Date: 17/11/2019 Test Booklet Code

K-10
KARNATAKA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Questions & Answers

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only. There is no negative marking.

2. Part I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions

Part II : SAT : 1 - 100 questions

3. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.

4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR SHEET with
blue/black ballpoint pen.

Example:

Q. No. Alternatives
Correct way : 1 1 2 1 4
Q. No. Alternatives
Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.

5. Students are not allowed to scratch / alter / change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using white
fluid / eraser / blade / tearing / wearing or in any other form.

6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

7. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.

8. Darken completely the ovals of your answer on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular paper.

9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries may render
your OMR Sheet invalid.

10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. If the word FRUIT is coded as 58281, then the 5 5 8

word GRAPES is coded as: 7.

16 5 2 10 3 3 17 ? 5
(1) 608604 (2) 680460
3 2 6
(3) 680640 (4) 686040
(1) 6 (2) 5
Answer (3) (3) 4 (4) 3
2. If the word GARDEN is coded as 49, then the Answer (3)
word FLOWER can be coded as:
Directions: (Questions: 8-10)
(1) 40 (2) 59
Complete the given figure analogy by choosing the
(3) 79 (4) 99 correct answer from the given alternatives.
Answer (3) 8.
3. If the word HOCKEY is coded as NGJBXD, then
the word TENNIS is coded as:
: :: ? :
(1) DSMMRH (2) DSMRHM
(3) DSRMHM (4) DRSMMH
(1) (2)
Answer (1)
4. In some code language if the word
FRAGRANCE can be coded as SBHSBODFG,
then the word IMPOSING can be coded as: (3) (4)
(1) NQPTJHOJ (2) NQPTJOHI
(3) NQPTJOHJ (4) NQTPJOHJ Answer (4)
Answer (3)

?
9.
Directions: (Questions: 5-7) : :: :
In the questions given below the numbers in the
figures are related. Identify their relationship and find
the missing numbers in the given figures. (1) (2)
15 18 27
5.
18 17 3 30 15 6 36 ? 9
(3) (4)
4 8 12

(1) 21 (2) 19
Answer (3)
(3) 18 (4) 16
Answer (2)
48 50 72
10.
: :: : ?
6. 72 13 23 40 15 35 89 ? 63 (1) (2)

26 100 65
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) (4)
(3) 23 (4) 27
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

Directions: (Questions: 11-15) 16. Which number represents those who drink
The following questions are based on figures given coffee, tea and milk?
below. Each circle represents one item. Match the (1) 3 (2) 9
figure with items in the question on the basis of their
(3) 4 (4) 6
relationship:
Answer (4)
17. Which number represents those who drink only
tea and not coffee?
A B C D E
(1) 9 (2) 8
11. Females, Mothers, Teachers.
(3) 5 (4) 7
(1) A (2) C
(3) D (4) E Answer (2)

Answer (4) 18. If the product of 1K and K1 is K2K, then the

12. Table, Chair, Furnitures. letter K stands for the digit:

(1) A (2) B (1) 9 (2) 4

(3) C (4) D (3) 3 (4) 1
Answer (1) Answer (4)
13. Men, Women, Players. 19. The digit represented by L, E and T in the
(1) C (2) B following addition is:
(3) A (4) E LEM
Answer (2) +ME LT
9999
14. Days, Months, Years.
(1) A (2) D (1) 4, 5, 0 (2) 9, 4, 0
(3) C (4) E (3) 4, 0, 5 (4) 5, 0, 4
Answer (3) Answer (1)
15. Piano, Potato, Axe. 20. The product of A8 and 3B is 2730, then the
(1) B (2) A letters A and B stands for the digits:
(3) C (4) D (1) 8, 3 (2) 7, 5
Answer (4) (3) 5, 7 (4) 6, 5
Directions: (Questions: 16-17) Answer (2)
In the following figure triangle represents those who
Directions: (Questions: 21-23)
drink coffee, circle represents those who drink tea,
square represents those who drink milk and rectangle Following 3 questions have a certain pattern. Each
represents those who drink fruit juice. Based on the box has a single letter/digit. The letter/digit that
figure answer the following questions: comes in each box is in the order of:
21. m n l m l llmn l nll
Drink
coffee (1) l, n, l, m (2) m, n, m, m
7
Drink (3) n, m, l, m (4) n, n, l, m
tea 8 9
2 Answer (1)
6 3
22. a bbc aab cca bb c
4
Drink Drink (1) b, a, c, b, c (2) a, c, b, a, c
milk fruit juice
1 (3) a, c, b, b, c (4) a, b, c, a, b
5 Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

23. 13 2 5 637 2 Directions: (Questions: 27-29)

(1) 4, 3, 3, 9 (2) 9, 2, 7, 3 Identify the number of specified Geometric shapes in
the given diagrams and mark the correct answer.
(3) 2, 7, 3, 9 (4) 3, 9, 7, 2
27. How many number of triangles and
Answer (1) parallelograms are there in the given figure
respectively?
24. When the given figure is folded as a cube, which
one of the formation is possible?

F
A E
B
C D

F F (1) 22, 17 (2) 19, 13

(1) E (2) D
B E (3) 22, 15 (4) 19, 17
Answer (1)
E D
(3) (4) 28. How many semicircles are there in the given
B C E A figure?
Answer (2)
25. The different faces of a cube are shown through
three folded cubes. Among the alternatives,
identify the unfolded cube which represents (1) 8 (2) 10
these faces: (3) 12 (4) 14
C E E Answer (2)
B C A 29. How many trapeziums are there in the given
A D F
figure?
I II III

A D
(1) B C D E (2) A B C E
F F
F
C A E
(3) AB D E (4) (1) 20 (2) 22
B
F C D (3) 24 (4) 26
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Directions: (Questions: 30-33)
26. Name the letter on the face which is opposite to Read the instructions and answer the following
the face that has letter ‘F’ on it: questions.
 There are five people P, Q, R, S and T.
C E E
B C A  Among them one plays football, one plays
A D F
chess and one plays hockey.
I II III
 P and S are spinsters and not participating in
(1) B any games.
(2) A  No women play chess or football.
 In the group there is one pair of married
(3) E
couple and T is the husband.
(4) C  Q is the brother of R and does not play chess
Answer (4) and hockey.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

30. Who is the football player? 34. Which set of numbers will represent the word
(1) P (2) Q DUST?
(3) R (4) S (1) 00, 76, 86, 59
Answer (2) (2) 31, 76, 98, 78
31. Who is the hockey player? (3) 24, 69, 55, 66
(1) P (2) Q
(4) 12, 57, 67, 58
(3) S (4) R
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
35. Which set of numbers will represent the word
32. Who is the chess player?
PUMP?
(1) P (2) R
(1) 03, 69, 03, 34
(3) T (4) S
Answer (3) (2) 41, 88, 23, 43

33. In the group who are the women? (3) 10, 57, 23, 34
(1) P, Q, R (2) Q, R, S (4) 22, 95, 43, 41
(3) P, Q, S (4) P, R, S Answer (3)
Answer (4) Directions: (Questions: 36-37)
Directions: (Questions: 34-35)
Given below are 2 matrices containing letters. The
Given below are 2 matrices containing letters. The rows and columns are numbered 0 to 4 in Matrix I
rows and columns are numbered 0 to 4 in Matrix I
and 5 to 9 in Matrix II. Each letter from these matrices
and 5 to 9 in Matrix II. Each letter from these matrices
are represented first by its row number and the next
are represented first by its row number and the next
by its column number.
by its column number.
Example: Letter “S” is represented as any of the Example: Letter “T” is represented as any of the
following: 57, 67, 79, 86, 98. following: 59, 65, 76, 87, 98.

