the _____ allow our thoughts to influence limbic system
our emotions and vice versa.

94. Wakefulness and muscle tone are maintained by small clusters of nuclei called the reticular formation
_____, scattered throughout the brain stem.

95. The _____, scattered throughout the brain stem, allow us to filter out unimportant sensory reticular formation
information such as background noises.

96. A(n) _____ is a recording of the brain's electrical activity. EEG or electroencephalogram

97. Alpha and beta brainwaves occur _____, while theta waves are more common in _____. primarily in alert adults;
children

98. Delta waves occur _____. during deep sleep

99. During _____ sleep, skeletal muscle movement is inhibited and most dreams occur. REM

100. During _____ sleep, the brain wave patterns mimic wakefulness. REM

101. The type of memory that allows us to complete actions without committing them to short-term; working
permanent memory is called _____ or _____ memory.

102. In order for a memory to become permanent, it must be _____. associated with pre-existing
memories

103. Memories of specific words, associations, or facts are classified as _____ or _____ factual; declarative (or explicit)
memories.

104. Riding a bike or roller skating are examples of _____ or _____ memory. skill; procedural (or implicit)

105. Damage to the _____ will prevent the acquisition of new declarative memories. limbic system

106. Procedural memory is mediated by the _____, one of the basal nuclei. corpus striatum

107. Two changes that occur at the cellular level in the formation of new memories are the synapses; response at existing
formation of new _____, or changes in the strength of the _____. synapses

108. The addition of extra neurotransmitter receptors at an existing synapse during the long-term potentiation
formation of a memory to make the synapse more responsive to a brief signal is an
example of _____.

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109. The _____ are a set of three connective tissue membranes that surround the CNS. meninges

110. The tough, fibrous, double-layered, outermost meninx is the _____. dura mater

111. The separation between the cerebral hemispheres is reinforced by an extension of the falx cerebri
dura mater called the _____: anteriorly, it is attached to the crista galli of the skull, and so
helps to hold the brain in position.
112. The _____ are tubes that are formed between the two layers of the dura mater through dural sinuses
which venous blood flows.

113. The _____ is the middle meninx. arachnoid mater

114. The ____ is the innermost meninx: it clings tightly to the surface of the brain, even in the pia mater
sulci.

115. The wide, cerebrospinal fluid containing space is between the _____ mater and the pia arachnoid; sub-arachnoid
mater and is called the _____ space.

116. The main blood vessels supplying the brain are in the _____ space. sub-arachnoid

117. _____ fills the ventricles and surrounds the brain and spinal cord, acting as a shock Cerebrospinal fluid
absorber, distributing nutritive materials, removing wastes, and providing a chemically
stable environment.
118. The cells of the capillaries in the brain are unusual in that they are _____. joined by tight junctions

119. Capillaries in the brain are much less _____ than capillaries elsewhere in the body. permeable

120. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed in regions within the ventricles called _____ by _____ cells. choroid plexuses; ependymal

121. After the CSF is formed, it circulates from the lateral ventricles to the third and fourth sub-arachnoid space
ventricles, and from there to the _____ and central canal of the spinal cord.

122. After circulation the CSF returns to the blood by passing through the _____, which are arachnoid granulations
clusters of the arachnoid mater which project into the dural sinuses and act as one-way
valves.
123. Impaired blood circulation to the brain due to a blocked or broken vessel is known as a(n) cerebrovascular accident;
_____, _____ or _____. stroke; brain attack

124. (True/False) Most of the neuronal death due to a stroke occurs several minutes or even TRUE
hours after the stroke begins, allowing time for emergency treatment to have a major
effect.
125. An abnormal build up of beta-amyloid protein fragments in the regions surrounding Alzheimer's Disease
neurons, and of neurofibrillary tangles in the cytoplasm of pyramidal neurons and in that
of neurons whose axons connect with them, are the causes of neuronal death in _____.
126. In the elderly, drug reactions, poor circulation, or disease, all of which may be curable, Alzheimer's Disease
can mimic the dementia caused by _____, which is not.

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127. In Huntington's Disease, damage to the caudate nucleus, one of the basal nuclei, caused chorea (or involuntary spastic
by an abnormal protein leads to _____ and eventually to death. movements)

128. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra leads to tremor, muscular Parkinson's Disease
rigidity, slow movement and postural instability in _____.

129. The _____ is formed of paired strips of cells arising from the ectoderm at the margin of neural crest
the neural tube.

130. The spinal cord itself is formed from the _____, and the dorsal root ganglia are formed neural tube; neural crest
from the _____.

131. The spinal cord extends from the _____ to the _____; below L1 it branches to form the skull; L1 vertebra; cauda
_____. equina

132. In addition to the vertebral column, the spinal cord is protected by the _____ and _____. meninges; CSF

133. In the inferior regions, there is a gap between the _____ and the _____ into which dura mater; vertebrae
anesthetics are often introduced ("epidural" – "upon the dura").

134. The butterfly-shaped central core of gray matter in the spinal cord can be divided into anterior horn
three regions. The _____ contains the cell bodies of somatic motor neurons.

135. The butterfly-shaped central core of gray matter in the spinal cord can be divided into lateral horn
three regions. The _____ contains the cell bodies of the autonomic motor neurons and is
present only in the thoracic and upper lumbar (L1 and L2) regions.
136. The butterfly-shaped central core of gray matter in the spinal cord can be divided into posterior horn
three regions. The _____ contains interneurons.

137. The axons of the neurons from the _____ and _____ horns emerge together as the lateral; anterior
ventral roots.

138. The _____ are formed from the cell bodies of sensory neurons whose axons branch to dorsal root ganglia
extend inward to the spinal cord and outward to the body.

139. _____ are white-matter columns consisting of the myelinated axons of neurons Funiculi
associated with the spinal cord.

140. The neuronal cell bodies for the ascending pathways of the spinal cord itself are found in dorsal horn; dorsal root ganglia
the _____ or _____.

141. Neurons in the _____ have axons which extend from the receptor to the spinal cord, or in dorsal root ganglia
some cases all the way to the brain.

142. Neurons of the dorsal horn receive signals from those in the _____. Their own axons dorsal root ganglia
extend to reach neurons in the brain stem, diencephalon, etc.

143. Detailed information concerning position, vibration, or fine touch are transmitted by the specific ascending (or
_____ pathway of the somatosensory tracts of the spinal cord. This pathway is located in lemniscal); posterior funiculus
the _____.
144. Information regarding crude touch, temperature, pressure, and pain is carried through the non-specific ascending (or
_____ pathway of the somatosensory tracts of the spinal cord. anterolateral); anterior and
lateral funiculi

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145. Messages carried in the specific and non-specific ascending pathways ultimately reach the side of the body opposite to
the somatosensory cortex on _____ the sensor. (contralateral to)

146. Impulses from the trunk and lower limb regarding position and movement are carried spinocerebellar; lateral funiculi
through the _____ pathway of the somatosensory tracts of the spinal cord. This pathway
is located in the _____.
147. Messages carried in the specific and non-specific ascending pathways ultimately reach the same side of the body as
the somatosensory cortex on _____ the sensor. (ipsilateral to)

148. Signals from the pyramidal cells in the motor cortex to the spinal cord are carried by the direct system (or pyramidal
_____, one of the two motor tracts of the spinal cord. system)

149. Signals controlling automatic movements such as those needed to maintain balance are indirect (or extra-pyramidal
carried by the _____ system, one of the two motor tracts of the spinal cord. system)

150. The motor tracts of the spinal cord are located in the _____. lateral and anterior funiculi

151. Damage to the _____ of the spinal cord prevents nerve impulses from reaching the anterior horn neurons; flaccid
muscle and causes the muscles to remain limp, a condition called _____ paralysis.

152. Damage to the _____ in the brain causes the muscles to contract involuntarily and primary motor cortex; spastic
somewhat at random, a condition called _____ paralysis.

153. Because injuries to the anterior spinal cord are nearly always accompanied by injuries to posterior spinal cord;
the _____, flaccid paralysis is often accompanied by _____. numbness (or anesthesia)

154. Long term paralysis results in irreversible deterioration of the _____. muscle

155. In _____, a contrast dye is injected into one or more arteries to make them visible in X- angiography
rays.

156. _____ tests are used to verify that the spinal cord and brain are functioning properly. Reflex

157. In _____, multiple X-rays, taken from many angles, are combined by computer into a 3D CAT scans (or CT scans)
image.

158. In _____, radio waves are used to produce detailed images which include soft tissues. MRI

159. In _____, metabolism by each tissue is measured by passing the patient through a PET scans
circular scanner after he or she has been given a small amount of a radioactive chemical.

160. Conventional diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease requires two or three years, while newer PET scans
techniques such as _____ may provide a rapid and unambiguous diagnosis.

161. Drugs, radiation, infections, and malnutrition are particularly dangerous while a woman is CNS development
pregnant because they can alter _____.

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162. In the elderly, blood pressure abnormalities, poor circulation, poor nutrition, prolonged reversible (curable) senility
inactivity and drug interactions can all induce _____.

"Recoverable Cognitive Dysfunction"- common in hospitalized elders; complicates care!

(Inouye SK, Zhang Y, Han L, Leo-Summers L, Jones R, Marcantonio E., "Recoverable
Cognitive Dysfunction at Hospital Admission in Older Persons During Acute Illness." J
Gen Intern Med. 2006 Sep 11; PMID: 16965558)

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 The PNS

1. Neural structures other than the brain and spinal cord are all part of the _____. peripheral nervous system
(PNS)

2. Most receptors in the PNS are _____ receptors: that is, they are not a part of a specific simple
body structure dedicated to receiving information from the environment.

3. Receptors in body structures dedicated to receiving information from the environment, complex; special sense
such as the eyes and ears, are _____ receptors and the structures themselves are called
the _____ organs.
4. _____ respond to pressure, itch, touch, vibration, and stretch. Mechanoreceptors

5. _____ are sensitive to changes in temperature. Thermoreceptors

6. _____ respond to light energy; in humans, these are found in the retina. Photoreceptors

7. _____ respond to chemicals, and are used in our senses of smell and taste and to detect Chemoreceptors
changes in blood chemistry.

8. _____ are receptors that are dedicated to sensing pain. Nociceptors

9. Receptors near the body's surface which respond to changes in the external environment exteroceptors
are called _____.

10. _____ are receptors in internal viscera and blood vessels which sense chemical changes, Interoceptors (or
temperature, and other factors necessary to maintain homeostasis. visceroceptors)

11. _____ are receptors which are found in skeletal muscles, tendons, joints, ligaments, etc., Proprioceptors
which allow us to sense the position of the body.

12. Free nerve endings are responsible for detecting _____, _____, _____, _____ and pain, temperature, itch, joint
_____. movement, proprioception

13. Merkel disks respond to _____. light pressure

14. Hair follicle receptors are responsible for detecting _____. light touch (hair deflection)

15. Meissner's corpuscles are responsible for detecting _____. light pressure, texture

16. Pacinian corpuscles are responsible for detecting _____. deep pressure

17. Ruffini's corpuscles are responsible for detecting _____. deep pressure or stretch

18. Muscle spindles are responsible for detecting _____. muscle stretch

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 The PNS

19. Golgi tendon organs are responsible for detecting _____. tendon stretch

20. _____ is the awareness of changes in the internal or external environment while _____ is Sensation; perception; CNS
their interpretation. Both of these occur only in the _____.

