ITIL - Premium.ITILFND V4.by - VCEplus.155q

ITIL.Premium.ITILFND V4.by.VCEplus.
155q
Number: ITILFND V4
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 4.8
Exam Code: ITILFND V4

Exam Name: ITIL 4 Foundation
Certification Provider: ITIL
Corresponding Certification: ITIL V4 Foundation
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback

B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management

B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented

B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and implementation
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
What is warranty?
A. Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements

B. The amount of money spent on a specific activity or resource
C. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need
D. The perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which is part of service provision?
A. The management of resources configured to deliver the service

B. The management of resources needed to consume the service
C. The grouping of one or more services based on one or more products
D. The joint activities performed to ensure continual value co-creation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which statement about a 'continual improvement register' is CORRECT?
A. It should be managed at the senior level of the organization

B. It should be used to capture user demand
C. There should only be one for the whole organization
D. It should be re-prioritized as ideas are documented
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
What are 'engage', 'plan' and 'improve' examples of?
A. Service value chain activities

B. Service level management
C. Service value chain inputs
D. Change control
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. An outcome can be enabled by more than one output

B. Outcomes are how the service performs
C. An output can be enabled by one or more outcomes
D. An outcome is a tangible or intangible activity
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which statement about service desks is CORRECT?
A. The service desk should work in close collaboration with support and development teams
B. The service desk should rely on self-service portals instead of escalation to support teams
C. The service desk should remain isolated from technical support teams
D. The service desk should escalate all technical issues to support and development teams
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which practice updates information relating to symptoms and business impact?
A. Service level management

B. Change control
C. Service request management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which is included in the purpose of the 'design and transition' value chain activity?
A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed

B. Providing transparency and good stakeholder relationships
C. Supporting services according to specifications
D. Continually meeting stakeholder expectations for costs
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which practice has a purpose to support the quality of the service by handling all agreed user initiated service requests?
A. Change control
B. IT asset management
C. Service desk
D. Service request management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which is NOT a component of the service value system?
A. The guiding principles

B. Governance
C. Practices
D. The four dimensions of service management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which statement about the steps to fulfill a service request is CORRECT?
A. They should be complex and detailed
B. They should be well-known and proven
C. They should include incident handling
D. They should be brief and simple
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents?
A. Change
B. Event
C. Known error
D. Problem
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which guiding principle recommends eliminating activities that do not contribute to the creation of value?
A. Start where you are

B. Collaborate and promote visibility
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Optimize and automate
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
When should the effectiveness of a problem workaround be assessed?
A. Whenever the workaround is used

B. Whenever the problem is resolved
C. Whenever the workaround becomes a known error
D. Whenever the problem is prioritized
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
A change is defined as the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on [?].
A. assets
B. values
C. elements
D. services
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which dimension considers how knowledge assets should be protected?
A. Organizations and people
B. Partners and suppliers
C. Information and technology
D. Value streams and processes
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs
and risks?
A. Service management
B. Continual improvement
C. A service
D. An IT asset
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Identify the missing words in the following sentence.
The management of information security incidents usually requires [?].
A. Immediate escalation
B. Specialist teams
C. A separate process
D. Third party support
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
What are the ITIL guiding principles used for?
A. To help an organization make good decisions

B. To direct and control an organization
C. To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a valuable service
D. To ensure that an organization's performance continually meets stakeholders' expectations
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which is the CORRECT approach for managing a large improvement initiative as smaller iterations?
A. Each iteration should be designed before starting the initiative and implemented without feedback
B. Feedback should only be taken into account when one iteration fails to meet its objective
C. Feedback should be reduced for large improvements as it is unlikely that circumstances will change
D. Each iteration should be continually re-evaluated based on feedback
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
What is the purpose of the 'deployment management' practice?
A. To ensure services achieve agreed and expected performance
B. To make new or changed services available for use
C. To move new or changed components to live environments
D. To set clear business-based targets for service performance
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which is a service request?
A. Requesting a workaround for an issue