Matrix I Matrix I

0 1 2 3 4 0 1 2 3 4

0 D V C P M 0 A R S N C

1 P M D V C 1 N C A R S

2 V C P M D 2 S N C A R

3 M D V C P 3 R S N C A

4 C P M D V 4 C A R S N

Matrix II Matrix II

5 6 7 8 9 5 6 7 8 9

5 S A U T J 5 O E L P T

6 T J S A U 6 T O E L P

7 A U T J S 7 P T O E L

8 J S A U T 8 L P T O E

9 U T J S A 9 E L P T O

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

36. Which word will represent the set of numbers:

40.
86, 12, 31, 76?
(1) PAST (2) PATE
?
(3) POTE (4) PSAT
Answer (1)
37. Which word will represent the following set of
numbers: 21, 67, 14, 59?
(1) PAST (2) RATE
(3) POET (4) NEST
(1) (2)
Answer (4)
Directions: (Questions: 38-40)
Find the missing part of the given figure from the
alternatives. (3) (4)

38.
? Answer (2)
Directions: (Questions: 41-43)
Identify the wrong number/group of letters in the
series:

41. 28, 77, 14, 24, 6, 7, 3

(1) (2) (1) 6

(2) 7
(3) 14
(4) 24
(3) (4)
Answer (3)

42. 2, 34, 84, 68, 26, 12

Answer (1)
(1) 26
39.
? (2) 34
(3) 68
(4) 84
Answer (1)
43. URCNS, VPFJX, TSBOR, WOGIY, STAQP :
(1) WOGIY
(1) (2)
(2) TSBOR
(3) VPFJX
(3) (4)
(4) STAQP

Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

Directions: (Questions: 44-46) 47. Find the population of the city ‘D’ if the
The following questions are based on the numbers population of the illiterates in city ‘E’ is 3360:
and letters arranged in the pyramid pattern. Study the (1) 42,000 (2) 48,000
pattern and complete the given analogy: (3) 60,000 (4) 78,000
Answer (2)
a
48. If city ‘B’ has 540 more illiterates than that of city
1 2 3 ‘E’, what is the ratio of literates to illiterates of
city B?
b c d e f
(1) 26 : 5 (2) 56 : 9
4 5 6 7 8 9 10 (3) 19 : 1 (4) 13 : 7
I H G F E D C B A Answer (3)
49. What is the total percentage of illiterates of the
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
cities A, B, C, D, E?
J K L M N O P Q R S T U V (1) 2.8% (2) 5.06%
22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 (3) 28% (4) 72%
Answer (3)
44. Mb1 : Nc2 : : Sf3 : ?
50. Two persons ‘A’ and ‘B’ are standing on the
(1) Qd1 (2) Od3 circumference of a circular park with centre ‘O’
(3) Re2 (4) Qe2 and radius 14m, facing each other, as shown in
Answer (3) the figure. ‘B’ walks 22 m in anti-clockwise
direction and ‘A’ walks 11 m in the clockwise
45. 26 P 19 : 32 P 13 : : 24 N 17 : ? direction along the circumference. ‘B’ turns 90°
(1) 34 R 15 (2) 30 N 17 to his left and walks 14 m. What is the direction
of ‘A’ with respect to ‘B’?
(3) 29 S 16 (4) 28 L 15
Answer (1)
46. GN17 : CR 15 : : ? :eD5 A B
O
(1) f C 6 (2) c F 9
(3) c F 4 (4) b G 8
(1) North West (2) North East
Answer (2)
(3) South West (4) South East
Directions: (Questions: 47-49)
Answer (1)
Study the following pie-chart and the table and
answer the questions based on them: 51. A person travels 10m towards east from ‘P’, then
Total Population turns right to travel 6 m.again turns right to travel
18m to reach ‘Q’. What is the distance between
A ‘P’ and ‘Q’?
B
24%
26% (1) 10m (2) 12m
C E (3) 17m (4) 34m
20% D 14%
16% Answer (1)
52. What was the day of the week on 16th July
City % of Illiterates
1776?
A 1 (1) Monday
B 5 (2) Tuesday
C 4 (3) Wednesday
D 10 (4) Thursday
E 8 Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

53. On what date of March 2005 did second 60. If the first ten letters and last ten letters of the
Saturday appear? English alphabet are written in the reverse order
(1) 8 (2) 10 in the series from A to Z, then how many
(3) 11 (4) 12 consonants will be there between the letters D
and T?
Answer (4)
(1) 11 (2) 12
54. First day of the year 2019 is Tuesday. Which day
would the last date of the year 2020 be? (3) 13 (4) 14
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday Answer (2)
(3) Thursday (4) Friday 61. The missing number in the given sequence is:
Answer (3) 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, __________, 15
55. In how many of the three digit numerals 8 (1) 12 (2) 16
appears only once? (3) 10 (4) 17
(1) 920 (2) 702
Answer (2)
(3) 353 (4) 225
2 4 5
Answer (2) 62. The next number in the sequence , 1, ,
3 3 3 9
56. In a class there are 40% girls and 75% of them
is:
passed in the exams. If the class result is 80%,
find the fraction of the boys who passed the 2 3
(1) (2)
exam: 3 3 3
(1) 2/3 (2) 3/4 2 4
(3) 4/5 (4) 5/6 (3) (4)
3 3 3
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
57. A merchant bought 5 pens each at ` 8 and some
more pens at ` 6 each. He sold all the pens at 63. The next number in the sequence 2, 6, 12, 20,
` 7 each and earns a total profit of ` 10. 30, 42 is:
How many pens were bought by the merchant at (1) 86 (2) 42
` 6? (3) 56 (4) 66
(1) 10 (2) 15
Answer (3)
(3) 20 (4) 25
1 1 1 1
Answer (2) 64. The next number in the sequence
81 54 36 24
58. The ratio of the ages of father and daughter is is:
4 : 1. Ten years ago the sum of their ages was
1 1
40. What is the present age of the daughter? (1) (2)
32 9
(1) 20 years (2) 15 years
1 1
(3) 18 years (4) 12 years (3) (4)
18 16
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
59. Answer the following question based on the
sequence of numbers / letters given below : Directions: (Questions: 65-68)
538197426842791234721365163921347 Complete the given letter/word analogy by choosing
the correct answer from the four alternates given
If the sum of any two consecutive numbers is the
below:
very next number, how many times such
numbers occur in given sequence? 65. ACEG : DFHJ : : QSUW : ?
(1) 8 (2) 11 (1) KMNP (2) MNPR
(3) 13 (4) 15 (3) TQST (4) TVXZ
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