21. In order for an event to be sensed, an appropriate receptor must convert the stimulus to electric signal (or action
a(n) _____. potential)

22. _____ are the neurons that are the first to generate an action potential in response to an First order neurons
event.

23. The soma (cell bodies) of the first order neurons reside in the _____ or _____ ganglia. dorsal root; cranial

24. The _____ are the interneurons in the CNS which receive the signal from the first order second order neurons; dorsal
neurons. Their cell bodies are found in the _____ of the spinal cord or in the _____, and horn; medullary nuclei
convey their signals within the spinal cord, or to the thalamus or cerebellum.
25. Some sensory signals are received by third order neurons in the _____ and are passed thalamus
on to the cerebrum for perception. Others are never perceived, but are instead only
sensed and acted on at the subconscious level.
26. Perception occurs in the _____. cerebral cortex

27. A(n) _____ potential is a membrane potential that is caused by an event in the generator
environment and which reaches the threshold level needed to generate an action
potential.
28. A generator potential is a(n) _____ potential and so depends on the strength of the graded
stimulus.

29. In receptors that are capable of adaptation, an unchanging stimulus leads to a(n) _____ decreasing and eventually
response. absent

30. Afferent ganglia are found in the _____, adjacent to the _____. dorsal root ganglia; spinal cord

31. Efferent ganglia are primarily _____ motor neurons whose distribution is _____. autonomic; complex

32. _____ are cordlike organs in the PNS consisting of peripheral axons, blood vessels, and Nerves
connective tissue.

33. The _____ is the connective tissue surrounding individual axons within a nerve. endoneurium

34. The _____ is the connective tissue surrounding a fascicle of axons in a nerve. perineurium

35. The _____ is the connective tissue surrounding the entire nerve (including the blood epineurium
vessels).

36. After the axon of a peripheral neuron is damaged, the _____ end deteriorates. distal

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 The PNS

37. After the axon of a peripheral neuron is damaged, _____ cells detach from the myelin Schwann
sheath and divide to guide new axonal growth.

38. Signals carrying information regarding odors are carried to the brain via cranial nerve # 1; olfactory
_____, the _____ nerve.

39. Visual signals are carried to the brain via cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve. 2; optic

40. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, is primarily a motor nerve: it controls the eyelid, 3; oculomotor
four of the six extrinsic muscles which move the eye, and also resizes the iris and focuses
the lens.
41. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, innervates only one of the six muscles which 4; trochlear
move the eye, the superior oblique muscle.

42. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, controls several of the muscles needed for 5; trigeminal
speech, chewing, and swallowing, as well as carrying sensory information from the face,
scalp, and mandibles. (Two of its three branches innervate the teeth.)
43. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, innervates the muscles of the eye which abduct 6; abducens
the eyeballs.

44. Sensations of taste and the ability to control facial expression are provided by cranial 7; facial
nerve # _____, the _____ nerve. It also helps with swallowing and controls the tear
glands and two sets of salivary glands.
45. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, carries sensations needed for hearing and 8; vestibulocochlear
maintaining balance.

46. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, is involved in taste and carries sensory signals 9; glossopharyngeal
from the tongue, middle ear, and pharynx. It also assists in monitoring blood pressure and
blood gas concentrations by carrying information received from receptors in the carotid
arteries.
47. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, is the only cranial nerve to extend below the 10; vagus
neck. It innervates the throat and mouth as well as thoracic and abdominal organs.

48. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, is the only 'cranial' nerve to include a spinal root. 11; accessory
It innervates the larynx, pharynx, and several muscles of the neck.

49. Cranial nerve # _____, the _____ nerve, allows tongue movement during eating and 12; hypoglossal
speaking.

50. _____ are small bundles of axons emerging from or entering the spinal cord. Rootlets

51. As the distance from the spinal cord increases, rootlets merge to form _____. roots

52. _____ are roots that are formed from the axons of neurons whose cell bodies are in the Ventral roots
anterior horn of the spinal cord.

53. The dorsal roots are formed from the axons of neurons whose cell bodies are in the dorsal root ganglia
_____.

54. Dorsal roots contain _____ fibers. sensory (or afferent)

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 The PNS

55. Spinal nerves leave the spinal column through _____. intervertebral foramen

56. The ventral and dorsal roots merge to form the _____ as they exit the vertebral column. spinal nerves

57. Soon after exiting the vertebral column, each spinal nerve divides into four branches, the dorsal ramus; ventral ramus;
_____, ______, _____ and _____. meningeal branch; rami
communicantes
58. The rami communicantes are found only in the _____, because they are a part of the thoracic region; ANS
_____.

59. A(n) _____ is a complex network of interacting and cross connected nerves. plexus

60. Each nerve leaving a plexus is a combination of axons from several _____. spinal nerves

61. Plexuses consist of axons from the _____ rami of spinal nerves. ventral

62. All ventral rami except those from _____ intertwine in plexus. T2 - T 12

63. _____ innervate the thorax, controlling muscles to the ribs, anterolateral thorax, and Ventral rami from T1 to T12
abdominal wall.

64. Because of the complex intertwining of the motor nerves in plexuses, damage to the sensory deficits
spinal nerves can be difficult to diagnose based on motor deficits, and must instead be
diagnosed based on _____.
65. A dermatome is a(n) _____. area of skin innervated by a
single spinal nerve

66. The _____ innervates the skin of the neck, ear, back of the head, shoulders, and cervical plexus; C1 to C4
diaphragm, and is formed from the ventral rami of _____.

67. The most important nerve of the cervical plexus is the _____, which innervates the phrenic; breathing
diaphragm and controls _____.

68. The _____ plexus innervates the upper limb, and is formed from the ventral rami of brachial; C5 to T1
_____.

69. The five ventral rami that form the _____ of the brachial plexus merge to form three roots; trunks; divisions; cords
_____, which then quickly branch into six _____. These then recombine to form three
_____. Finally, these branch again to form the five nerves of the upper limb.
70. The _____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the deltoid and teres minor. axillary

71. The _____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the biceps brachii, brachialis and musculotaneous
coracobrachialis.

72. The _____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates most of the flexor muscles of the median
forearm and the lateral portions of the hand.

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 The PNS

73. The _____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum ulnar
profundus and the medial portions of the hand.

74. The _____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates parts of the biceps brachii and triceps radial
brachii as well as nearly all of the extensor muscles of the forearm.

75. The _____ plexus innervates the thigh, abdominal wall, and psoas muscles, which is lumbar; L1 to L4
formed from the ventral rami of _____.

76. Thigh flexion, thigh abduction and knee extension are mediated by the _____ and _____, femoral nerve; obturator nerve
two major nerves of the lumbar plexus.

77. The _____ plexus innervates the foot and leg, and is formed from the ventral rami of sacral; L4 to S4
_____.

78. The _____ is the major nerve of the sacral plexus and is the longest and thickest nerve of sciatic nerve
the body. It is actually a single name for two separate nerves, the tibial nerve and the
fibular or peroneal nerve.
79. The _____ nerve innervates the foot and leg. sciatic

80. A(n) _____ is a rapid, involuntary response to a stimulus. reflex

81. If its effector is a skeletal muscle, a reflex is a(n) _____ reflex. somatic

82. If its effector is a smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or gland, a reflex is a(n) _____ reflex. autonomic

83. _____ reflexes cause contraction of a stretched muscle and relaxation of the antagonist Stretch
muscle. The most famous example is the patellar reflex, in which the muscles of the
quadriceps are stretched by tapping the patellar tendon.
84. Pulling a bodypart away from a painful stimulus is a(n) _____ reflex. flexor OR withdrawal

85. The _____ reflex leads to activation of flexors on one side of the body and extensors on cross-extensor
the opposite side.

86. With age, the number of general sensory receptors such as Meissner's corpuscles and decreases
Pacinian corpuscles _____

87. The _____ reflex prevents an overly-powerful muscle contraction from tearing a tendon Golgi tendon
by inhibiting the contraction of the muscle.

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 The ANS

1. The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the _____. motor division of the PNS

2. Visceral activities such as blood pressure, heart rate, pupil size, etc., are controlled by the autonomic nervous system
_____. (ANS)

3. In the somatic nervous system, the effectors are _____. voluntary

4. In the autonomic nervous system, the effectors are _____. involuntary muscles and glands

5. In the _____ nervous system, efferent neurons extend their axons directly from the CNS somatic
to the effector.

6. In the _____ nervous system, efferent neurons in the _____ (pre-ganglionic neurons) autonomic; CNS; synapse with
extend axons to ganglia located throughout the body, where they _____. _____ carry the ganglionic neurons; Ganglionic
message to the effector. neurons
7. In the _____ nervous system, acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter and it is always a(n) somatic; activator
_____.

8. In the autonomic nervous system, the neurotransmitters are _____ and _____, which can acetylcholine; norepinephrine;
be _____ or _____ depending on the effector involved. excitatory; inhibitory

9. The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system controls processes that are active parasympathetic
when all is peaceful and going well.

10. The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system controls processes that are active sympathetic
when events are stressful.

11. In general, most body functions required for maintenance of homeostasis have competition between the
components that are controlled by _____ of the ANS. parasympathetic and
sympathetic divisions
12. Thermoregulation is controlled by the _____ of the ANS. sympathetic division

13. Metabolic rate is controlled by the _____ of the ANS. sympathetic division

14. Blood pressure is controlled by the _____ of the ANS. sympathetic division

15. Some activities are complex and require control by _____ of the ANS. both the parasympathetic and
sympathetic divisions

16. Activation by the _____ division of the ANS is longer lasting than by the _____ division. sympathetic; parasympathetic

17. _____ is the neurotransmitter used to activate almost all effectors in the sympathetic Norepinephrine; acetylcholine
division of the ANS while _____ is used by the parasympathetic division.

18. Two reasons that activation by the sympathetic division of the ANS has a long duration norepinephrine; acetylcholine;
are that the neurotransmitter _____ is inactivated more slowly than _____, and also acts second messenger
through _____ systems in the cell rather than directly operating ion channels.

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 The ANS

19. Sympathetic activation releases the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine adrenal glands
directly into the blood via the action of the _____.

20. The blood-borne neurotransmitters of the sympathetic division remain active until _____. they are destroyed by the liver

21. The cell bodies of parasympathetic neurons within the CNS reside _____. in the brain stem or sacral
region of the spinal cord (the
cauda equina)
22. Parasympathetic nerve fibers leave the CNS only in the _____ region(s). cervical and sacral

23. Ganglia for the parasympathetic division of the ANS are located _____. near, or in, the organs they
innervate

24. Sympathetic nerve fibers leave the CNS in the _____ region(s) of the vertebral column. thoracic and superior lumbar

25. The cell bodies of the pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons of the ANS form the _____ of lateral horn
the spinal cord.

26. The axons of many of the pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons synapse adjacent to the chain ganglia OR paravertebral
spinal cord in the _____. ganglia OR central ganglia

27. The cell bodies of many of the post-ganglionic neurons whose axons innervate chain ganglia OR paravertebral
sympathetic effectors are located adjacent to the vertebrae and are called _____. ganglia OR central ganglia

28. The axons of many of the pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons pass through the chain collateral ganglia
ganglia and synapse in the _____.