B. Requesting information about how to create a document
C. Requesting an enhancement to an application
D. Requesting investigation of a degraded service
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization's suppliers and their [?] are managed appropriately to support the seamless
provision of quality products and services.
A. costs
B. users
C. value
D. performances
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
What is a recommendation of the 'focus on value' guiding principle?
A. Make 'focus on value' a responsibility of the management

B. Focus on the value of new and significant projects first
C. Focus on value for the service provider first
D. Focus on value at every step of the improvement
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which guiding principle recommends standardizing and streamlining manual tasks?
A. Optimize and automate

C. Focus on value
D. Think and work holistically
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which describes a set of defined steps for implementing improvements?
A. The 'improve' value chain activity
B. The 'continual improvement register'
C. The 'continual improvement model'
D. The 'engage' value chain activity
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which is a key requirement for a successful service level agreement?
A. It should be written in legal language

B. It should be simply written and easy to understand
C. It should be based on the service provider's view of the service
D. It should relate to simple operational metrics
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
When planning 'continual improvement', which approach for assessing the current state of a service is CORRECT?
A. An organization should always use a single technique to ensure metrics are consistent
B. An organization should always use a strength, weakness, opportunity and threat (SWOT) analysis
C. An organization should always develop competencies in methodologies and techniques that will meet their needs
D. An organization should always use an approach that combines Lean, Agile and DevOps methodologies
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
How does a service consumer contribute to the reduction of disk?
A. By paying for the service

B. By managing server hardware
C. By communicating constraints
D. By managing staff availability
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
What helps diagnose and resolve a simple incident?
A. Rapid escalation
B. Formation of a temporary team
C. The use of scripts
D. Problem prioritization
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which ITIL practice has a purpose that includes reducing the likelihood of incidents?
A. Change control
B. Continual improvement
C. Problem management
D. Service desk
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which service level metrics are BEST for measuring user experience?
A. Single system-based metrics

B. Metrics for the percentage of uptime of a service
C. Operational metrics
D. Metrics linked to defined outcomes
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
What are the MOST important skills required by service desk staff?
A. Incident analysis skills

B. Technical skills
C. Problem resolution skills
D. Supplier management skills
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which two statements about an organization's culture are CORRECT?
1. It is created from shared values based on how it carries out its work
2. It is determined by the type of technology used to support services
3. It should be based on the culture of prospective suppliers
4. It should be based on the objectives of the organization
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
When should a change request be submitted to resolve a problem?
A. As soon as a solution for the problem has been identified

B. As soon as a workaround for the problem has been identified
C. As soon as the analysis of the frequency and impact of incidents justifies the change
D. As soon as the analysis of cost, risks and benefits justifies the change
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which guiding principle helps to ensure that better information is available for decision making?
A. Keep it simple and practical
B. Think and work holistically
C. Optimize and automate
D. Collaborate and promote visibility
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which practice has a purpose that includes observing a service to report selected changes of state identified as events?
A. Information security management

B. Monitoring and event management
C. Incident management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which describes a standard change?
A. A change that needs to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a defined process
B. A change that is typically implemented as a service request
C. A high-risk change that needs very thorough assessment
D. A change that must be implemented as soon as possible
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
How does information about problems and known errors contribute to 'incident management'?
A. It enables quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents

B. It removes the need for regular customer updates
C. It removes the need for collaboration during incident resolution
D. It enables the reassessment of known errors
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which practice owns and manages issues, queries and requests from users?
A. Incident management
B. Service desk
C. Change control
D. Problem management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
What defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption?
A. An IT asset
B. A customer
C. A configuration item (CI)
D. A user
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which stakeholders co-create value in a service relationship?
A. Investor and supplier

B. Consumer and provider
C. Provider and supplier
D. Investor and consumer
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which describes normal changes?
A. Changes that are low-risk and pre-authorized