66. FLO : MOC : : RDP : ? 74. What is the angle between the hands of a clock
(1) MGP (2) NGO at 15 minutes past 5?
o o
(3) GMP (4) MPG 1 1
(1) 72 (2) 67
Answer (2) 2 2
o o
2 30 222 1 1
67. : :: ? : (3) 58 (4) 64
3 6 30 2 2
5 4 Answer (2)
(1) (2)
4 5 75. At what time between 4 and 5 will the hands of a
clock are mutually in opposite directions?
5 6
(3) (4) 8
6 5 (1) 54 minutes past 4
9
Answer (4)
6
68. 337, 211, 121, ? , 25, 7 (2) 54 minutes past 4
11
(1) 41 (2) 61
5
(3) 75 (4) 85 (3) 54 minutes past 4
11
Answer (2) 6
Directions: (Questions: 69-72) (4) 54 minutes past 4
14
In the given questions there are four groups of Answer (2)
numbers/pairs of numbers/group of letters of which Directions: (Questions 76-77)
three are alike and one is different. Identify the one
In the given equations find which of the following
which is different: interchange of signs/numbers would make the
69. (1) 216 (2) 841 equations correct.
(3) 676 (4) 784 76. 10  10  10  10  10  10
Answer (1) (1) + and – (2) + and 
70. (1) 616 (2) 323 (3) + and × (4)  and ×
(3) 244 (4) 482 Answer (3)
Answer (All options are correct) 77. 5  6  3  2  4  6  4  2  3  2
71. (1) FNTNR (2) MPTMV (1) 5 and 6 (2) 6 and 3
(3) UWYUZ (4) FILFP (3) 4 and 2 (4) 2 and 3
Answer (1) Answer (2)
78. When – and ×, 3 and 6 are interchanged find
72. (1) 1278 (2) 3197
which of the following equations would be
(3) 2389 (4) 5298 correct:
Answer (4) (1) 6 – 3 × 2 = 9 (2) 3 × 6 – 4 = 14
73. At what time between 3 O’ clock and 4 O’ clock (3) 3 × 6 – 4 = 33 (4) 3 – 6 × 8 = 10
are the hands of a clock are together? Answer (4)
4 79. Seven persons Anil, Bharat, Chand, Dinesh,
(1) 16 minutes past 3
11 Eshwar, Ravi, Ganesh, who have gathered at a
5 picnic spot are sitting in row facing a
(2) 16 minutes past 3 photographer:
11
(a) Chand and Dinesh are sitting next to each
6 other.
(3) 16 minutes past 3
11
(b) There are exactly four persons between
3 Bharat and Ganesh.
(4) 16 minutes past 3
11 (c) Dinesh is sitting to the immediate right of
Answer (1) Bharat.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

If Anil and Eshwar are separated exactly by two Directions: (Questions: 85-87)
persons then who is sitting to the left of Ganesh? The words are given under Column-I. Their codes are
(1) Anil (2) Eshwar given under Column-II. The order of coding for the
(3) Ravi (4) Chand letters of the word in the Column-I do not follow the
same order in the Column-II. Find the codes for the
Answer (3)
letters of words in Column-I and find the codes for the
80. Four women A, B, C and D and four men E, F, G given words in questions:
and H are sitting around circular table facing the
center: Column-I Column-II

(a) No two women or two men are sitting side KIN qpf
by side.
SON nql
(b) C, who is sitting between G and E, is facing
D. AVE ecx
(c) F is sitting between D and A and is facing G. DUST dknb
(d) H is sitting to the right of B. Then who is
LOAN xlmq
facing E?
(1) F (2) B TAKE bcpx

(3) G (4) H 85. ANKLE

Answer (4) (1) p q x m c (2) x q p m c
Directions: (Questions: 81-84) (3) x p q m c (4) x q p c m
Complete the given number analogy by choosing the Answer (2)
correct answer from the four options given below: 86. STUDENT
81. 12 : 864 : : 18 : (1) n b k d q c b (2) p b d k q c b
(3) n x k d c q b (4) n b d k c q b
(1) 1624 (2) 1824
Answer (4)
(3) 1260 (4) 2916
87. SOLUTION
Answer (4)
(1) n l m d b f l q (2) n l m b d f q l
82. 143 : 120 : : 221 :
(3) n l m k b f l q (4) l m n b d q l f
(1) 168 (2) 189 Answer (1 or 3)
(3) 196 (4) 220 Directions: (Questions: 88-89)
Answer (1) There are five floors in a school building, with one
83. 3541 : 6874 : : 2613 : balcony in each floor. They are indicated as 1st, 2nd,
3rd, 4th and 5th floor from the ground. Four students
(1) 2136
A, B, C and D decide to keep potted plants in the
(2) 5946 balcony. Only one student is allowed to keep a pot in
(3) 5225 one balcony. ‘A’ keeps a pot two floors below where
‘C’ keeps and ‘D’ keeps a pot one floor above where
(4) 6135
‘B’ keeps. One balcony is left vacant:
Answer (2)
88. If ‘A’ places the pot in 3rd floor balcony then,
84. 6 : 149 : 142 : : 7 : : which of the following is true?
(1) 165, 158 (1) ‘B’ places pot in the first floor balcony
(2) 198, 205 (2) ‘C’ places pot in the first floor balcony
(3) 201, 194 (3) Second floor balcony is empty
(4) 389, 374 (4) ‘D’ places pot in the fifth floor balcony
Answer (3) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

89. If second floor balcony is vacant then where ‘C’

92.
can place the pot?
? 44
(1) In the first floor balcony
4 26
(2) In the third floor balcony
(3) In the fourth floor balcony
5 20
(4) In the fifth floor balcony
8 14
Answer (2)
90. Take the given statements as true and decide
which of the following conclusions follow logically (1) 82
from these statements:
(2) 50
Statements:
(3) 76
(a) All mobiles are laptops
(4) 80
(b) No laptop is a tablet
Answer (4)
(c) All laptops are supercomputers
Conclusions: Directions: (Questions: 93-94)

I. No mobile is a tablet Find the correct mirror image for the following

II. No supercomputer is a tablet problem figure choosing from the given options:

III. Some supercomputers are tablets

93.
IV. All laptops are mobiles 4
3
(1) Only conclusion II follows along with I
(2) Only conclusion IV follows along with I
(3) Only conclusions II or III follows along with I
(4) Only conclusion IV follows along with II
O
Answer (3)
Directions: (Questions: 91-92)
In the questions given below the numbers in the 3

figures are related. Identify their relationship and find

the missing number in the given figure: (1)
1 5 3
91.