29. The cell bodies of many of the post-ganglionic neurons whose axons innervate collateral ganglia
sympathetic effectors are located in the ventral cavity and are called _____.

30. The _____, which refers to the collateral ganglia as a group, clings to the walls of the abdominal aortic plexus
abdominal aorta.

31. _____, which means 'in the trunk of the body', are nerves of the sympathetic ANS which Splanchnic
pass through the chain ganglia to synapse in the collateral ganglia.

32. Sympathetic axons which leave_____ are myelinated and are called the white rami. the CNS to reach the chain
ganglia

33. The axons which leave _____ are not myelinated and are called the gray rami. neurons in the chain ganglia
and extend to the effector

34. Afferent components of the ANS can be found in two locations: in nerves which include afferent somatic fibers; efferent
_____ and in nerves which include _____. ANS fibers

35. _____ is pain arising from the viscera which is perceived to be in a different location. This Referred pain
is thought to be because visceral afferents travel the same pathways as somatic
afferents.
36. Unexplained pain in areas of the body not normally considered to be likely to give rise to referred pain from a vital organ
life threatening problems (for example, the left arm) should be treated seriously because it such as the heart
may be _____.

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 The ANS

37. _____ is an adjective that refers to acetylcholine and is used to describe receptors and Cholinergic
nerve fibers that bind or release acetylcholine.

38. There are two types of cholinergic receptors, _____ and _____, which are sufficiently muscarinic; nicotinic
different that drugs can be found which affect one but not the other.

39. _____ is an adjective that refers to norepinephrine and is used to describe receptors and Adrenergic
nerve fibers that bind or release norepinephrine.

40. There are two major classes of adrenergic receptors, _____ and _____, each of which alpha-adrenergic; beta-
has several sub-classes and each of which may be targeted by specific drugs. adrenergic

41. The effect of a neurotransmitter depends on two factors: the _____ to which they bind receptors; cell type
and the _____.

42. The effect of neurotransmitters on a target organ can sometimes be predicted simply by physiological need; excitatory
knowing the _____. For example, fright releases norepinephrine into the blood and is
_____ to the heart.
43. The fact that receptor subtypes exist is very important to the medical field because _____. it allows drugs to be targeted to
specific receptors, cells,
tissues, etc.
44. The adrenal medulla is stimulated to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into sympathetic; parasympathetic
the blood by the _____ division of the ANS, and is not affected by the _____ division.

45. Heart rate is increased by the _____ division of the ANS. sympathetic

46. Heart rate is decreased by the _____ division of the ANS. parasympathetic

47. The bronchioles in the lungs are constricted by the _____ division of the ANS. parasympathetic

48. The bronchioles in the lungs are dilated by the _____ division of the ANS. sympathetic

49. Digestive tract activity, including motility, secretion of digestive juices, and sphincter parasympathetic
relaxation are promoted by the _____ division of the ANS.

50. Digestive tract activity, including motility, secretion of digestive juices, and sphincter sympathetic
relaxation are inhibited by the _____ division of the ANS.

51. The role of the parasympathetic division of the ANS in the male sexual response is to penile erection; ejaculation
cause _____, and that of the sympathetic division to cause _____.

52. The role of the parasympathetic division of the ANS in the female sexual response is to clitoral erection; vaginal
cause _____, and that of the sympathetic division to cause _____. lubrication and contraction

53. Blood vessels are constricted due to _____. stimulation by the sympathetic
division of the ANS

54. Blood vessels are dilated due to _____. lack of stimulation by the
sympathetic division of the
ANS

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 The ANS

55. Diverse signals from the limbic system, the reticular formation, the cerebral cortex, and the hypothalamus
the spinal cord are integrated to influence the activity of the ANS by _____.

56. The _____ mediates many reflex actions required for homeostasis, including breathing, brain stem
heart rate, heart contraction force, and blood pressure.

57. The _____ mediates many activities requiring autonomic activity, including defecation, spinal cord
urination, erection (penile or clitoral), and ejaculation.

58. Hypertension (high blood pressure) results if the _____ response is overactive. sympathetic vasoconstrictor

59. Raynaud's disease is a disease in which _____. blood vessels constrict in the
fingers and toes

60. Re-activation of somatic fibers in the spinal cord following non-permanent injury result in pain; convulsions
_____ and _____ in the regions inferior to the injury as part of the mass reflex reaction.

61. Re-activation of autonomic fibers in the spinal cord following non-permanent injury result blood vessel constriction; colon
in potentially fatal _____ and in _____ as part of the mass reflex reaction. and bladder emptying

62. During development, pre-ganglionic neurons of the ANS are derived from the _____. embryonic neural tube

63. During development, autonomic nervous system structures in the PNS such as ganglionic neural crest
neurons and the adrenal medulla are derived from the _____.

64. _____ is a form of low blood pressure common in old age, and occurs when sympathetic Orthostatic hypotension
vasoconstrictive centers are slow to respond to positional changes.

65. Orthostatic hypotension, dry eyes, and constipation are all linked to a common cause in decrease in the efficiency of
old age: _____. the ANS

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 Special Senses

1. _____, or taste, is the sensation and perception of chemicals dissolved in saliva. Gustation

2. _____, or smell, is the sensation and perception of chemicals dissolved in the fluids of the Olfaction
nasal membranes.

3. The five classes of chemoreceptor for gustation are _____, _____, _____, _____, and salty; sweet; sour; bitter;
_____. umami

4. Chemoreceptors in the mouth are located on _____, a specialized structure found on gustatory hairs
gustatory cells.

5. The small visible bumps on the tongue are _____. mucosal papillae

6. Taste buds are _____ within some types of mucosal papillae, not the mucosal papillae microscopic groups of cells
themselves.

7. Cells which comprise taste buds die after roughly _____, and are replaced by division of one week; basal cells
_____.

8. The chemoreceptor cells involved in gustation signal by _____, not by themselves releasing a neurotransmitter
generating an electrical signal. (They are not neurons.)

9. Chemoreceptors _____ when they bind to the chemical they are built to recognize. change shape

10. The nerves which send axons to meet the chemoreceptor cells involved in gustation are VII; IX; X
cranial nerves #s _____, _____, or _____.

11. Once a signal is generated by a taste bud, associated neurons carry the signal to the medulla; thalamus; cerebral
_____, which relays it to the _____, which in turn sends it to the _____, _____ and cortex (OR taste cortex of
_____. cerebrum); hypothalamus;
limbic system
12. The _____ is a patch of olfactory epithelium slightly larger than the top surface of the olfactory organ
tongue.

13. The olfactory organ is located in the _____. roof of the nasal cavity

14. As air is inhaled, chemicals carried by it dissolve in the _____ of the olfactory organ, liquid coating the mucosa (OR
allowing them to bind to the chemoreceptors of the olfactory cells found there. mucous)

15. Olfactory cells are _____. bipolar neurons

16. The axons of olfactory cells form the filaments of _____: they pass through the _____ of cranial nerve I (the olfactory
the skull to reach the olfactory bulb, where they synapse with neurons of the olfactory nerve); cribriform plate
tract.
17. Unlike taste, there are _____ <roughly how many?> of odorant receptors hundreds of different types
(chemoreceptors for chemicals sensed as an odor).

18. Each neuron expresses _____ <roughly how many?>, odorant receptors. one, or at most a few

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 Special Senses

19. Eyelids are thick, skin covered folds supported internally by the _____, which also anchor tarsal plates; orbicularis oculi;
the _____ and_____, the muscles which control the motion of the eyelids. levator palpebrae superioris

20. Eyelids protect the eye when closed, and also _____ and _____ by blinking. spread lubricants; remove
debris

21. Eyelashes on each lid serve as extremely sensitive _____, triggering reflex eyelid closure touch receptors
when sensation is unexpected.

22. Glands with ducts at the edges of each lid produce _____. oily secretions that lubricate
lids

23. _____ are transparent mucous membranes that line the eyelids and the anterior surface Conjunctiva; the cornea
of the eyeball (except for _____). Their major function is to produce a lubricating mucus
that prevents the eye from drying.
24. The lacrimal apparatus includes the _____, which produces tears, and the ducts that lacrimal gland; nasal passages
drain excess liquid into the _____.

25. Tears enter the eye _____ and leave via ducts at the medial corner of the eye (the superiolaterally; medial
_____). canthus

26. Tears contain mucus, _____ and _____, an enzyme, both of which protect the eye from antibodies; lysozyme
bacteria.

27. The extrinsic eye muscles include four _____ which direct the eye’s gaze up, down, left, rectus muscles; oblique
or right. In addition, there are two_____ (superior and inferior) which keep the eye from muscles
spinning or twisting.
28. The eye itself has an outer wall composed of three layers, or “_____.” tunics

29. The _____ is the outermost layer of the eyeball: in the front it is clear, forming the _____. fibrous tunic; cornea; sclera
The surrounding areas are white, and form the _____.

30. In the back of the eye, the fibrous tunic extends to cover the optic nerve, and is dura mater
continuous with the _____.

31. The _____ (or _____) is the middle layer of the eyeball’s wall. vascular tunic; uvea

32. In the front of the eye, the vascular tunic (or uvea) forms the _____. iris

33. The iris lies between the _____ and the _____ and is continuous with the next region, the cornea; lens; smooth muscular
ciliary body, which is _____. tissue that controls the shape
of the lens
34. Posterior to the ciliary body is the _____ a dark brown membrane that contains _____. choroid; the blood vessels that
supply the eye tunics

35. The uvea is also known as the _____. vascular tunic

36. The _____ (or _____) is the innermost layer of the eye. sensory tunic; retina

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 Special Senses

37. The cells of the outer layer of the retina (in relation to the center of the eye) store _____ vitamin A; phagocytes
and act as _____. Both of these functions support the outer layer.

38. The retina has two sub-layers: the outer layer of the retina (in relation to the center of the prevent light reflection from the
eye) is pigmented to _____. back of the eye

39. The outer layer of the retina (in relation to the center of the eye) is a(n) _____ which transparent neural layer;
contains the _____. photoreceptor cells

40. During youth, the lens is flexible, which allows us to _____. This process is called _____. alter its shape to focus on
nearby or distant objects;
accomodation
41. Visual acuity is measured by comparison with the average. If one has "20/20 vision," it an average person sees at 20
means that one sees as clearly at 20 feet as _____. feet

42. The lens is made of special proteins called _____. These in turn are made by special crystallins; lens fibers
cells called _____, which contain no nuclei and few organelles.

43. Unlike most proteins, crystallins are never _____. degraded

44. The lens of the eye gets less flexible as we age in part because crystallins are _____ by produced; crosslinked
cells throughout life, and because these proteins are apt to become _____ due to poor
repair and lack of replacement.
45. The anterior cavity of the eye is filled with _____, a clear fluid similar to blood plasma. aqueous humor

46. The anterior and posterior cavities of the eye are separated by the _____. lens

47. The anterior and posterior chambers of the anterior cavity of the eye are separated by the iris
_____.

48. The aqueous humor is formed in the _____ of the eye, and is reabsorbed in the _____. posterior chamber of the
anterior cavity; anterior
chamber of the anterior cavity
49. The posterior cavity of the eye is filled with _____, a jelly-like substance which is vitreous humor; before birth;
produced _____ and is not _____. replaced

50. Vitreous humor functions to _____ the retina and helps to maintain _____ against the support; the shape of the eye
pressure of the extrinsic muscles.