B. Changes that need to be scheduled and assessed following a process
C. Changes that are typically initiated as service requests
D. Changes that must be implemented as soon as possible
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
What is the expected outcome from using a service value chain?
A. Service value streams

B. Customer engagement
C. Value realization
D. The application of practices
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Which statement about outcomes is CORRECT?
A. Outcomes are one or more services that fulfill the needs of a service consumer
B. Service providers help service consumers achieve outcomes
C. Outcomes help service consumers achieve outputs
D. Helping service consumers achieve outcomes reduces service provider costs
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which skill is an essential part of the 'service level management' practice?
A. Technical knowledge
B. Listening
C. Diagnosis
D. Problem analysis
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
What are the three phases of 'problem management'?
A. Problem logging, problem classification, problem resolution

B. Incident management, problem management, change enablement
C. Problem identification, problem control, error control
D. Problem analysis, error identification, incident resolution
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Which is a purpose of the 'engage' value chain activity?
A. Meeting expectations for quality, costs and time-to-market

B. Providing transparency and good relationships
C. Ensuring the continual improvement of services
D. Ensuring that the organization's vision is understood
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services, and the [?]
that support them, is available when and where it is needed.
A. suppliers
B. CIs
C. customers
D. assets
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
What is described by the service value system?
A. How all the components and activities of the organization work together as a system to enable value creation
B. Services based on one or more products, designed to address needs of a target consumer group
C. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation
D. How to apply the systems approach of the guiding principle think and work holistically
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which practice requires that staff demonstrate excellent customer service skills, such as empathy and emotional intelligence?
A. Problem management
B. Supplier management
C. Release management
D. Service desk
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
What is defined as any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service?
A. A service request
B. A configuration item (CI)
C. An incident
D. An IT asset
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
Which guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps necessary to achieve an objective?

B. Focus on value
C. Think and work holistically
D. Keep it simple and practical
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which two statements about the 'service request management' practice are CORRECT?
1. Service requests are part of normal service delivery
2. Complaints can be handled as service requests
3. Service requests result from a failure in service
4. Normal changes should be handled as service requests
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
What is an IT asset?
A. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
B. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver a service
C. A request from a user mat initiates a service action
D. The removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which dimension includes a workflow management system?

B. Partners and suppliers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific [?]
and risks.
A. information
B. costs
C. utility
D. warranty
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which of these should be logged and managed as a problem?
A. A user requests delivery of a laptop

B. A monitoring tool detects a change of state for a service
C. Trend analysis shows a large number of similar incidents
D. 'Continual improvement' needs to prioritize an improvement opportunity
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
In which two situations should the ITIL guiding principles be considered?
1. In every initiative
2. In relationships with all stakeholders
3. Only in specific initiatives where the principle is relevant
4. Only in specific stakeholder relationships where the principle is relevant
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which guiding principle recommends coordinating all dimensions of service management?

B. Progress iteratively with feedback
C. Think and work holistically
D. Keep it simple and practical
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
What is the purpose of the 'relationship management' practice?
A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders
B. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs
C. To set clear business-based targets for service performance
D. To support the agreed quality of a service handling all agreed, user-initiated service requests
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
How should the workflow for a new service request be designed?
A. Use a single workflow for all types of service request

B. Use different workflows for each type of service request
C. Avoid workflows for simple service requests
D. Leverage existing workflows whenever possible
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
What is the purpose of the 'information security management' practice?
A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

B. To observe services and service components
C. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is available when and where it is needed
D. To plan and manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
The use of [?] should support, not replace what is observed, when using the 'start where you are' guiding principle.
A. measurement
B. tools
C. plans
D. process
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
How should automation be implemented?
A. By replacing human intervention wherever possible

B. By replacing the existing tools first
C. By initially concentrating on the most complex tasks
D. By optimizing as much as possible first
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which activity is part of the 'continual improvement' practice?
A. Identifying and logging opportunities