O
5 85 ?
2 4 4 4 5 4
3
(1) 60
(2) 63
(2)
(3) 130
(4) 144
Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Karnataka)

(3) (3)

3
(4)
(4)

Answer (1)
O
Directions: (Questions: 95-96)
Answer (3) Find the correct water image for the following problem
figure choosing from the four options:
95.
94.

C
P (1)

(2)
C
(1)

C
(3)

C
(2)
(4)

Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

96. Directions: (Questions: 99-100)

In the questions below, a problem figure is given. The
problem figure is hidden in one of the figures given
(1) below. Pick the correct option:

(2) 99.

(3)

(4)

Answer (No Option is matching) (1) (2)

Directions: (Questions: 97-98)
In each questions given below statement is given,
followed by two conclusions. Assume the given
statement to be true and decide which of the given
(3) (4)
conclusions logically follow from the statement:
97. Statement: If you are focussed and disciplined,
then only you will become successful.
Answer (2)
Conclusions: (I) One who is focussed and has
100.
a disciplined mind can achieve success.
(II) Without discipline there is a possibility of
achieving success.
(1) Both conclusions I and II follow
(2) Only conclusion I follows
(3) Only conclusion II follows
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (1) (2)

Answer (2)
98. Statement: “High IQ (Intelligence Quotient) is
mandatory to become a scientist”.
Conclusions: (I) All students with high IQ
become scientist.
(3)
(II) A student with an average I.Q. may also
become a scientist.
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows
(4)
(3) Both conclusions I and II follows
(4) Neither conclusions I nor II follow
Answer (4) Answer (3)




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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

1. A house hold consumes 1 kWh of energy per day. (1) Equal at A,B and C
This energy in joules is (2) Stronger at B than A, equal at B and C
(1) 3.6 × 105 J (2) 6.3 × 105 J (3) Stronger at B than C, weaker at B than A
(3) 6.3 × 106 J (4) 3.6 × 106 J (4) Stronger at B than A, weaker at C than A
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
6. The solar constant at a place is 1.4 kW/m2. The
2. Resistors are connected as shown in the circuit solar energy received by an area of 4 m2 per
diagram. second at this place is
The effective resistance between A and B is (1) 6.5 kJ (2) 6.5 J
4 3 (3) 5.6 J (4) 5.6 kJ
Answer (4)
A 3 B 7. While performing an experiment of dispersion of
white light through a prism, four students
represented the dispersion pattern as shown
4
3 below. Identify the correct representation:
(1) 3  (2) 3.5 
R
(3) 11  (4) 5.5 
(1) V
Answer (1) White
3. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg and 2 kgs and a lead light
ball of 10 kgs are released together from the top of
tower 30 m high. Assuming the path to be in
vacuum: V
(1) The lead ball reaches the ground earlier (2) White R
Light
(2) The 1 kg iron ball reaches the ground earlier
(3) All the balls reach the ground simultaneously
(4) The 2 kgs steel ball reaches the ground earlier
V
Answer (3) (3) R
4. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs that can be White
run from the main supply of 220 V if you do not Right

want to overload a 5 A fuse:

R
(1) 18 (2) 11
V
(3) 20 (4) 10 (4) White
Answer (1) Light
5. The diagram shows a current carrying wire Answer (3)
passing through the centre of a square cardboard. 8. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens each of
The magnetic field at points A , B and C is: focal length –10 cm are given. The mirror and lens
are likely to be:
(1) The mirror is concave mirror and the lens is
C concave lens
(2) The mirror is convex mirror and the lens is
convex lens
(3) The mirror is convex mirror and the lens is
B
concave lens
(4) The mirror is concave mirror and the lens is
A
convex lens
Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

9. In the following diagram ‘M’ is an mirror and ‘P’ is 13. Consider the following statements and select the
an object and ‘Q’ is its magnified image of ‘P’ correct alternative:
formed by the mirror. The mirror ‘M’ is
Statement (A): The frequency of the sound wave
M whose wavelength is 1.5 cm with speed 339 m/s is
Q
P 22600 Hz.
O
C F Statement (B): The given sound is audible to
human being.

(1) Concave mirror (1) Statement A is true, Statement B is false

(2) Convex mirror (2) Both statements A and B are true
(3) Planar mirror (3) Statement A is false, Statement B is true
(4) Plano convex mirror (4) Both Statements A and B are false
Answer (1) Answer (1)
10. A person takes hot coffee by pouring it into the 14. A reaction is described below,
saucer when he is in hurry because he knows that:
2Na  X  Sodium ethoxide + Hydrogen
(1) The latent heat of steam is high and the coffee
will become cold quickly X  Hot
Concentrated H2SO4
 CH2  CH2  H2O
(2) The evaporation increases with the increase in Identify ‘X’:
surface area and the cooling of coffee is faster
(1) CH3  COOH (2) CH3  CHO
(3) Part of heat will be absorbed by saucer and
coffee become cold quickly (3) CH3  CH2  OH (4) CH3  CH3
(4) The high specific heat of water makes the Answer (3)
coffee cold quickly
15. Match the salts with their common name.
Answer (2)
11. The energy released when 3 g of a material is Hydrated Salt Common Name
completely converted into energy during a nuclear
A MgSO4 .7H2O i Gypsum
reaction is (given, speed of light = 3 × 108 m/sec):
(1) 27 × 1016 J (2) 27 × 1014 J CuSO4 .5H2O
B ii Green Vitriol
19 13
(3) 27 × 10 J (4) 27 × 10 J
C FeSO 4 .7H2O iii Blue Vitriol
Answer (4)
12. Consider the following Assertion and the Reason D CaSO4 .2H2O iv Epsum
and select the correct alternative:
Assertion (A): Alloys are used in electric heating (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
devices. (2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
Reasons (R): Alloys do not oxidise readily at high (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
temperature.
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(1) A is true and R is true but R is not the correct
explanation of A Answer (1)

(2) Both A and R are false 16. The volume occupied by half a mole of a gas at
standard temperature and pressure is:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A (1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L

(4) A is false R is true (3) 22.4 L (4) 2.8 L

Answer (3) Answer (2)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

17. Choose the correct statements about the given 22. The following statements applies to SO2 but NOT
chemical reaction: to H2S.
3MnO2  S   4Al  S   3Mn(l)  2Al2O3  Heat (1) The gas is soluble in water

a) Reaction is exothermic. (2) It is an oxidising as well as a reducing agent

b) Al is acting as oxidizing agent. (3) It is a dibasic acid

c) MnO2 is getting reduced. (4) It is easily liquefiable
d) Al is more reactive than Mn. Answer (2)
(1) a, c and d (2) a, b and c 23. Statement (A): Iron does not burn on heating.
(3) a, b and d (4) a, b c and d Statement (B): Iron fillings burn vigorously, when
Answer (1) sprinkled in the flame of the burner.
18. NH3 gas can be dried by passing it over: (1) Both the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true
(1) Concentrated H2SO4 (2) Both the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false
(2) P2O5 (3) Statement ‘A’ is true, but statement ‘B’ is false
(3) Anhydrous CaCl2 (4) Statement ‘A’ is false, but statement ‘B’ is true
(4) CaO
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
24. Assertion (A): Silver articles becomes black after
19. X  Y  Z  SO2 some time when exposed to air.
X  Z  Cu  SO2 Reason (R): It reacts with oxygen in the air to form
Identify X, Y and Z: a coating of silver oxide.