51. The axons of the retinal ganglion cells run along the surface of the retina before leaving optic nerve
the eye as the _____.

52. The region of the retina where the axons of the retinal ganglion cells leave the eye is optic disk; blind spot;
called the _____ or _____, and lacks _____. photoreceptor cells

53. In order to interact with photoreceptors, light must actually pass through the _____; the retina
light-sensitive portion of the photoreceptor cells form the posterior aspect of this layer.

54. Most of the light-bending which results in an image forming on the retina is due to the cornea
_____. Many patients benefit from having it re-shaped surgically to correct myopia,
hyperopia, or astigmatism.

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 Special Senses

55. In a relaxed eye, the lens is _____ by ligaments of the eye. stretched

56. Contracting the ciliary body of an eye results in _____ tension on the lens, so that (if the less; rounder
lens belongs to a young person) it becomes _____.

57. The light sensitive portion of the photreceptor cells is _____ to maximize surface area, wrinkled; photopigment
and contains many _____ which absorb light. molecules

58. When a photopigment is hit by an appropriate light, it breaks apart into two parts: a retinal; opsin
vitamin A derivative, _____, and a glycoprotein, _____.

59. The membrane potential in photoreceptor cells is unusual: _____ is allowed to leak sodium; dark current
across the membrane. This flow of ions is called the _____.

60. Opsin activates a second messenger system which _____ sodium channels in the closes
photoreceptor cells.

61. When a photoreceptor cell membrane hyperpolarizes, the cell _____. This lets nearby stops releasing
bipolar neurons know that the photoreceptor has been exposed to light. neurotransmitters

62. There are two types of photoreceptor cell: _____, which respond to as little as a single rods; cones
photon of light, regardless of color, and _____, which are less sensitive but respond color.

63. How many type(s) or retinal exist? How many type(s) of opsin? one; four

64. There are three sub-types of "cones," each of which has its own type of _____ and opsin; color
responds to a different _____.

65. We integrate signals from the three types of cone in order to recognize _____. many different colors

66. The photopigment in rods is called _____; in bright light, it is present only as _____ and rhodopsin; retinal; opsin
_____.

67. (A) Photoreceptor cell releases neurotransmitter. (B) Photoreceptor cell opens sodium B-A-F-C-E-G-D
channels. (C) Opsin closes sodium channels. (D) Neurotransmitter molecules from bipolar Note: do not memorize the
cells binds to ganglion cells. (E) Photoreceptor cell stops releasing neurotransmitter. (F) letters, on a test the question
Light hits a photoreceptor cell and causes retinal and opsin to separate. (G) Bipolar cells would have the items shuffled.
start to release neurotransmitter molecules.
What is the correct order for the above events?
68. Cones are about _____ sensitive than rods. 100-fold less

69. The acuity of vision with rods is lower than of vision with cones because _____. several rods signal each
ganglion cell

70. High acuity vision is provided by _____. cones

71. The region of the eye which has the most cones (and thus has the highest acuity) and macula lutea; fovea centralis
has no rods at all consists of the _____ and _____.

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 Special Senses

72. The only region of the eye capable of high-acuity vision (such as that used to read fine macula lutea; fovea centralis
print) consists of the _____ and _____.

73. _____ is a problem in which the cornea is unevenly shaped, so that objects appear wavy. Astigmatism

74. _____ is nearsightedness: the eye is _____, resulting in a very close field of vision. Myopia; elongated

75. _____ is farsightedness: the eye is _____, and the lens cannot be _____ enough to focus Hyperopia; shortened; round
on near objects.

76. A cataract refers to _____. clouding of the lens

77. Two common agents that increase the risk of cataract are _____ and _____. smoking; ultraviolet light

78. If the flow of the aqueous humor out of the eye is partially blocked, the result is _____ an increase in the internal
called glaucoma, which will eventually damage the retina and cause _____. pressure of the eye; blindness

79. Color blindness is due to the genetic absence of one type of _____. cone

80. Color blindness is due to a defect on the _____ chromosome. X

81. When we first enter a dim area, we are unable to see because _____ and _____. all rhodopsin in rods is
photobleached; the cones are
not sensitive enough to detect
dim light
82. An immediate adaptation that helps us to see in a dim area is that the _____. pupil dilates

83. A slow but complete adaptation to a lack of light is made possible by synthesis of _____ rhodopsin
in rods.

84. Since retinal is made from _____, dark adaptation due to rhodopsin synthesis from retinal vitamin A
and opsin is sensitive to a dietary deficiency in this substance.

85. When exposed to light suddenly after the eyes have adjusted to dim light, the light seems rhodopsin; sodium channels
bright because all _____ in the rods photobleaches, as does much of the photopigment in
cones, resulting in complete closure of the _____ of the rods and a dramatic increase in
their closure in cones. This effect is decreased by adaptation.
86. At the optic chiasma, fibers from the _____ of each retinal field cross over to the opposite medial half
side.

87. The left hemisphere of the brain receives information from the _____.. right half of the visual field

88. Axons from retinal neurons meet to form the _____, and then travel to three areas, the optic nerve; thalamus;
_____, _____ and _____. midbrain; hypothalamus

89. Signals from fibers of the optic nerve which travel to the thalamus ultimately are conveyed optic cerebral cortex
to the _____.

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 Special Senses

90. Some fibers from the optic nerve travel to the midbrain, which controls _____ and _____. eye movement; pupil dilation

91. Some fibers from the optic nerve travel to the hypothalamus, which interprets _____ and time of day; circadian rhythm
sets _____.

92. The combination of inhibitory and excitatory processing in the retina results in signal edges
processing which emphasizes _____.

93. Depth perception is made possible by processing in the _____, which separates signals thalamus
from the two eyes before forwarding the signals to the visual cortex.

94. The _____ contains an exact map of the retina, so that a ganglion cell's action potential in visual cortex
the retina is matched by the excitation of a single neuron in this region.

95. The outer ear is composed of the visible portion of the ear, as well as the _____ and external auditory canal;
_____. eardrum (OR tympanic
membrane)
96. The _____ is the boundary between the outer and the middle ear. tympanic membrane (OR
eardrum)

97. The small, air-filled, mucosa-lined cavity medial to the eardrum is the _____. middle ear (OR tympanic
cavity)

98. The pharyngotympanic tube (aka Eustachian tube) connects the _____ to the _____. middle ear; nasal pharynx

99. The _____ allows air pressure in the middle ear to equalize with the external environment. pharyngotympanic tube OR
Eustachian tube

100. Sound is vibration of gas or liquid. Our ability detect it begins as vibrating air molecules eardrum (OR tympanic
push and pull on the _____. membrane)

101. The three small bones of the middle ear transmit vibratory motion from the eardrum to the oval window (OR perilymph,
_____. via the oval window)

102. Excessive motion of the three bones of the middle ear is prevented by the _____ muscle tensor tympani; stapidius
and _____ muscle.

103. The small bones of the middle ear are the _____, _____ and _____. malleus; incus; stapes

104. The inner ear is also called the _____. labyrinth

105. The part of the inner ear that is formed from the _____ bone is called the _____ labyrinth. temporal; bony

106. The soft tissue portion of the inner ear (which is filled with fluid) is called the _____ membranous
labyrinth.

107. The membranous labyrinth is surrounded by fluid called _____ and filled with _____. perilymph; endolymph

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 Special Senses

108. The vestibule is a compartment of the inner ear which is the major system involved in equilibrium (OR balance)
_____.

109. The semicircular canals are compartments of the inner ear which sense _____. rotation of the head

110. The cochlea is a snail shaped organ in the inner ear which is responsible for _____. hearing

111. The actual organ within the cochlea which is responsible for hearing is the _____. Organ of Corti

112. As vibrations in the ear cause the eardrum to vibrate, the eardrum pushes against the ossicles (OR malleus, incus,
_____. and stapes)

113. The three bones of the middle ear are collectively called the _____. ossicles

114. As the eardrum vibrates, the ossicles move, and their movement is converted to motion of perilymph
the _____.

115. The oval window is blocked by the _____, while the round window is closed by a flexible stapes
membrane.

116. Movement of fluid in the inner ear causes movement of the fibers of the _____, which are basilar membrane
much like the strings of an instrument.

117. Movement of the fibers of the basilar membrane causes movement of the _____ of hair stereocilia
cells, which in turn stimulate the cochlear (vestibulocochlear) nerve.

118. Electrically encoded impulses representing sound are conducted from the ear to the brain vestibulocochlear
by the _____ nerve.

119. Motion of the fluid in the inner ear causes the motion of _____ and the opening of _____ cilia; mechanically gated ion
in the hair cells of the Organ of Corti. channels

120. Ultimately, signals from the auditory pathway find their way to the _____. auditory cortex

121. Auditory pathways decussate so that both cortices _____. receive input from both ears

122. Action potential frequency of cochlear cells gives information as to the _____ of a sound, loudness; pitch
while the responses of particular fibers in various regions of the basilar membrane gives
information regarding _____.
123. We are able to localize sound by comparing the _____ each ear and the _____ each ear. time at which the sound was
received by; loudness of the
sound in
124. The _____ are receptors in the vestibule which respond to vertical and horizontal maculae
acceleration and gravity.

125. The vestibule contains two chambers: the _____, and slightly inferomedial to that, the utricle; saccule
_____.

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 Special Senses

126. The maculae contain hair cells whose processes are imbedded in _____ called otoliths, calcium carbonate stones
which are bound together by a jellylike mass.

127. The macula in the utricle is on the _____ surface: its hair cells are sensitive to _____. inferior; horizontal motion

128. The macula in the saccule is on the _____ surface: its hair cells are sensitive to _____. medial; vertical motion

129. The hair cells of the maculae respond to bending of their processes (which are called the direction in which they are
stereocilia and kinetocilia) by either opening or closing channel proteins, depending on bent
_____.
130. The swollen regions at the entrance to each semicircular canal are the _____, each of ampullae; crista ampullaris
which houses an equilibrium receptor called a(n) _____.

131. Each crista ampullaris has hair cells which extend into a soft ridge called the _____. cupula

132. As fluid flows through the semicircular canals in response to rotation of the head, the cupula; opene or close channel
_____ bends. This bends the hair cells, which then _____, depending on the direction in proteins
which they are bent.
133. In response to changes in their membrane potential caused by the opening or closing of release varying amounts of
channel proteins in their processes, hair cells in the inner ear _____, which activate neurotransmitter
associated nerve fibers.
134. Signaling from hair cells in the inner ear is moderate when the kinocilia are in the neutral the direction in which they are
position: signaling increases or decreases as stereocilia or kinetocilia bend, depending on bent
_____.
135. _____ is caused by impaired sound conduction to fluids of the inner ear. Conduction deafness

136. _____ is caused by damage to the neural structures of the ear at any point from the Sensorineural deafness
cochlear hair cells to the auditory cortical cells.

137. _____ is a ringing or clicking sound in the ears in the absence of auditory stimuli. It can Tinnitus
have many causes.

138. Equilibrium depends on integration of signals from the eyes, ears, and body. _____ Motion sickness
results if these signals do not agree with one another.

139. Ear development begins in the three week embryo, and diseases such as german the first trimester.
measles, if contracted by the mother during _____, can cause deafness in the child.