B. Delivering tactical and operational engagement with customers
C. Populating and maintaining the asset register
D. Providing a clear path for users to report issues, queries, and requests
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which competencies are required by the 'service level management' practice?
A. Problem investigation and resolution

B. Business analysis and commercial management
C. Incident analysis and prioritization
D. Balanced scorecard reviews and maturity assessment
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Which practice uses techniques such as SWOT analysis, balanced scorecard reviews, and maturity assessments?
A. Incident management
B. Problem management
C. Continual improvement
D. Service request management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which statement about costs is CORRECT?
A. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service utility

B. Costs removed from the consumer are part of the value proposition
C. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service warranty
D. Costs removed from the consumer are part of service consumption
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
What is typically needed to assign complex incidents to support groups?
A. A self-help tool
B. The incident priority
C. A change schedule
D. The incident category
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Which practice has a purpose that includes aligning the organization's practices and services with changing business needs?
A. Service level management

B. Service configuration management
C. Relationship management
D. Continual improvement
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
A major incident has been closed, but there is a risk that it might happen again. How should this be logged and managed?
A. As a change request
B. As a service request
C. As an event
D. As a problem
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
What should be done to determine the appropriate metrics for measuring a new service?
A. Measuring the performance over the first six months, and basing a solution on the results
B. Asking customers to provide numerical targets that meet their needs
C. Asking customers open questions to establish their requirements
D. Using operational data to provide detailed service reports
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
Which dimension includes activities and workflows?

B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
What should be used to set user expectations for request fulfillment times?
A. The time that the customer indicates for service delivery

B. The consumer demand for the service
C. The time needed to realistically deliver the service
D. The service levels of the supplier
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
Which is one of the five aspects of service design?
A. Management information systems and tools

B. Risk analysis and management approach
C. Management policy for business case creation
D. Corporate governance and policy
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
Which statement about IT service management is CORRECT?
A. It is performed by customers using a mix of IT systems, services and processes

B. It is performed by IT service providers using a mix of suppliers and their products
C. It is performed by the service desk using a mix of people, process and technology
D. It is performed by IT service providers using a mix of people, process and technology
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Which is the CORRECT explanation of the 'R' role in a RACI matrix?
A. This role ensures that activities are executed correctly

B. This role has ownership of the end result
C. This role is involved in providing knowledge and input
D. This role ensures the flow of information to stakeholders
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which statement about change management is CORRECT?
A. It optimizes overall business risk

B. It optimizes financial exposure
C. It ensures that all changes are authorized by the change advisory board (CAB)
D. It ensures that service requests follow the normal change management process
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which statement about the 'four Ps' of service design is CORRECT?
A. Processes refers to skill and training

B. Partners refers to suppliers and vendors
C. People refers to technology and tools
D. Products refers to producers and metrics
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
What is the primary focus of business capacity management?
A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which is NOT a structure of service desk that is described in the ITIL service operation guidance?
A. Local
B. Centralized
C. Outsourced
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
What type of change is pre-authorized, low risk, relatively common, and follows a procedure or work instruction?
A. A standard change
B. An emergency change
C. An internal change
D. A normal change
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data into information?
A. Change evaluation
B. Knowledge management
C. Service validation and testing
D. Service asset and configuration management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which service catalogue view is considered beneficial when constructing the relationship between services, SLAs, OLAs, and other underpinning agreements?
A. Service-based SLA view

B. Wholesale customer view
C. Retail customer view
D. Supporting services view
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 91
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
B. Change management, capacity management, event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
A. To produce service design packages and ensure they are handed over to service transition
B. To assess and evaluate all changes and their impact on service designs
C. To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers
D. To gather and document new service level requirements from the customer
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 93
What MAIN factors are considered to assess the priority of an incident?
A. The urgency and impact