(1) X  Cu2O, Y  H2SO 4 and Z  Cu2S (1) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is the correct
explanation of ‘A’
(2) X  Cu2S, Y  H2S and Z  Cu2O
(2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct, but ‘R’ is not the correct
(3) X  Cu2S, Y  O2 and Z  Cu2O explanation of ‘A’
(4) X  Cu2S,Y  H2SO4 and Z  Cu2O (3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Answer (3) (4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false

20. Identify the correct order of elements according to Answer (3)
their metallic character: 25. Assertion (A): Calcium (Z=20) and Argon (Z=18)
(1) K > Na > Li > Mg (2) K > Na > Mg > Li are examples for isobars.
(3) K > Mg > Na > Li (4) K > Li > Na > Mg Reason (R): The total number of nucleons is same
Answer (1) in the atoms of this pair of elements.
21. Consider the elements of group-14. Choose the Select the correct option from the given
correct alternative: alternatives:
a) Si and Ge are semi conductors (1) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct and ‘R’ is the correct
b) Carbon and silicon are non-metals explanation of ‘A’
c) Sn and Pb are metals (2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct, but ‘R’ is not the correct
d) Si and Ge are metalloids explanation of ‘A’
(1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d (3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b and c (4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false
Answer (3) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

26. The compounds which do not undergo (A) A hormone abscisic acid is synthesized at the
hydrogenation shoot tip
(1) C 6H12 and C 4H10 (2) C 8H10 and C 5H12 (B) When light is coming from one side of the
plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of
(3) C 13H24 and C 14H28 (4) C 14H30 and C 5H12 the plant
Answer (4) (C) Abscisic acid helps the cells to grow longer
27. Assertion (A): During the day plants do not (D) Cells grow longer on the side of the shoot
release CO2. which is away from light

Reason (R): CO2 generated during respiration is Select the correct option.
used for photosynthesis. (1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false (3) C and D (4) B and D
(2) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true Answer (4)

(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ is true and ‘R’ explains ‘A’ 31. Choose the most appropriate statement from the
options listed below that explains the factors which
(4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ is true but ‘R’ doesn’t explain
affects transpiration.
‘A’
(A) If the wind blows faster, the water vapour
Answer (3)
released during transpiration is factor.
28. The following statements about blood vessels
(B) Increase in atmospheric pressure increases
is/are correct.
the rate of transpiration.
(A) Arteries have thin and less muscular walls
(C) Decrease in temperature allows more water to
(B) Walls of veins are non-elastic evaporate.
(C) Arteries have no valves in their inner lining (D) High humidity in the air increases the rate of
(D) Veins do not collapse when empty transpiration.
(1) A and D (2) Only D (1) A only (2) B and C only
(3) B and C (4) A and C (3) D only (4) A and D only
Answer (3) Answer (1)
29. Remarkable reduction in blood pressure affects 32. Match column-I with column-II and identify the
normal functioning of the kidney as follows: correct answer:
(1) Reduces secretion of nitrogenous wastes
Column-I Column-II
(2) Reduces renal filtration
A Insulin i Promotes tissue
(3) Reduces reabsorption of useful materials metabolism
(4) Reduces tubular secretion.
B Thyroxine ii Stimulates milk
Answer (2) secretion
30. The changes that are likely to happen in the plant C Antidiuretic iii Testosterone
in the following picture: Hormone (ADH) secretion

D Oxytocin iv Promotes
glucose utilization
by the body cells

v Increase
reabsorption of
water from kidney

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i 38. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they
(3) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii (4) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iii couldn’t fly but birds have feathers that help them
to fly. In the context of evolution this means:
Answer (1)
(1) Reptiles have evolved from birds
33. The correct route that sperm follows when it (2) There is no evolutionary connection between
releases from the testis of a mammal: reptiles and birds
(1) Vas deferens  Epididymis  Urethra (3) Birds have evolved from reptiles
(2) Urethra  Epididymis  Vas deferens (4) Feathers are homologous structures in both
the organisms
(3) Epididymis  Urethra  Vas deferens
Answer (3)
(4) Epididymis  Vas deferens  Urethra 39. Examine the following statements and select the
Answer (4) correct option:
34. Pattern baldness is more common in males than in Statement (A): Speciation may take place when
females due to: variation is combined with geographical isolation.
(1) dominant genes of such traits are found in the Statement (B): Traits in one individual may not be
‘X’ chromosome inherited separately.
(2) dominant genes of such traits are found in the (1) ‘A’ is true and ‘B’ is false
‘Y’ chromosome (2) ‘A’ is false and ‘B’ is true
(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ true
(3) recessive genes of such traits are found in the
‘X’ chromosome (4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ false
Answer (3)
(4) recessive genes of such traits are found in the
40. The fluid that protects the developing embryo:
‘Y’ chromosome
(1) Vitreous humour (2) Aqueous humour
Answer (3)
(3) Endolymph fluid (4) Amniotic fluid
35. An useful biological indicator of SO2 pollution: Answer (4)
(1) Bryophytes (2) Algal bloom 41. Identify the given regions in the map with their
(3) Lichens (4) Pseudomonas corresponding European settlements in India and
Answer (3) select the correct option using the codes given
below:
36. Animal species that is being conserved in
‘Dachigam National Park’:
(1) Musk deer
(2) Golden Oriole
(3) Hangul or Kashmir stag
(4) Tiger
Answer (3)
37. The correct sequence of aerobic respiration in
yeast is:
(1) Glucose 
Cytoplasm
Pyruvate 
Mitochondria

CO2 + Water + Energy
(1) A - Ahmedabad, B - Bharuch, C -Machlipatnam,
(2) Glucose 
Cytoplasm
Pyruvate 
Cytoplasm
D - Chandranagor
Ethanol + CO2+ Energy (2) A - Chandranagor, B - Ahmedabad, C - Bharuch,
(3) Glucose Cytoplasm
Pyruvate 
Mitochondria
 D - Machlipatnam
Lactic Acid + Energy (3) A - Bharuch, B - Chandranago, C -
Machlipatnam, D - Ahmedabad
(4) Glucose 
Cytoplasm
Pyruvate 
Cytoplasm
(4) A - Machlipatnam, B - Broach, C - Ahmedabad,
Ethanol + CO2 D - Chandrangor
Answer (1) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