140. Vision does not reach maturity until the age of, approximately, _____ years. six

141. Age related damage to the _____ is called macular degeneration, and is a common macula lutea; peripheral
cause of late-life blindness. (Only _____ vision remains.)

142. The joints of the inner ear, like those throughout the body, are prone to inflammation and osteosclerosis
faulty remodeling with age, a process called _____: the result is conduction deafness.

143. Death of the hair cells in the Organ of Corti is common in old age, leading to _____. sensorineural deafness

106
 Endocrine System

1. _____ tend to be localized and immediate (microseconds to seconds): _____ tend to be Neural controls; hormonal
widespread, slow (minutes to hours) to be implemented, and slow (minutes to hours) to controls
deactivate.
2. Circulating hormones are released into _____ by an endocrine gland, and must travel to the blood
reach their (often distant) target.

3. _____ signals are similar to hormones in many ways, but act only on the very cells that Autocrine
release them!

4. _____ signals are similar to hormones in many ways, but act only on neighboring cells, Paracrine
not on distant targets.

5. _____ are biologically active lipids which act in an autocrine or paracrine manner. They Eicosanoids
are made from essential fatty acids and influence inflammation, ion transport, sleep, and
other activities.
6. _____ hormones are made from an amino acid by chemical modification, or made by Amino acid based
joining amino acids to form a peptide (very small protein).

7. Steroids, one of the two major hormone classes, are made from _____. cholesterol

8. Amino acid based hormones generally bind _____, but _____ is an important exception. at the cell’s surface; thyroid
hormone

9. _____ enter the cell and interact directly with DNA and nuclear factors to bring about Steroid hormones (OR steroids)
changes in gene expression.

10. In order for a cell to respond to a hormone, the cell must _____. have an appropriate receptor

11. The receptors for steroids and thyroid hormone are _____. intracellular

12. If the signal for an organ to release a hormone is _____, the signal is humoral. the level of a chemical in the
blood

13. If the signal for an organ to release a hormone is _____, the signal is neural. transmitted by the nervous
system

14. If the signal for an organ to release a hormone is _____, the signal is hormonal. a releasing hormone

15. Hormone production is usually limited by _____ feedback in which the target organ alters negative; chemical; hormone
the blood levels of a(n) _____, the _____, or a(n) _____. itself; secondary hormone

16. The pituitary gland is suspended from (and connected to) the _____ by the _____. hypothalamus; infundibulum

17. Hormones are transported from the hypothalamus to the pituitary via the _____. infundibulum

18. The pituitary is also called the _____: the anterior portion is the _____, and the posterior hypophysis; adenohypophysis;
portion is the _____. neurohypophysis

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 Endocrine System

19. Together, the _____ and _____ regulate the secretion of virtually every hormone in the hypothalamus; pituitary
body.

20. Growth hormone is secreted by the _____. adenohypophysis

21. Because growth hormone is the master growth regulator, too little results in dwarfism and proportional
too much results in giantism, but in both cases growth remains _____.

22. In adults, growth hormone serves to maintain _____. lean mass

23. Secretion of growth hormone is primarily regulated by _____ and _____, both of which growth hormone releasing
are released by the _____. hormone; growth hormone
inhibiting hormone;
hypothalamus

24. Normal development and activity of the thyroid gland is controlled by _____, a hormone thyrotropin (OR TSH OR
released by the _____. thyroid stimulating hormone);
adenohypophysis
25. Release of thyrotropin is caused by _____, a hormone whose own production is limited by thyrotropin releasing hormone;
_____ feedback and which is produced by the _____. negative; hypothalamus

26. Release of corticosteroids is regulated by the hormone _____, which is produced by the ACTH (OR adrenocorticotropic
_____. hormone, OR corticotropin);
adenohypophysis
27. The release of ACTH is controlled by the hormone _____, which is produced by the CRH (OR corticotropin
_____. releasing hormone);
hypothalamus
28. The gonadotropins _____ and _____ are produced during and after puberty: they LH (or luteinizing hormone);
regulate the function of the ovaries and testes, and control egg and sperm production. FSH (follicle stimulating
They are made by the _____. hormone); adenohypophysis
29. The release of LH and FSH is controlled by _____, which is produced by the _____. gonadotropin-releasing
hormone (GnRH);
hypothalamus
30. _____ stimulates milk production by the breasts, and is produced by the _____. PRL (or prolactin);
adenohypophysis

31. PRL release is stimulated by _____, which is produced by the _____ at the end of PRH (OR prolactin releasing
pregnancy and in response to a baby's suckling. hormone); hypothalamus

32. The two hormones released by the neurohypophysis are _____ and _____. Both, oxytocin; ADH (OR antidiuretic
however, are produced in the _____. hormone); hypothalamus

33. _____ is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions and controls the secretion (not the Oxytocin; neurohypophysis;
production) of milk in response to a baby's suckling. It is released from the _____ but hypothalamus
produced by the _____.
34. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promotes _____ by the _____. water retention; kidneys

35. The release of ADH is controlled by _____ in the _____. osmoreceptors; hypothalamus

36. The phrase 'thyroid hormone' refers actually to two hormones, _____ and _____. T3 (OR triiodothyronine); T4
(OR tetraiodothyronine)

108
 Endocrine System

37. T4 is also known as _____. thyroxine

38. The numbers in 'T3' and 'T4' refer to the number of _____ atoms bound to each molecule. iodine

39. _____ is produced in the hypothalamus: it stimulates the release of _____ from the TRH (thyrotropin releasing
adenohypophysis, which in turn stimulates the release of thyroid hormone from the hormone); thyrotropin (OR TSH
thyroid gland. OR thyroid stimulating
hormone)

40. _____ are target cells for thyroid hormone. Most cells in the body

41. Although they are not steroids, T3 and T4 bind to _____ and control _____. intracellular (OR nuclear)
receptors; gene activation

42. In response to T3 and T4, cells increase their _____, building more mitochondria and metabolic rate; heat
increasing ion flux across their membranes. As a result, energy is used to produce _____.

43. The third hormone produced by the thyroid is unlike the other two: it helps to regulate calcium; calcitonin
_____ metabolism, and is called _____.

44. Calcitonin stimulates _____ and inhibits _____, and as a result bone density is _____. osteoblasts; osteoclasts;
promoted (OR increased)

45. _____ cells in the thyroid gland produce _____, which is a large glycoprotein from which Follicle; thyroglobulin
T3 and T4 are made.

46. Follicle cells surround compartments (follicles) in which iodinated thyroglobulin is _____. stored

47. When T3 and T4 are needed, iodinated thyroglobulin _____. The vesicle combines with a re-enters the follicle cells via
lysosome, and iodinated thyroglobin is cut enzymatically to produce the mature hormone. pinocytosis

48. T3 and T4 are present in the blood _____. bound to carrier proteins

49. T3 and T4 levels are controlled by _____ feedback: they _____ production of TSH and negative; inhibit
sensitivity to TRH.

50. _____ cells in the _____ glands release _____, which is the hormone that is the primary Chief; parathyroid; PTH (OR
control of calcium metabolism in the body. parathyroid hormone)

51. PTH _____ calcium in the blood. increases

52. PTH _____ osteoclasts and enhances _____ by the kidneys. stimulates; reabsorption of
calcium phosphate

53. PTH release is inhibited by _____, an example of _____ regulation. calcium; humoral

54. Intestinal absorption of calcium is promoted by the hormone _____. PTH (or parathyroid hormone)

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 Endocrine System

55. The outer portion of the adrenal glands, the _____, is _____ tissue derived from adrenal cortex; glandular
embryonic mesoderm.

56. The inner part of the adrenal glands, the _____, is _____ tissue. adrenal medulla; nervous

57. The adrenal cortex synthesizes _____, which take their name from the location of their corticosteroids
synthesis.

58. There are two major classes of corticosteroid, the _____ and _____. mineralocorticoids;
glucocorticoids

59. _____ regulate the concentrations of ions in the blood, particularly sodium. In humans, Mineralocorticoids; aldosterone
_____ is the major example.

60. One class of corticosteroids, the _____, increases blood volume and pressure in mineralocorticoids
readiness for exertion.

61. Aldosterone is secreted in response to low blood levels of _____ or high blood levels of sodium; potassium
_____.

62. If sodium is being excreted by the body, _____ must be lost as well. water

63. Aldosterone is secreted in response to _____ blood volume caused by _____. low; water loss

64. _____ are released by the adrenal cortex in response to stress: they provide energy for Corticosteroids
'fight or flight' functions by diverting energy away from immunity and anabolism, and
increase blood volume and pressure in readiness for exertion.
65. One class of corticosteroids, the _____, provides energy for 'fight or flight' functions by glucocorticoids
diverting energy away from immunity and anabolism.

66. In humans, the principle glucocorticoid is _____. cortisol

67. _____, although defined as 'male' sex hormones, are present in both genders. In addition Androgens; adrenal cortex
to the gonads, the _____ also produces them in low amounts.

68. Androgens are necessary in _____ for the onset of puberty, the appearance of secondary both genders
sex characteristics, and sex drive.

69. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are also known as _____. catecholamines (OR
adrenaline and noradrenaline)

70. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the blood by the _____. adrenal medulla

71. The pancreas produces both exocrine and endocrine secretions. Acinar cells produce an digestion
enzyme-rich juice used for _____.

72. Clusters of cells in the pancreas called _____ produce two hormones, _____ and _____, pancreatic islets (OR Islets of
which regulate blood sugar levels. Langerhans); glucagon; insulin

110
 Endocrine System

73. In the pancreas, _____ cells produce insulin; _____ cells produce glucagon. beta; alpha

74. Glucagon is released in response to _____ or _____ in the blood, and its major target is low sugar levels; high amino
the _____. acid levels; liver

75. In response to glucagon, the liver increases _____ and _____, releasing sugar into the gluconeogenesis;
blood. glycogenolysis

76. Glycogenolysis is _____. the breakdown of glycogen to

glucose

77. Gluconeogenesis is_____. synthesis of glucose from

amino acids or from lactic acid
or lipids
78. Because of its role in increasing blood sugar levels, glucagon is also released in response sympathetic nervous system
to signals from the _____.

79. Insulin is made as a prohormone: a small piece of the prohormone called the _____ is C-peptide; the amount of
excised and floats free in the blood. Knowing its level allows estimation of _____ even in insulin produced by the body
diabetics whose insulin is high due to injection.
80. The major targets of insulin are _____, _____ and _____. muscle; fat; liver

81. Cells in _____ and _____ cannot remove sugar from the blood unless insulin is present. muscle; fat

82. Cells in the _____ produce sugar and 'ketone bodies' for the rest of the body to use as liver
fuel unless insulin is present.

83. Pancreatic cells produce insulin in response to _____ signals. humoral

84. The major symptom of diabetes is _____, which means, '_____.' hyperglycemia; high blood
sugar

85. Chronic _____ damages many organs and systems and can result in blindness, the need hyperglycemia
for amputation due to poor circulation, and other maladies.

86. There are two types of diabetes: in type I, the pancreas _____; in type II, the body's cells does not produce insulin;
are _____. unable to respond to insulin

87. In type I diabetes in particular, a dangerous complication is _____ due to the uncontrolled ketoacidosis
over-production of 'ketone bodies' by the liver. It can result in coma or death.