B. The impact and complexity
C. The cost and urgency
D. The complexity and cost
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
Which term is used to describe the prediction and control of income and expenditure within an organization?
A. Charging
B. Governance
C. Budgeting
D. Accounting
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be stored?
A. In the definitive capacity library

B. In the definitive media library
C. In the definitive security library
D. In the definitive production library
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Which stage of the service lifecycle has the purpose of looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service strategy
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management?
A. Contribution to the definition of services

B. Interfaces between all services and supporting services
C. Interfaces between the service catalogue and service portfolio
D. Fulfilment of business service requests
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
What three elements make up the Service Portfolio?
A. Customer portfolio, service catalogue and retired services

B. Customer portfolio, configuration management system and service catalogue
C. Service pipeline, service catalogue and retired services
D. Service pipeline, configuration management system and service catalogue
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?
A. The change management process owner

B. The change advisory board (CAB)
C. The service owner
D. The continual service improvement manager
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which is a supplier category?
A. Technical
B. Commodity
C. Customer
D. Resource
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which process is used to compare the value that new services offer with the value of the services they have replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 103
Which is an important principle of communication in service operation?
A. Information should always be communicated

B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C. Meetings are always the best method of communication
D. It is stored in the configuration management system
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 104
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service

B. Service metrics
C. The total cost of a service
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 105
Which statement about metrics is CORRECT?
A. Process metrics can be used to measure end-to-end service performance

B. Technology metrics can be used to measure component performance and availability
C. Process metrics can be used to measure the utilization of a supplier's network
D. Technology metrics can be used to determine the overall health of a process
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 106
What takes place in the "Did we get there?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. An initial baseline assessment
B. The production of a detailed CSI plan
C. Verifying that improvement targets have been achieved
D. Understanding priorities for improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which is an example of improving service utility using service management automation?
A. Pre-determined routing of a service request

B. Reducing the time to compile service data
C. Monitoring service availability
D. Faster resource allocation
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 108
What is the CORRECT definition of service management?
A. A set of specialized assets for transitioning services into the live operational environment
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the form of services
C. The capability of supplier to deliver services to providers in exchange for money
D. The capability of service providers to minimize their costs without reducing the value of the services
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which is the correct combination of items that makes up an IT service?
A. Customers, providers and documents

B. Information technology, people and processes
C. Information technology, networks and people
D. People, processes and customers
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 111
What can be used to help determine the impact level of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which are phases of the release and deployment process?
1. Release build and test 2. Review and close
3. Categorize and record
4. Change authorization and schedule
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 113
Which function is responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
Which are the elements of process control?
A. Inputs, outputs and triggers

B. Work instructions, procedures and roles
C. Resources, capabilities and metrics
D. Process owner, policy and objectives
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?
A. Supplier management and service level management

B. Supplier management and change management
C. Availability management and service level management
D. Supplier management and availability management
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the business?
A. It allows higher volumes of successful change
B. It reduces unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages
D. It enables the service provider to understand what levels of service will make their customers successful
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 117
What is a definition of a service improvement plan (SIP)?
A. A formal plan to implement improvements to a customer's business processes

B. An input from availability management to service level management, detailing the service design plan
C. A formal plan to implement improvements to a service or process
D. An input from financial management for IT services to service level management, detailing the budget plan
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
Which statement about the known error database (KEDB) is CORRECT?
A. It is maintained by the service desk and updated with the details of each new incident
B. It is a part of the configuration management database (CMDB) and contains workarounds
C. It is maintained by problem management and is used by the service desk to help resolve incidents
D. It is maintained by incident management and contains solutions to be implemented by problem management
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and logged?
A. Change management
B. Service level management
C. Access management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 120
What should a release policy include?
A. The process owner and process manager for each type of release
B. The roles and responsibilities for incident and problem resolution
C. The naming convention and expected frequency of each type of release
D. The naming convention for all configuration items (CI) recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 121
Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with end-to-end service delivery?
A. Focus on value
B. Think and work holistically
D. Collaborate and promote
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 122
What is the purpose of the 'problem management' practice?
A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

B. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors
C. To align the organization's practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of services
D. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 123
Which practice would help a user gain access to an application that they need to use?
A. Service configuration management

B. Change enablement
C. Service request management
D. Service level management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Why should some service requests be fulfilled with no additional approvals?
A. To ensure that spending is properly accounted for

B. To ensure that information security requirements are met
C. To streamline the fulfillment workflow
D. To set user expectations for fulfillment times
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 125
Which is a purpose of the 'service desk' practice?
A. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
B. To be the entry point and single point of contact for the service provider with all of its users
C. To support the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests
D. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 126
Which are elements of the service value system?
A. Service provision, service consumption, service relationship management

B. Governance, service value chain, practices
C. Outcomes, utility, warranty
D. Customer value, stakeholder value, organization
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 127
What is defined as an unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of a service?
A. An incident
B. A problem
C. A change
D. An event
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 128
Which statement about the use of measurement in the 'start where you are' guiding principle is CORRECT?
A. It should always be used to support direct observation

B. It should always be used instead of direct observation
C. Measured data is always more accurate than direct observation
D. The act of measuring always positively impacts results
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 129
What is an incident?
A. The planned removal of an item that might affect a service

B. A result enabled by one or more outputs
C. A possible future event that could cause harm
D. A service interruption resolved by the use of self-help tools
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 130
What is defined as a change of state that has significate for the management of an IT service?
A. Event
B. Incident
C. Problem
D. Known error
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 131
Which dimension includes the knowledge needed for the management of services?

B. Value streams and processes
D. Partners and suppliers
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 132
What is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services?
A. Service offering
B. Service provision
C. Service management
D. Service consumption
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 133
What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?
A. To support the 'incident management' practice and improvement planning

B. To manage emergency changes
C. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts
D. To manage standard changes
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 134
What are guiding principles?
A. A set of interconnected activities that help an organization deliver a valuable service

B. A description of one or more services that help address the needs of a target consumer group
C. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers
D. Recommendations that help an organization when adopting a service management approach
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Which guiding principle focuses on reducing costs and human errors?
A. Focus and value

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 136
What is the purpose of the 'incident management' practice?
A. To minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
B. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests
C. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents
D. To support the agreed service quality by effective handling of all agreed user-initiated service requests
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Which practice makes new services available for use?
A. Change enablement
B. Release management
C. Deployment management
D. IT asset management
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 138
Which guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty?

B. Focus on value
D. Start where you are
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 139
Which guiding principle helps to ensure that each improvement effort has more focus and is easier to maintain?

C. Progress iteratively with feedback
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which is a key activity carried out in the 'did we get there?' step of the 'continual improvement' model?
A. Define measurable targets

B. Perform baseline assessments
C. Execute improvement actions
D. Evaluate measurements and metrics
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 141
What is important for a 'continual improvement register' (CIR)?
A. Improvement ideas are documented, assessed and prioritized

B. Improvement ideas from many sources are kept in a single CIR
C. Improvement ideas that are not being actioned immediately are removed from the CIR
D. Improvement ideas are tested, funded and agreed
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Section: (none)
QUESTION 142
What can a service remove from the consumer and impose on the consumer?
A. Utility
B. Asset
C. Cost
D. Outcome
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 143
In which step of the 'continual improvement model' is an improvement plan implemented?
A. What is the vision?