42. Identify the correct statements with regard to the 45. Read the given statements and indentify the
Solanki dynasty: correct option related to them:
A. Chandradeva was the founder of this dynasty. A. It has Mukhamantapa and Garbhagruha with a
B. Moolaraja II defeated Mohammed Ghazni near Nandi idol in front of this historical temple.
Mount Abu. B. Garbhagruha on top of the Garbhagruha is a
C. During the rule of this dynasty, the famous special feature of this temple.
Jain Scholar Hemachandra compiled Prakruth
C. Henry cousins, the art critic observed the
dictionary ‘Deshimala’.
sculpture of Garuda on the door of
D. Ullaf Khan and Nusrath Khan, the military Garbhagruha and called it a Vaishnava
generals of Allauddin Khilji defeated temple.
Karnadeva
D. Since a saint lived here for a number of days
(1) Only A, B and C are correct people called it in his name.
(2) Only B, C and D are correct
(1) Birla Mandir (2) Ladhkhan Temple
(3) Only A, C and D are correct
(3) Tulsidas Mandir (4) Gurunanak Dwara
(4) Only C and D are correct
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
43. The correct family chart in ascending order of the 46. Observe the following pictures of social reformers
important rulers of Shatavahana dynasty is and identify the order of the statements correctly
related to them:
(1) Simukha,Gautamiputra Shatakarni,
A. Dedicated her life for the betterment of women
Vashistaputra Pulamayi, Yajnashri Shatakarni
of India and established ‘Mukti Mission’.
(2) Simukha, Vashistaputra Pulamayi,
Gautamiputra B. She opposed the exploitation of women in her
book ‘Stri Purusha Tulana’.
(3) Simukha, Yajnashri Shatakarni, Vashistaputra
Pulamayi, Gautamiputra Shatakarni C. While treating the patients of plague along
(4) Simukha, Vashistaputra Pulamayi, Yajnashri with her son, she died of it.
shatakarani, Gautamiputra Shatakarni
D. Called for universal brotherhood without
Answer (1) distinction of race, creed, sex, caste and colour.
44. Read the given statements and select the correct
answer:
Assertion (A): There was a Sun temple in all Inca
centres.
Reason (R): The people of Inca believed that the Annie Besant Savithri Bai Phule Tarabai Shinde Pandita Rama Bai

Sun God was the link between the people and God i ii iii iv
Veerakocha.
i ii iii iv
(1) ‘A’ is true ‘R’ is false
(1) B C D A
(2) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
(2) A B D C
(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct
explanation of ‘A’ (3) C A B D
(4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the
(4) D C B A
correct explanation of ‘A’
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

47. The important events those took place during the 50. In the List- A Authors and List- B their work given.
American war of Independence is depicted in the Choose the correct answer by matching them:
following flow diagram. Identify the correct List-A List-B
chronological sequence: A. Charles Dickens i. Mayor of Casterbridge
B. Emile Zola ii. Germinal
i ii iii iv C. Thomas Hardy iii. Jane Eyre
D. Charlote Brontte iv. Hard times
A. Cornwallis surrender
B. The sugar and Molasses Act (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-i
C. Second Congress of Philadelphia (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-ii, D-iii (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
D. Boston Tea Party
Answer (3)
i ii iii iv
51. The group of wild life sanctuaries and the states in
(1) B C D A which they are located is given below. Identify the
(2) B D C A correctly matched group:
(3) A B D C (1) Manas - Meghalaya
(4) C B A D Bhadra - Karnataka
Answer (2)
Annamalai – Tamilnadu
48. Choose the correct sequence to indicate the given
Mudumalai – Kerala
statement of the results of the Battle of Plassey as
True (T) or False (F): (2) Biligiriranga Hills - Karnataka
A. The battle of Plassey brought out the Ranthambore – Gujarat
immorality, lack of unit among the Indians and Nagarjuna Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
the greed of Indian business men.
Jaldapara - Kerala
B. After the Battle of Plassey, Siraj-ud-daulah
became the Nawab of Bengal. (3) Nagarjuna Sagar – Telangana
C. The company gained exclusive rights to do Bharathpura – Rajasthan
business in Bengal after the Battle of Plassey. Manas – Assam
D. Mir Jaffar had to pay huge amount as a war Dandeli – Karnataka
relief.
(4) Mudumalai – Tamilnadu
(1) T T T T (2) T F T F
Periyar – Kerala
(3) T F F T (4) T F T T
Answer (4) Bharathpur – Gujarat
49. Read the given statements and identify the correct Jaladapara - Assam
Act which is related to all of them: Answer (3)
A. This act formulated Bi-cameral legislative 52. Identify the correct statements related to ‘cotton
body at the centre. crop’ from the options given below:
B. As per this Act “Diarchy” was allowed at
i. It is grown as a Rabi Crop in India.
regional government.
ii. It is tropical and sub-tropical zone crop.
C. As per this Act a High Commissioner was
appointed for India. iii. It requires 10° to 15°C temperature.
D. As per this Act Provincial budget was iv. It requires 50 to 100 cm annual rainfall.
separated from Central budget. (1) (i) and (ii) only correct
(1) Indian Government Act of 1935
(2) (iii) and (iv) only correct
(2) Indian Council Act of 1909
(3) (i) and (iii) only correct
(3) Indian Council Act of 1892
(4) (ii) and (iv) only correct
(4) Indian Council Act of 1919
Answer (4) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

53. Read the following statements and choose the 56. Match the marked multipurpose river valley
correct answer: projects on the map of India (i, ii, iii, iv) with their
respective names:
Assertion (A): Laterite soil is not that much useful
for agriculture.
Reason (R): Laterite soil Undergoes more
b
leaching process.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the c
correct explanation of (A)
a
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) d

(3) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect

(4) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct
i. Bhakra Nangal
Answer (1)
ii. Nagarjuna Sagar
54. Refer to the given circles below, select the correct iii. Kosi
option regarding ‘X’ and ‘Y’: iv. Hirakud
The East flowing The West flowing (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
River River
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
Answer (2)
X Y 57. A tourist was travelling across Indian states. He
first visited Pykara hydroelectric power station,
(1) ‘X’ can be ‘Narmada’ and ‘Y’ can be ‘Godavari’ secondly Jawaharlal Nehru sea Port, thirdly
Bokaro steel plant station and lastly Govind
(2) ‘X’ can be ‘Kaveri’ and ‘Y’ can be ‘Netravati’ Ballabh Panth reservoir. Identify the proper
(3) ‘X’ can be ‘Mahanadi’ and ‘Y’ can be ‘Krishna’ sequence of the states the tourist travelled:
(1) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
(4) ‘X’ can be ‘Sharavathi’ and ‘Y’ can be ‘Tapi’
Gujarat
Answer (2) (2) Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar
Karnataka
55. Match the column ‘A’ with the column ‘B’ and
choose the correct answer: (3) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Gujarat
(4) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Uttar
List-A List-B Pradesh
A. Veer Savarkar International I. Nagpur Answer (4)
Airport
B. Lal B a hadur Shashtri International ii. Bhuvaneshwar 58. While teaching a topic on ‘Minerals and Energy
Airport
C. Babasaheb Ambedkar International iii. Port Blair Resources’ the geography teacher had made the
Airport following statement about a particular resource in
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai International iv. Ahmedabad
Airport the class:
v. Varanasi
“This resource is formed plant residue and
(1) A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-i transformed due to high temperature and
pressure. It is composed largely of carbon”
(2) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv
The teacher has stated about the resource
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii mentioned below.
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (1) Manganese (2) Iron
(3) Coal (4) Bauxite
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