88. Ketoacidosis is _____ due to high 'ketone body' levels. acidification of the blood

89. The two major products of the ovaries are _____ and _____: however, they also produce estrogens; progesterone
small amounts of testosterone and other androgens.

90. In addition to their role in pregnancy, hormones produced by the _____ are responsible ovaries
for maturation of the reproductive organs, breast development, and the menstrual cycle.
(This question, of course, refers to females.)

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 Endocrine System

91. The major hormone produced by the testes is _____, although other androgens and even testosterone
estrogen are produced in small amounts.

92. In the male, _____ initiates maturation of male reproductive organs, causes appearance testosterone
of secondary sexual characteristics and sex drive, is necessary for sperm production, and
maintains sex organs in their functional state.
93. The heart produces _____, which reduces blood pressure, blood volume, and blood ANP (OR atrial natriuretic
sodium concentration. peptide)

94. Erythropoietin is produced by the _____, and acts to increase the body's production of kidney
red blood cells.

95. _____ releases several hormones involved in energy intake, macronutrient metabolism, Adipose tissue (OR Fat)
insulin sensitivity.

96. Cells within the digestive system release hormones which control _____. ingestion, digestion, and
excretion

112
 Appendix 1

Language Chemistry Cell Tissues The Bones and The Axial The Joints
of Anatomy Overview Overview Integumentary Skeletal Skeleton Appendicular
System Tissue Skeleton
1. LA1 1. ChO1 1. CeO1 1. T1 1. InS1 1. BST1 1. AxS1 1. ApS1 1. J1
2. LA2 2. ChO2 2. CeO2 2. T2 2. InS2 2. BST2 2. AxS2 2. ApS2 2. J2
3. LA3 3. ChO3 3. CeO3 3. T3 3. InS3a 3. BST3 3. AxS3 3. ApS3 3. J3
4. LA4 4. ChO4 4. CeO4 4. T4 4. InS4 4. BST4 4. AxS4 4. ApS4 4. J4
5. LA5 5. ChO5 5. CeO5 5. T5 5. InS5 5. BST5 5. AxS5 5. ApS5 5. J5
6. LA6 6. ChO6 6. CeO6 6. T6 6. InS6 6. BST6 6. AxS6 6. ApS6 6. J6
7. LA7 7. ChO7 7. CeO7 7. T7 7. InS7 7. BST7 7. AxS7 7. ApS7 7. J7
8. LA8 8. ChO8 8. CeO8 8. T8 8. InS8 8. BST8 8. AxS8 8. ApS8 8. J8
9. LA9 9. ChO9 9. CeO9 9. T9 9. InS9 9. BST9 9. AxS9 9. ApS9 9. J9
10. LA10 10. ChO10 10. CeO10 10. T10 10. InS10 10. BST10 10. AxS10 10. ApS10 10. J10
11. LA11 11. ChO11 11. CeO11 11. T11 11. InS11 11. BST11 11. AxS11 11. ApS11 11. J11
12. LA12 12. ChO12 12. CeO12 12. T12 12. InS12 12. BST12 12. AxS12 12. ApS12 12. J12
13. LA13 13. ChO13 13. CeO13 13. T13 13. InS13 13. BST13 13. AxS13 13. ApS13 13. J13
14. LA14 14. ChO14 14. CeO14 14. T14 14. InS14 14. BST14 14. AxS14 14. ApS14 14. J14
15. LA15 15. ChO15 15. CeO15 15. T15 15. InS15 15. BST15 15. AxS15 15. ApS15 15. J15
16. LA16 16. ChO16 16. CeO16 16. T16 16. InS16 16. BST16 16. AxS16 16. ApS16 16. J16
17. LA17 17. ChO17 17. CeO17 17. T17 17. InS17 17. BST17 17. AxS17 17. ApS17 17. J17
18. LA18 18. ChO18 18. CeO18 18. T18 18. InS18 18. BST18 18. AxS18 18. ApS18 18. J18
19. LA19 19. ChO19 19. CeO19 19. T19 19. InS19 19. BST19 19. AxS19 19. ApS19 19. J19
20. LA20 20. ChO20 20. CeO20 20. T20a 20. InS20 20. BST20 20. AxS20 20. ApS20 20. J20
21. LA21 21. ChO21 21. CeO21 21. T21 21. InS21 21. BST21 21. AxS21 21. ApS21 21. J21a
22. LA22 22. ChO22 22. CeO22 22. T22 22. InS22 22. BST22 22. AxS22 22. ApS22 22. J22
23. LA23 23. ChO23 23. CeO23 23. T23 23. InS23 23. BST23 23. AxS23 23. ApS23 23. J23
24. LA24 24. ChO24 24. CeO24 24. T24 24. InS24 24. BST24 24. AxS24 24. ApS24 24. J24
25. LA25 25. ChO25 25. CeO25 25. T25 25. InS25 25. BST25 25. AxS25 25. ApS25 25. J25
26. LA26 26. ChO26 26. CeO26 26. T26 26. InS26 26. BST26 26. AxS26 26. ApS26 26. J26
27. LA27 27. ChO27 27. CeO27 27. T27 27. InS27 27. BST27 27. AxS27 27. ApS27 27. J27
28. LA28 28. ChO28 28. CeO28 28. T28 28. InS28 28. BST28 28. AxS28 28. ApS28 28. J28
29. LA29 29. ChO29 29. CeO29 29. T29 29. InS29 29. BST29 29. AxS29 29. ApS29 29. J29
30. LA30 30. ChO30 30. CeO30 30. T30 30. InS30 30. BST30 30. AxS30 30. ApS30 30. J30
31. LA31 31. ChO31 31. CeO31 31. T31 31. InS31 31. BST31 31. AxS31 31. ApS31 31. J31
32. LA32 32. ChO32 32. CeO32 32. T32 32. InS32 32. BST32 32. AxS32 32. ApS32 32. J32
33. LA33 33. ChO33 33. CeO33 33. T33 33. InS33 33. BST33 33. AxS33 33. ApS33 33. J33
34. LA34 34. ChO34 34. CeO34 34. T34 34. InS34 34. BST34 34. AxS34 34. ApS34 34. J34
35. LA35 35. ChO35 35. CeO35 35. T35 35. InS35 35. BST35 35. AxS35 35. ApS35 35. J35
36. LA36 36. ChO36 36. CeO36 36. T36 36. InS36 36. BST36 36. AxS36 36. ApS36 36. J36
37. LA37 37. ChO37 37. CeO37 37. T37 37. InS37 37. BST37 37. AxS37 37. ApS37 37. J37
38. LA38 38. ChO38 38. CeO38 38. T38 38. InS38 38. BST38 38. AxS38 38. ApS38 38. J38
39. LA39 39. ChO39 39. CeO39 39. T39 39. InS39 39. BST39 39. AxS39 39. ApS39 39. J39
40. LA40 40. ChO40 40. CeO40 40. T40 40. InS40 40. BST40 40. AxS40 40. ApS40 40. J40
41. LA41 41. ChO41 41. CeO41 41. T41 41. InS41 41. BST41 41. AxS41 41. ApS41 41. J41
42. LA42 42. ChO42 42. CeO42 42. T42 42. InS42 42. BST42 42. AxS42 42. ApS42 42. J42
43. LA43 43. ChO43 43. CeO43 43. T43 43. InS43 43. BST43 43. AxS43 43. ApS43 43. J43a
44. LA44 44. ChO44 44. CeO44 44. T44 44. InS44 44. BST44 44. AxS44 44. ApS44 44. J44
45. LA45 45. ChO45 45. CeO45 45. T45 45. InS45 45. BST45 45. AxS45 45. ApS45 45. J45
46. LA46 46. ChO46 46. CeO46 46. T46 46. InS46 46. BST46 46. AxS46 46. ApS46 46. J46

A1-1
 Appendix 1

Language Chemistry Cell Tissues The Bones and The Axial The Joints
of Anatomy Overview Overview Integumentary Skeletal Skeleton Appendicular
System Tissue Skeleton
48. LA48 48. ChO48 48. CeO48 48. T48 48. InS48 48. BST48 48. AxS48 48. ApS48 48. J48
49. LA49 49. ChO49 49. CeO49 49. T49 49. InS49 49. BST49 49. AxS49 49. ApS49 49. J49
50. LA50 50. ChO50 50. CeO50 50. T50 50. InS50 50. BST50 50. AxS50 50. ApS50 50. J50
51. LA51 51. ChO51 51. CeO51 51. T51 51. InS51 51. BST51 51. AxS51 51. ApS51 51. J51
52. LA52 52. ChO52 52. CeO52 52. T52 52. InS52 52. BST52 52. AxS52 52. ApS52 52. J52
53. LA53 53. ChO53 53. CeO53 53. T53 53. InS53 53. BST53 53. AxS53 53. ApS53 53. J53
54. LA54 54. ChO54 54. CeO54 54. T54 54. InS54 54. BST54 54. AxS54 54. ApS54 54. J54
55. LA55 55. ChO55 55. CeO55 55. T55a 55. InS55 55. BST55 55. AxS55 55. ApS55 55. J55
56. LA56 56. ChO56 56. CeO56 56. T56 56. InS56 56. BST56 56. AxS56 56. ApS56 56. J56
57. LA57 57. ChO57 57. CeO57 57. T57 57. InS57 57. BST57 57. AxS57 57. ApS57 57. J57
58. LA58 58. ChO58 58. CeO58 58. T58 58. InS58 58. BST58 58. AxS58 58. ApS58 58. J58
59. LA59 59. ChO59 59. CeO59 59. T59 59. InS59 59. BST59 59. AxS59 59. ApS59 59. J59
60. LA60 60. ChO60 60. CeO60 60. T60 60. InS60 60. BST60 60. AxS60 60. ApS60 60. J60
61. LA61 61. ChO61 61. CeO61 61. T61 61. InS61 61. BST61 61. AxS61 61. ApS61 61. J61
62. LA62 62. ChO62 62. CeO62 62. T62 62. InS62a 62. BST62 62. AxS62a 62. ApS62 62. J62
63. LA63 63. ChO63 63. CeO63 63. T63 63. InS63 63. BST63 63. AxS63 63. ApS63 63. J63
64. LA64 64. ChO64 64. CeO64 64. T64 64. InS64 64. BST64 64. AxS64a 64. ApS64a 64. J64
65. LA65 65. ChO65 65. CeO65 65. T65 65. InS65 65. BST65 65. AxS65 65. ApS65 65. J65
66. LA66 66. ChO66 66. CeO66 66. T66 66. InS66 66. BST66 66. AxS66 66. ApS66 66. J66
67. LA67 67. ChO67 67. CeO67 67. T67 67. InS67 67. BST67 67. AxS67 67. ApS67 67. J67
68. LA68 68. ChO68 68. CeO68 68. T68 68. InS68 68. BST68 68. AxS68 68. ApS68 68. J69
69. LA69 69. ChO69 69. CeO69 69. T69 69. InS69 69. BST69 69. AxS69 69. ApS69 69. J70
70. LA70 70. ChO70 70. CeO70 70. T70 70. InS70 70. BST70 70. AxS70 70. ApS70 70. J71
71. LA71 71. ChO71 71. CeO71 71. T71 71. InS71 71. BST71 71. AxS71 71. ApS71 71. J72
72. LA72 72. ChO72 72. CeO72 72. T72 72. InS72 72. BST72a 72. AxS72 72. ApS72 72. J73
73. LA73 73. ChO73 73. CeO73 73. T73 73. InS73 73. BST73 73. AxS73 73. ApS73 73. J74
74. LA74 74. ChO74 74. CeO74 74. T74 74. InS74 74. BST74 74. AxS74 74. ApS74 74. J75
75. LA75 75. ChO75 75. CeO75 75. T75 75. InS75 75. BST75 75. AxS75 75. ApS75 75. J76
76. LA76 76. ChO76 76. CeO76 76. T80 76. InS76 76. BST76 76. AxS76 76. ApS76 76. J77
77. LA77 77. ChO77 77. CeO77 77. T81 77. InS77 77. BST77 77. AxS77 77. ApS77 77. J78
78. LA78 78. ChO78 78. CeO78 78. T82 78. InS78 78. BST78 78. AxS78 78. ApS78 78. J79
79. LA79 79. ChO79 79. CeO79 79. T83 79. InS79 79. BST79 79. AxS79 79. ApS79 79. J80
80. LA80 80. ChO80 80. CeO80 80. T84 80. BST80 80. AxS80 80. ApS80 80. J81
81. LA81 81. ChO81 81. CeO81 81. BST81 81. AxS81 81. ApS81 81. J82
82. LA82 82. ChO82 82. CeO82 82. BST82 82. AxS82 82. ApS82 82. J83
83. LA83 83. ChO83 83. CeO83 83. BST83 83. AxS83 83. ApS83a 83. J84
84. LA84 84. ChO84 84. CeO84 84. BST84 84. AxS84 84. ApS84 84. J85
85. LA85 85. ChO85 85. CeO85 85. BST85 85. AxS85 85. ApS85 85. J86
86. LA86 86. ChO86 86. CeO86 86. BST86 86. AxS86 86. ApS86 86. J86
87. LA87 87. ChO87 87. CeO87 87. BST87 87. AxS87 87. ApS87 87. J87
88. LA88 88. ChO88 88. CeO88 88. BST88 88. AxS88 88. ApS88 88. J88
89. LA89 89. ChO89 89. CeO89 89. BST89 89. AxS89 89. ApS89 89. J89
90. LA90 90. ChO90 90. CeO90 90. BST90 90. AxS90 90. ApS90 90. J90
91. LA91 91. ChO91 91. CeO91 91. BST91 91. AxS91 91. J91
92. LA92 92. CeO92 92. BST92 92. AxS92 92. J92
93. LA93 93. CeO93 93. BST93 93. AxS93 93. J93