B. How do we get there?
C. Take action
D. Did we get there?
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 144
Which is a purpose of the 'service level management' practice?
A. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders
B. To ensure that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
C. To set clear business-based targets for service levels
D. To support the agreed quality of a service handling all agreed, user-initiated service requests
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which is an example of a business related measurement?
A. The number of passengers checked in

B. The average time to response to change requests
C. The average resolution time for incidents
D. The number of problems resolved
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 146
What describes the steps needed to create and deliver a specific service to a consumer?
A. Service management
B. Practices
C. A value stream
D. Service level management
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 147
Which statement about the automation of service requests is CORRECT?
A. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as incidents

B. Service requests and their fulfillment should be automated as much as possible
C. Service requests that cannot be automated should be handled as problems
D. Service requests and their fulfillment should be carried out by service desk staff without automation
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 148
A user is [?] that uses services.
A. an organization
B. a role
C. a team
D. a supplier
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 149
Which gives a user access to a system?
A. Service requirement
B. Service agreement
C. Service consumption
D. Service provision
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
What is a change schedule PRIMARILY used for?
A. To help plan, authorize and schedule emergency changes

B. To publish a list of service requests that users can select
C. To ensure that a single change authority reviews every change
D. To help plan changes, assist in communication and avoid conflicts
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 151
What is used to link activities within the service value chain?
A. Service level agreements

B. Inputs, outputs and triggers
C. Opportunity, demand and value
D. Service desk
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 152
Which describes the utility of a service?
A. A service that is fit for use

B. A service that meets its service level targets
C. A service that increases constraints on the consumer
D. A service that supports the performance of the consumer
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which two practices use workarounds?
A. Change enablement and continual improvement

B. Change enablement and problem management
C. Problem management and incident management
D. Incident management and continual improvement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which statement about the 'change enablement' practice is CORRECT?
A. Standard changes are those that need to be scheduled, assessed and authorized following a standard process
B. Normal changes are triggered by the creation of a change request which can be created manually or automated
C. Assessment and authorization of normal changes should be expedited to ensure they can be implemented quickly
D. There should be a separate change authority for standard changes which includes senior managers who understand the risks involved
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 155
Which is included in the purpose of the 'deliver and support' value chain activity?
A. Meeting stakeholder expectations for time to market

B. Understanding the organization's service vision
C. Understanding stakeholder needs
D. Providing services to agreed specifications
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Exam Code: ITILFND V4

A. Progress iteratively with feedback

A. Service configuration management

A. Each time the standard change is implemented

A. Assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements

A. The management of resources configured to deliver the service

A. It should be managed at the senior level of the organization

A. Service value chain activities

A. An outcome can be enabled by more than one output

A. Service level management

A. Ensuring that service components are available when needed

A. The guiding principles

A. Start where you are

A. Whenever the workaround is used

A. To help an organization make good decisions

A. Requesting a workaround for an issue

A. Make 'focus on value' a responsibility of the management

A. Optimize and automate

A. It should be written in legal language

A. By paying for the service

A. Single system-based metrics

A. Incident analysis skills

A. As soon as a solution for the problem has been identified

A. Information security management

A. It enables quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents

A. Investor and supplier

A. Changes that are low-risk and pre-authorized

A. Service value streams

A. Problem logging, problem classification, problem resolution

A. Meeting expectations for quality, costs and time-to-market

A. Progress iteratively with feedback

A. Organizations and people

A. A user requests delivery of a laptop

A. Start where you are

A. Use a single workflow for all types of service request

A. To protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

A. By replacing human intervention wherever possible

A. Identifying and logging opportunities

A. Problem investigation and resolution

A. Costs imposed on the consumer are costs of service utility

A. Service level management

A. Organizations and people

A. The time that the customer indicates for service delivery

A. Management information systems and tools

A. It is performed by customers using a mix of IT systems, services and processes

A. This role ensures that activities are executed correctly

A. It optimizes overall business risk

A. Processes refers to skill and training

A. Service-based SLA view

A. The urgency and impact

A. In the definitive capacity library

A. Contribution to the definition of services

A. Customer portfolio, service catalogue and retired services

A. The change management process owner

A. Information should always be communicated

A. The value of a service

A. Process metrics can be used to measure end-to-end service performance

A. Pre-determined routing of a service request