59. Read the following statements and choose the 62. The process of creation of an act in the state’s
correct answer: legislature is jumbled up. Find the correct option
that shows proper order of process of creation of
Assertion (A): The population is high in the
an act:
Northern plain of India
A. A discussion takes place on the bill and sent
Reason (R): The fertility of soil is one of the to respective house committee.
factors affecting on the distribution of population.
B. The house approves the bill with 2/3 majority.
(1) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect C. The person who tables the bill reads out the
(2) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct text loudly.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the D. The bill is sent to the Governor’s office for
correct explanation of (A) approval.
E. The house committee deliberates on the bill
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
and submits report to the legislative house.
correct explanation of (A)
(1) A C D B E (2) C A E B D
Answer (3)
(3) E A C B D (4) C E B D A
60. The type of vegetation shown in the picture is Answer (2)
found in this type of forests in India: 63. He discussed the origin, development and
functions of state in his book ‘Politics’.
Identify the person:
(1) Plato (2) Aristotle
(3) Socrates (4) Herodotus
Answer (2)
64. One of the following is not a function of Karnataka
public service commission:
A. Appointing the gazetted and non-gazetted
officers
B. Conducting interviews for direct recruitment of
(1) Mangrove Forest candidates.
(2) Mountain Forest C. Conducting departmental exams for state
government employees.
(3) Monsoon Forest
D. Train the teachers on modern skill of teaching.
(4) Evergreen Forest (1) A (2) B
Answer (1) (3) C (4) D
61. The list ‘A’ contains fundamental rights and the list Answer (4)
‘B’ their article numbers. Choose the correct option 65. Observe the four statements given. Choose the
that matches them: option which justifies India’s relationship with it:
List-A List-B A. It signed for peace, friendship and
co-operation with India in 1971
A. Right to Freedom i. 23 and 24 articles
B. Right to freedom of religion ii. 14 to 18 articles B. It helped in the establishment of Bhilai and
C. Right against exploitation iii. 29 and 30 articles Bokaro steel industries.
D. Cultural and educational rights iv. 19 to 22 articles
v. 25 to 28 articles C. It co-operated during Tashkent agreement in
1966.
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
D. It co-operated in U.N.O. during the liberation
(2) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iii of Goa in 1962
(3) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-iii (1) America (2) England
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii (3) Russia (4) France
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

66. A set of four statements is given. Identify the one 70. Assertion (A): Section 17 of the constitution
which is not Emile Durkhiem’s statement: prohibits the practice of untouchability.
(1) Emile durkheim considered society as an Reason (R): The Act of 1989 has given some
important unit of sociological study responsibilities for the government in eradication of
(2) He opines that man’s social behaviour has to untouchability.
understand not by personal view but by social (1) A is true and R is false
background. (2) A is false and R is true
(3) He believed that the capitalist society would (3) Both A and R are true and R is related to A
be transformed by its victims i.e. working (4) Both A and R are true and R is not related to A
class. Answer (3)
(4) He opines that our duties and practices are 71. A Set of four sentences related to Globalisation is
defined through society’s law and customs given. Choose the correct option:
Answer (3) A. Globalisation creates free trade zone by
67. ‘Jharhkand Mukti Morcha’ Organization came in to removing the import and export duties.
being as a result of: B. Globalisation creates international
(1) Long standing demands of people for the agreements.
separate state. C. Globalisation fight out child labour and
slavery.
(2) Movement against atrocities of police force
against innocents D. Globalisation promotes specialization in
production.
(3) Actions of companies that rendered thousands
(1) Only A, B and D are correct
of tribal displacements due to mining
(2) Only A, B and C are correct
(4) Movement for reservation of Schedule caste
(3) Only A is correct
and Schedule tribe
(4) Only C is correct
Answer (3) Answer (1)
68. Characteristics of culture is given below. Find the 72. The purpose of Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana is:
one which is not a characteristic of culture: A. To ensure access to financial services in
(1) Culture is learnt nationalised banks.
(2) Culture is transmissive B. To help every rural citizen to open bank
account.
(3) Culture is a static Phenomena
C. To provide loan for small businessmen /
(4) Culture is continuous and cumulative startups from 50,000 to 10 Lakh.
Answer (3) D. To provide life insurance to all citizens
69. The list ‘A’ contains Environmental Movement and between the age of 18 to 50 years.
the list ‘B’ contains related information to the (1) A (2) B
movement. Choose the correctly matched option: (3) C (4) D
List-A List-B Answer (3)
A. Silent Valley Movement I. Began at Tehri- 73. Gender inequality index (GII) is calculated at the
Gharwal District
B. Coastal Karnataka Movement ii. Started in 1983 by the international level by one of the following agencies:
villagers of Salyani
C. Chipko Movement iii. Started at the
A. U.N.D.P
valley of Phalghat
D. Appiko Movement iv. Started in Mangalore
B. UNICEF
against refineries C. UN’s General Assembly
v. It was started against
honour killing D. UNESCO
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-v (1) A (2) B
(3) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-I (4) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii (3) C (4) D
Answer (1) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

74. The main aim of 73rd amendment of the 77. Assertion (A): The private sector consists of
constitution in 1993 with respect to Panchayatraj business owned by individuals or a group of
system is: individuals.