A1-2
 Appendix 1

Language Chemistry Cell Tissues The Bones and The Axial The Joints
of Anatomy Overview Overview Integumentary Skeletal Skeleton Appendicular
System Tissue Skeleton
95. LA95 95. CeO95 95. BST95 95. AxS95 95. J95
96. LA96 96. CeO96 96. AxS96
97. LA97 97. CeO97 97. AxS97
98. LA98 98. CeO98 98. AxS98
99. LA99 99. CeO99 99. AxS99
100. LA100 100. CeO100 100. AxS100
101. LA101 101. AxS101
102. LA102 102. AxS102
103. LA103 103. AxS103
104. LA104 104. AxS104
105. LA105 105. AxS105
106. LA106 106. AxS106
107. LA107 107. AxS107
108. LA108 108. AxS108
109. LA109 109. AxS109
110. LA110 110. AxS110
111. LA111 111. AxS111
112. LA112 112. AxS112
113. LA113 113. AxS113
114. LA114 114. AxS114
115. LA115 115. AxS115
116. LA116 116. AxS116
117. LA117 117. AxS117
118. LA118 118. AxS118
119. LA119 119. AxS119a
120. LA120 120. AxS120
121. LA121 121. AxS121
122. LA122 122. AxS122
123. LA124
124. LA125
125. LA127
126. LA128
127. LA129
128. LA130
129. LA131
130. LA132
131. LA133
132. LA135
133. LA136
134. LA137
135. LA138
136. LA139
137. LA140
138. LA141
139. LA142
140. LA143

A1-3
 Appendix 1

Language Chemistry Cell Tissues The Bones and The Axial The Joints
of Anatomy Overview Overview Integumentary Skeletal Skeleton Appendicular
System Tissue Skeleton
142. LA145
143. LA146
144. LA147
145. LA148
146. LA149
147. LA150
148. LA151
149. LA152
150. LA153
151. LA154
152. LA155
153. LA156
154. LA157
155. LA158
156. LA159
157. LA160
158. LA161
159. LA162
160. LA163
161. LA164
162. LA165
163. LA166

A1-4
 Appendix 1

Muscle Muscles - Nervous The CNS The PNS The ANS Special Special
Tissue Prime Tissue Senses Senses
Movers
1. MT1 1. MPM1 1. NT1 1. CNS1 1. PNS1 1. ANS1 1. SS1 1. SS1
2. MT2 2. MPM2 2. NT2 2. CNS2 2. PNS2 2. ANS2 2. SS2 2. SS2
3. MT3 3. MPM3 3. NT3 3. CNS3a 3. PNS3 3. ANS3 3. SS3 3. SS3
4. MT4 4. MPM4 4. NT4 4. CNS4 4. PNS4 4. ANS4 4. SS4 4. SS4
5. MT5 5. MPM5 5. NT5 5. CNS5a 5. PNS5 5. ANS5 5. SS5 5. SS5
6. MT6 6. MPM6 6. NT6 6. CNS5b 6. PNS6 6. ANS6 6. SS6 6. SS6
7. MT7 7. MPM7 7. NT7 7. CNS6 7. PNS7 7. ANS7 7. SS7 7. SS7
8. MT8 8. MPM8 8. NT8 8. CNS7 8. PNS8 8. ANS8 8. SS8 8. SS8
9. MT9a 9. MPM9 9. NT9 9. CNS8 9. PNS9 9. ANS9 9. SS9 9. SS9
10. MT10 10. MPM10 10. NT10 10. CNS9 10. PNS10 10. ANS10 10. SS10 10. SS10
11. MT11 11. MPM11 11. NT11 11. CNS10 11. PNS11 11. ANS11a 11. SS11 11. SS11
12. MT12 12. MPM12 12. NT12 12. CNS11 12. PNS12 12. ANS12 12. SS12 12. SS12
13. MT13 13. MPM13 13. NT13 13. CNS12 13. PNS13 13. ANS13 13. SS13 13. SS13
14. MT14 14. MPM14 14. NT14 14. CNS13 14. PNS14 14. ANS14 14. SS14 14. SS14
15. MT15 15. MPM15 15. NT15 15. CNS14 15. PNS15 15. ANS15 15. SS15 15. SS15
16. MT16 16. MPM16 16. NT16 16. CNS15 16. PNS16 16. ANS16 16. SS16 16. SS16
17. MT17 17. MPM17 17. NT17 17. CNS16 17. PNS17 17. ANS17a 17. SS17 17. SS17
18. MT18 18. MPM18 18. NT18 18. CNS17 18. PNS18 18. ANS18 18. SS18 18. SS18
19. MT19 19. MPM19 19. NT19 19. CNS18a 19. PNS19 19. ANS19 19. SS19 19. SS19
20. MT20 20. MPM20 20. NT20 20. CNS18b 20. PNS20 20. ANS20 20. SS19b 20. SS19b
21. MT21 21. MPM21 21. NT21 21. CNS18c 21. PNS21 21. ANS20a 21. SS20 21. SS20
22. MT22 22. MPM22 22. NT22 22. CNS18d 22. PNS22 22. ANS21 22. SS21 22. SS21
23. MT23 23. MPM23 23. NT23 23. CNS19 23. PNS23 23. ANS22 23. SS22 23. SS22
24. MT24 24. MPM24 24. NT24 24. CNS20 24. PNS24 24. ANS23 24. SS23 24. SS23
25. MT25 25. MPM25 25. NT25 25. CNS20a 25. PNS25 25. ANS24a 25. SS24 25. SS24
26. MT26 26. MPM26 26. NT26 26. CNS21a 26. PNS26 26. ANS25a 26. SS25 26. SS25
27. MT27 27. MPM27 27. NT27 27. CNS22 27. PNS27 27. ANS25b 27. SS26 27. SS26
28. MT28 28. MPM28 28. NT28 28. CNS23a 28. PNS28 28. ANS26a 28. SS27 28. SS27
29. MT29 29. MPM29 29. NT29 29. CNS24 29. PNS29 29. ANS27a 29. SS28 29. SS28
30. MT30 30. MPM30 30. NT30 30. CNS25 30. PNS30 30. ANS28 30. SS29 30. SS29
31. MT31 31. MPM31 31. NT31 31. CNS26 31. PNS31 31. ANS29 31. SS30 31. SS30
32. MT32 32. MPM32 32. NT32 32. CNS27 32. PNS32 32. ANS30 32. SS31 32. SS31
33. MT33 33. MPM33 33. NT33 33. CNS28a 33. PNS33 33. ANS31 33. SS32 33. SS32
34. MT34 34. MPM34 34. NT34 34. CNS29 34. PNS34 34. ANS32 34. SS33 34. SS33
35. MT35 35. MPM35 35. NT35 35. CNS30 35. PNS35 35. ANS33 35. SS34 35. SS34
36. MT36 36. MPM36 36. NT36 36. CNS31 36. PNS36 36. ANS34 36. SS35a 36. SS35a
37. MT37 37. MPM37 37. NT37 37. CNS32 37. PNS37 37. ANS35 37. SS36a 37. SS36a
38. MT38a* 38. MPM38 38. NT38 38. CNS33 38. PNS38 38. ANS36 38. SS37a 38. SS37a
39. MT39 39. MPM39 39. NT39 39. CNS33a 39. PNS39 39. ANS37 39. SS38a 39. SS38a
40. MT40 40. MPM40 40. NT40 40. CNS34 40. PNS40 40. ANS38 40. SS39a 40. SS39a
41. MT41 41. MPM41 41. NT41 41. CNS35 41. PNS41a 41. ANS39 41. SS39b 41. SS39b
42. MT42 42. MPM42 42. NT42 42. CNS36 42. PNS42 42. ANS40 42. SS40 42. SS40
43. MT43 43. MPM43 43. NT43 43. CNS37 43. PNS43 43. ANS41 43. SS41 43. SS41
44. MT44 44. MPM44 44. NT44 44. CNS38 44. PNS44 44. ANS42 44. SS42 44. SS42
45. MT45 45. MPM45 45. NT45 45. CNS39 45. PNS45 45. ANS43 45. SS43 45. SS43
46. MT46 46. MPM46 46. NT46 46. CNS40 46. PNS46 46. ANS44 46. SS44 46. SS44

A1-5
 Appendix 1

Muscle Muscles - Nervous The CNS The PNS The ANS Special Special
Tissue Prime Tissue Senses Senses
Movers
48. MT48a 48. MPM48 48. NT48 48. CNS42 48. PNS48 48. ANS46 48. SS46 48. SS46
49. MT48b 49. MPM49 49. NT49 49. CNS43 49. PNS49 49. ANS47 49. SS47 49. SS47
50. MT49 50. MPM50 50. NT50 50. CNS44 50. PNS50 50. ANS48 50. SS48 50. SS48
51. MT50 51. MPM51 51. NT51 51. CNS45 51. PNS51 51. ANS49 51. SS49 51. SS49
52. MT51 52. MPM52 52. NT52 52. CNS46 52. PNS52 52. ANS50 52. SS50 52. SS50
53. MT52 53. MPM53 53. NT53 53. CNS47 53. PNS53 53. ANS51 53. SS51 53. SS51
54. MT53 54. MPM54 54. NT54 54. CNS48 54. PNS54 54. ANS52 54. SS52 54. SS52
55. MT54 55. MPM55 55. NT55 55. CNS49 55. PNS55 55. ANS53 55. SS53 55. SS53
56. MT55 56. MPM56 56. NT56 56. CNS50 56. PNS56 56. ANS53a 56. SS54 56. SS54
57. MT56 57. MPM57 57. NT57 57. CNS51 57. PNS57 57. ANS53b 57. SS55a 57. SS55a
58. MT57 58. MPM58 58. NT58 58. CNS52 58. PNS58 58. ANS54 58. SS55b 58. SS55b
59. MT58 59. MPM59a 59. NT59 59. CNS53 59. PNS59 59. ANS55 59. SS56 59. SS56
60. MT59 60. MPM60 60. NT60 60. CNS54 60. PNS60 60. ANS56 60. SS57 60. SS57
61. MT60 61. MPM61 61. NT61 61. CNS55 61. PNS61 61. ANS57 61. SS58 61. SS58
62. MT61 62. MPM62 62. NT62 62. CNS56 62. PNS62 62. ANS58 62. SS59a 62. SS59a
63. MT62a 63. MPM63 63. NT63 63. CNS57 63. PNS63 63. ANS59a 63. SS59b 63. SS59b
64. MT63 64. MPM64 64. NT64 64. CNS58 64. PNS64 64. ANS61 64. SS59c 64. SS59c
65. MT64 65. MPM65 65. NT65 65. CNS59 65. PNS65 65. ANS62 65. SS59d 65. SS59d
66. MT65 66. MPM66 66. NT66 66. CNS59a 66. PNS66 66. SS60 66. SS60
67. MT66 67. MPM67 67. NT67 67. CNS60a 67. PNS67 67. SS61a 67. SS61a
68. MT67 68. MPM68 68. NT68 68. CNS60b 68. PNS68 68. SS62 68. SS62
69. MT68 69. MPM69 69. NT69 69. CNS61 69. PNS69 69. SS63a 69. SS63a
70. MT69 70. MPM70 70. NT70 70. CNS62 70. PNS70 70. SS64 70. SS64
71. MT70a 71. MPM71 71. NT71 71. CNS63 71. PNS71 71. SS65 71. SS65
72. MT71 72. MPM72 72. NT72a 72. CNS64 72. PNS72 72. SS66 72. SS66
73. MT72 73. MPM73 73. NT73 73. CNS65 73. PNS73 73. SS67 73. SS67
74. MT73 74. MPM74 74. NT74 74. CNS66 74. PNS74 74. SS68 74. SS68
75. MT74 75. MPM75a 75. NT75 75. CNS67 75. PNS75 75. SS69 75. SS69
76. MT75 76. MPM76 76. NT76 76. CNS68 76. PNS76 76. SS70 76. SS70
77. MT76 77. MPM77 77. NT77 77. CNS69 77. PNS77 77. SS71 77. SS71
78. MT77 78. MPM78 78. NT78 78. CNS70 78. PNS78 78. SS72 78. SS72
79. MT78 79. MPM79 79. NT79 79. CNS71 79. PNS79 79. SS73 79. SS73
80. MT79 80. MPM80 80. NT80 80. CNS72 80. PNS86 80. SS74 80. SS74
81. MT80 81. MPM81 81. NT81 81. CNS73 81. PNS87 81. SS75 81. SS75
82. MT81 82. MPM82 82. NT82 82. CNS74 82. PNS88 82. SS76 82. SS76
83. MT82 83. MPM83 83. NT83 83. CNS75 83. PNS89 83. SS77 83. SS77
84. MT83 84. MPM84 84. NT84 84. CNS76a 84. PNS90a 84. SS78 84. SS78
85. MT84 85. MPM85 85. NT85a 85. CNS77 85. PNS91 85. SS79 85. SS79
86. MT85 86. MPM86 86. NT86 86. CNS78 86. PNS92 86. SS80 86. SS80
87. MT86 87. MPM87 87. NT87 87. CNS79 87. PNS93 87. SS81 87. SS81
88. MT87 88. MPM88 88. NT88 88. CNS80 88. SS82a 88. SS82a
89. MT88 89. MPM89 89. NT89 89. CNS81 89. SS83 89. SS83
90. MT89 90. MPM90 90. NT90 90. CNS82 90. SS84 90. SS84
91. MT90 91. MPM91 91. NT91 91. CNS83a 91. SS85 91. SS85
92. MT91 92. MPM92 92. NT92 92. CNS84a 92. SS86 92. SS86
93. MT92 93. MPM93 93. NT93 93. CNS85 93. SS87 93. SS87

A1-6
 Appendix 1

Muscle Muscles - Nervous The CNS The PNS The ANS Special Special
Tissue Prime Tissue Senses Senses
Movers
95. MT94 95. MPM95 95. NT95 95. CNS87 95. SS89 95. SS89
96. MT95 96. MPM96 96. NT96 96. CNS88 96. SS90 96. SS90
97. MT96 97. MPM97 97. NT97 97. CNS89a 97. SS91 97. SS91
98. MT97 98. MPM98 98. NT98 98. CNS90 98. SS92a 98. SS92a
99. MT98 99. MPM99 99. NT99 99. CNS91 99. SS93a 99. SS93a
100. MT99 100. MPM100 100. NT100 100. CNS92 100. SS93b 100. SS93b
101. MT100 101. MPM101 101. NT101 101. CNS93 101. SS94a 101. SS94a
102. MT101 102. MPM102 102. NT102 102. CNS94 102. SS95a 102. SS95a
103. MT102 103. MPM103 103. NT103 103. CNS95 103. SS96a 103. SS96a
104. MT103 104. MPM104 104. NT104 104. CNS96 104. SS97 104. SS97
105. MT104 105. MPM105 105. NT105 105. CNS97 105. SS98 105. SS98
106. MT105 106. MPM106 106. NT106 106. CNS98 106. SS99 106. SS99
107. MT106 107. MPM107 107. NT107 107. CNS99 107. SS100 107. SS100
108. MT107 108. MPM108 108. NT108 108. CNS100 108. SS101 108. SS101
109. MT108 109. MPM109 109. NT109 109. CNS101 109. SS102 109. SS102
110. MT109 110. MPM110 110. NT110 110. CNS102 110. SS103 110. SS103
111. MT110 111. MPM111 111. NT111 111. CNS103 111. SS104 111. SS104
112. MT111 112. MPM112 112. NT112 112. CNS104 112. SS105 112. SS105
113. MT112 113. MPM113 113. NT113 113. CNS105 113. SS106 113. SS106
114. MT113 114. MPM114 114. NT114 114. CNS106 114. SS107 114. SS107
115. MT114 115. MPM115 115. NT115 115. CNS107 115. SS108 115. SS108
116. MT115 116. MPM116 116. NT116 116. CNS108 116. SS109 116. SS109
117. MT116 117. NT117 117. CNS109 117. SS110 117. SS110
118. MT117 118. NT118 118. CNS110 118. SS111 118. SS111
119. MT118 119. NT119 119. CNS111 119. SS112 119. SS112
120. MT119 120. NT120 120. CNS112 120. SS114 120. SS114
121. MT120 121. NT125 121. CNS113 121. SS115 121. SS115
122. MT121 122. NT126 122. CNS114a 122. SS116 122. SS116
123. MT122 123. NT127 123. CNS115 123. SS117 123. SS117
124. MT123 124. CNS116 124. SS118 124. SS118
125. MT124 125. CNS117 125. SS119 125. SS119
126. MT125 126. CNS118 126. SS120 126. SS120
127. MT126 127. CNS119 127. SS122 127. SS122
128. MT127 128. CNS120 128. SS123a 128. SS123a
129. MT128 129. CNS121 129. SS124 129. SS124
130. MT129 130. CNS122 130. SS125 130. SS125
131. MT130 131. CNS123a 131. SS126 131. SS126
132. MT131 132. CNS124 132. SS127 132. SS127
133. MT132 133. CNS124a 133. SS128a 133. SS128a
134. MT133 134. CNS125 134. SS128b 134. SS128b
135. MT134 135. CNS126a 135. SS129 135. SS129
136. MT135 136. CNS127 136. SS130 136. SS130
137. MT136 137. CNS128 137. SS131 137. SS131
138. CNS129 138. SS133a 138. SS133a
139. CNS130 139. SS133b 139. SS133b
140. CNS130a 140. SS134 140. SS134

A1-7
 Appendix 1

Muscle Muscles - Nervous The CNS The PNS The ANS Special Special
Tissue Prime Tissue Senses Senses
Movers
142. CNS130c 142. SS136 142. SS136
143. CNS131 143. SS137 143. SS137
144. CNS132a
145. CNS132b
146. CNS133
147. CNS133a
148. CNS134
149. CNS135
150. CNS136
151. CNS137
152. CNS138
153. CNS139a
154. CNS140
155. CNS141
156. CNS142
157. CNS143
158. CNS144
159. CNS145
160. CNS146
161. CNS147
162. CNS148

A1-8
 Appendix 2

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A2-1

http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/us/legalcode 12/12/2008 9:16 AM

 Appendix 2

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that changes were made to the original Work. For example, a translation could be marked "The
original work was translated from English to Spanish," or a modification could indicate "The original
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e. For the avoidance of doubt, where the Work is a musical composition:

i. Performance Royalties Under Blanket Licenses. Licensor waives the exclusive right to
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The above rights may be exercised in all media and formats whether now known or hereafter devised. The
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a. You may distribute, publicly display, publicly perform, or publicly digitally perform the Work only
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Collective Work apart from the Work itself to be made subject to the terms of this License. If You
create a Collective Work, upon notice from any Licensor You must, to the extent practicable,
remove from the Collective Work any credit as required by Section 4(c), as requested. If You
create a Derivative Work, upon notice from any Licensor You must, to the extent practicable,
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b. You may distribute, publicly display, publicly perform, or publicly digitally perform a Derivative Work
only under: (i) the terms of this License; (ii) a later version of this License with the same License
Elements as this License; (iii) either the Creative Commons (Unported) license or a Creative
Commons jurisdiction license (either this or a later license version) that contains the same License
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Compatible License. If you license the Derivative Work under one of the licenses mentioned in (iv),
you must comply with the terms of that license. If you license the Derivative Work under the terms
of any of the licenses mentioned in (i), (ii) or (iii) (the "Applicable License"), you must comply with
the terms of the Applicable License generally and with the following provisions: (I) You must include
a copy of, or the Uniform Resource Identifier for, the Applicable License with every copy or
phonorecord of each Derivative Work You distribute, publicly display, publicly perform, or publicly

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 Appendix 2

digitally perform; (II) You may not offer or impose any terms on the Derivative Works that restrict
the terms of the Applicable License or the ability of a recipient of the Work to exercise the rights
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License will continue in full force and effect unless terminated as stated above.

8. Miscellaneous

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 Appendix 2

a. Each time You distribute or publicly digitally perform the Work (as defined in Section 1 above) or a
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