A. Centralization of power and responsibilities of Reason (R): The private sector may either be
village administration. partly or wholly owned by central or state
government as per 1991 industrial policy.
B. Abolition of special powers of village
(1) ‘A’ is right, ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
administration.
(2) ‘A’ is right, ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of
C. Decentralize and confer constitutional status
‘A’
to the panchayat institutions.
(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are wrong
D. To bring village administration under the direct
control of state. (4) Only ‘A’ is wrong

(1) A (2) B Answer (2)

(3) C (4) D 78. One of the privileges of a private limited company

is given. Choose the option which is related to it:
Answer (3)
A. A private company can be formed by only two
75. Statement (A): Foreign direct investment is an members.
investment of foreign assets into domestic
B. Need to issue a prospectus as public is invited
structures, equipment and organisations.
to subscribe to shares
Reason (R): FDI does not include foreign
C. It is mandatory to keep an index of members
investment into the stock markets.
in private company.
(1) ‘A’ is wrong ‘R’ is correct
D. Allotment of shares cannot be done without
(2) ‘A’ and ‘R’ both are wrong receiving the minimum subscription.
(3) Only ‘A’ is correct (1) A (2) B
(4) ‘A’ is correct, ‘R’ is the correct explanation of (3) C (4) D
‘A’ Answer (2)
Answer (3) 79. The benefits of e-banking are listed. Choose the
76. The two Nationalised banks logos are given. wrong statement:
Identify the correct option that matches. A. Customer of e-bank can make some permitted
transaction from office or house.
B. e-banking inculcates a sense of financial
discipline by recording each and every
transaction.
C. Unlimited access to the bank by the
A. Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank
customers.
B. Canara Bank and Punjab National Bank
D. It allows customers to transact only with the
C. Canara Bank and State Bank of India
government.
D. State Bank of India and H.D.F.C. Bank
(1) A
(1) A
(2) B
(2) B
(3) C
(3) C
(4) D
(4) D
Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

80. Observe the picture and find the suitable 84. In PQR, PQR  90 0 and QS  PR . The true
statement related to the person: relation among the following.
P

Q R
A. She is called the ‘Queen of Indian television 2
A. QS  PS  SR
sector.
2
B. The founder chairman of JET Airways B. PQ  RS  PR
C. The founder of Apollo Hospitals. 2
C. QR  PS  SR
D. Chairman and Managing Director of Biocon
Ltd. D. PQ  QR  QS  PS
(1) A and B only (2) B only (1) Only A (2) Only A and B
(3) C and D only (4) D only (3) Only A and C (4) Only A and D
Answer (4) Answer (4)
81. If the zeros of polynomial f  x   x3  3x 2  m are in 85. If the area of the triangle formed by joining the
points (0, a), (–a, 0) and (a, 0) is 16a cm2, then the
Arithmetic Progression, then the value of ‘m’ is value of ‘a’ is:
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 16 cm (2) 8 cm
(3) –3 (4) –2 (3) 4 cm (4) 2 cm
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
82. The Least Common Multiple (LCM) and the
86. The interior angles of a polygon are in an
Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers Arithmetic Progression and the common difference
are 168 and 12 respectively. If the sum of those is 10. If the biggest exterior angle is 850, then the
two numbers is 108, find the difference between number of sides of the polygon will be
them:
(1) 5 (2) 6
(1) 36 (2) 40
(3) 7 (4) 8
(3) 60 (4) 64
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
87. If A (0, 7), B (-6,0) and C(0,-4) are the vertices of
83. MNO is an isosceles triangle where MN  MO . A  ABC , then the distance from centroid of  ABC
circle through the vertex ‘N’ touches side MO at its to vertex ‘A’ is
middle point ‘P’ and intersects side MN at point ‘A’. (1) 40 (2) 32
If AM  3 cm , then the length of MO is: (3) 68 (4) 60
M Answer (1)
A 88. Following two statements speak about Arithmetic
P Progression:
Statement (A): In an Arithmetic Progression series:
1 2
20  19  18  .........25 terms is 300
O
3 3
N
Statement (B): In an Arithmetic progression series:
(1) 6 cm (2) 9 cm
1 2
(3) 12 cm (4) 15 cm 20  19  18  .........36 terms is 300
3 3
Answer (3)
Pick the correct option from below:

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

(1) Only statement A is true 94. ‘O’ is the centre of the circle. The area of the
(2) Only statement B is true shaded region in the given figure is 126 cm2,

(3) Both the statements are true PQ  PR , then the diameter QR is:

(4) Both the statements are false P

Answer (3)
89. The product of mean and median of first five prime
numbers is
(1) 54.6 (2) 28 Q R
(3) 27 (4) 10.8 O
Answer (2)
90. If the difference between sum of the roots and
product of the roots of a quadratic equation
(1) 21 cm (2) 21 2 cm
 ax 
2
 bx  c  0 (where a  0 ) is ‘zero’, then:
(3) 7 cm (4) 7 2 cm
(1) b  c  0 (2) b  c  0
Answer (2)
(3) a2  b  c  0 (4) a2  b  c  0
95. The radius of a solid right circular cone increases
Answer (2)
by 20% and its height decreases by 20%. The
91. If sin52.cosec  90  2A   1 , then the measure percentage change in its volume is
of angle ‘A’ is (1) 15.2% (2) 20%
(1) 19° (2) 26° (3) 25.2% (4) 30%
(3) 38° (4) 52° Answer (1)
Answer (1) 96. From the top of a building of height ‘h’ meter, the
angle of elevation of the top of the tower is ‘  ’ and
92. The value of ‘x’ and ‘y’ for the linear equations:
angle of depression of the foot of the tower is ‘  ’.
a1x  b1y  c1  0 and
The height of the tower is
a2 x  b 2 y  c 2  0 are h   tan   tan  
(1)
b1c1  b1c 2 c a  c 2a1 tan 
(1) x  and y  1 2
a1b2  a2b1 a1b2  a1b1 h  tan   tan  
(2)
tan 
b 2 c1  b 2 c1 c a  c 2a1
(2) x  and y  1 2
a1b2  a2b1 a1b2  a2b1 h tan     
(3)
tan 
b2c1  b1c 2 c a  c 2a1
(3) x  and y  1 1
a2b1  a1b2 a2b1  a1b2 h  tan     
(4)
tan 
b1c 2  b2c1 c a  c 2a1
(4) x  and y  1 2 Answer (2)
a1b2  a2b1 a1b2  a2b1
97. The perimeter of a square is found to be equal to
Answer (4) the circumference of a circle. The ratio of the are
93. If  sin   tan   a and  tan   sin   b , then of that square to the area of that circle would be:
(1) 14:11
a2  b2 
(2) 22:7
(1) ab (2) 2 ab
(3) 11:14
(3) 4ab (4) 4 ab (4) 7:22
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019- 20 (Karnataka)

98. A metal cube is completely submerged in a 100. The table below shows the value probability when
cylindrical vessel containing water. The diameter three identical coins are tossed. They are not
of the vessel is 30 cm, the level of water is raised matched correctly
41
by 1 cm. The length of the edge of the cube is Column-A Column-B
49

(1) 40 cm 4
i) Getting at most two heads a)
8
(2) 30 cm
5
(3) 20 cm ii) Getting at least two heads b)
8
(4) 10 cm
6
iii) Getting exactly one head c)
Answer (4) 8

99. In trapezium PQRS, PQ||RS and its diagonal Getting neither all heads 3
intersect at ‘O’. If PQ = 6 cm and RS = 3 cm, then iv) d)
nor all Tails 8
the ratio of the areas of  POQ and  ROS is
7
(1) 4:1 e)
8
(2) 1:2
Match the columns correctly:
(3) 2:1
(1) i-e, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (2) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e
(4) 1:4
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e (4) i-e, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
Answer (1) Answer (4)




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