MAT 2002

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 Language Comprehension
Instructions

Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is stated or implied there in :
Passage I :

The public sector is at the cross roads ever since the launch of economic reforms programme in India. The pendulum
has been swinging between survival and surrender. It is the result of a confluence of several factors : a shift in global
economic environment, the emergence of the market economy and myths surrounding the performance of the public
sector. So virulent has been the onslaught that it is becoming axiomatic that by the very concept, the public sector is
inefficient and resource waster whereas private enterprise is resource efficient.

The reform programme in India commenced with the policy of restricting of the public sector supported by greater
public participation. With the passage of time, the process of liberalisation has shifted to privatisation in a disguised
form couched asstrategic role, in the wake of the recent hot pursuit of the wholesale privatisation programme a lively
ana poignant debate has emerged. It provides a golden opportunity to introspect and revisit the issue.

At the very outset, it must be made clear that in the worldwide liberalised economic environment and very high stake
of the state in most public sector undertakings disinvestment policy seeks to differentiate closed or bankrupt
enterprise from the private sector — a fact deliberately over looked by the champions of privatisation. These
undertakings need immediate attention. They are an unnecessary drain on the public exchequer. A high priority area
for the disinvestment programme ought to be these enterprises but under one or the other argument these remain
unattended, may beit involves a tough task.. If these cannot be sold lock, stock and barrel asset stripping is the only
option. Obviously the government cannot realise good price from these assets but their disposal will help stop the
drain. If the assets are depreciated or became obsolete, then there is no point in holding on to them indefinhely and
take to softer option of selling the vibrant and highly profit-making organisations to reduce the budgetary deficit. Non
performers exist both in public and private sectors. Why condemn the public sector as a whole? Better option will be
closure or privatisation of loss-making and non-viable units supporting PSU's which could be turned around and
become healthy and viable and providing autonomyto the boards of PSU's which are performing well and have
potential to be globally competitive be welcome. With public participation in the PSU's there will be a good dose of
accountability in the system. What needs to be reviewed are some basic issues : the priorities allocated to the
enterprises selected for disinvestment, a comprehensive road map delineating the route, the modes and modalities
timing andits consequences. These basic issues require greater discussion and participative decisionmaking. In any
event, the disinvestment programme in respect of the closed and non revivable units is a mustif the drain of further
resourcesis to be prevented.

Let it be understood that PSU's are a big repository of value andit will take quite some time for privatisation
programmeto materialise despite the desire to expedite the process. Until then if a vacuum emerges attended by
uncertainty it will do a great harm to the investments which were made with such great dedication although desired
now.
The government has withdrawn a budgetary support over the last decade. If some support is extendedit is largely
directed to closed or losing enterprise which have no fortune.

Question 1

The basic issue(s) requiring greater discussion and participative decision making regarding the
disinvestment programme is/are

A The priorities allocated to the enterprises selected for disinvestment

B Acomprehensive road-map delineating the route

C The modes and modalities, timings and its consequence

D All of these

Answer: D

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Question 2

"The public sector is inefficient and resources waster whereas private enterprise is resource-efficient”.
This opinion is due to

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A A shift in global economic environment

B The emergence of market economy

C The myths surrounding the performance of the public sector

D All of these

Answer: D

Question 3

The reform programme in India, started with the policy of restructuring of PSUs, has got shifted to

A Liberalisation

B Privatisation

C Globalisation

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 4

What were made with great dedication earlier, but now derided ?

A Disinvestment

B Investments in PSUs

C Wholesale privatisation programme

D Strategic plans

Answer: B

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Question 5

According to the author, non-performers exist in.

A Government

B Public sector

C Private sector

D Public and private sectors

Answer: D

Question 6

An appropriatetitle to the passage will be

A "Disinvestment of PSUs"

B "Economic Reforms Programmesin India”

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C "liberalised Economic Environment"

D "Non-performing Assets”

Answer: A

Instructions

Read the following passage carefully to answer these questions based on what is stated or implied therein :
Passage II :

Of the many aspects of public administration, the ethical aspect is perhaps the most important but the least codified.
While administrative rules and procedures have been codified in various public documents and manuals there is no
manual for the ethics of public servants.

While organisational behaviour analyses the factors which influence the behaviour of individuals in an organisation,
ethics refers to those norms and standards which behaviour of the people in an organisation must conform to. While
behaviour analysis deals with factual aspects, ethics relates to the normative aspects of administration. The normative
aspects are of the greatest significance. Just as for an individual if character is lost, everything is lost, so also for an
administration if the ethics is lost, everything is lost. Neither efficiency nor loyalty could be substitute for high ethical
standards. In India, though there is no etnical code for public administrators, there are what are called, the
Government Servants Conduct Rules. These rules lay down what constitutes misconduct for the public servants. It is
apparently implied that such misconduct, which is not permitted, is also unethical conduct.

Question 7

As per the passage, organisational behaviour is

A Same as ethics in organisations

B Different from ethics in organisations

C Human behaviour in organisations including ethics

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 8

Ethics is to an administration, what character is for

A An administrator

B An official

C An individual

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 9

Government Servants’ Conduct Rules are meant for

A Guiding the ethical conduct of government servants

B Guiding what constitutes misconductfor public

C Guiding what constitutes misconduct for government servants

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D None of these

Answer: C

Question 10

The underlined word 'manual' in the context of the given passage means

A Hand operated

B Physical

C Guide book

D None of these

Answer: C

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Instructions

Choose the word that does NOT match with the two given words.

Question 11

Wonderful, Fabulous

A Superb

B Superlative

C Great

D Splendid

Answer: C

Question 12

Inordinate, Huge

A Excessive

B Considerable

C Insatiable

D Enormous

Answer: C

Question 13

Laconic, Succinct

A Terse

B Brief

C Concise

D Abrupt

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 Answer: D

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Instructions

Choose the appropriate set of words that makes the sentence most meaningful.

Question 14

The .......... successfully repelled every ........... on the city.

A Defenders, Comment

B Citizens, Onslaught

C Thieves, Robbery

D Judge, Criticism

Answer: B

Question 15

He was ........... very clever, but he ............ performed excellently.

A Certainly, Obviously

B Never, Also

C Not, Always

D Rarely, Seldom

Answer: C

Question 16

A ............ analysis of these substances will show that they differ ............

A Random, Minutely

B Detailed, Essentially

C Careful, Completely

D Final, Structurally

Answer: B

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Instructions

In each of those questions, one sentenceis split and written in four portions. Each sentence is complete, but contains
an error. Choosethe portion of the sentence with the error.

Question 17

Refer to above.

A A very miserly

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B farmer who lived

C with his wife

D in the Jamaican islands

Answer: B

Question 18

Refer to above.

A Mrs. Singh was

B emphasising

C on the importance

D of coming for class

Answer: C

Question 19

Refer to above.

A The children

B in front

C has no

D shoes on

Answer: C

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Instructions

In these questions, a word is given with its meaning. Choosethe alternative that does NOT match with the given
meaning.

Question 20

Obtuse : unintelligent

A Developmentally disabled person

B An illogical argument

C Acareless calculation

D An unreasonable demand

Answer: B

Question 21

Querulous : peevish

A Achild telling tales

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B Aperson redressing at a consumer court

C An elite grumbling about a shabby reception

D Aman unhappywith the state's policies

Answer: A

Question 22

Synchronised : in harmony

A The human body

B Achoreographer

C A live orchestra

D A flock of birds

Answer: C

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Instructions

Choose a word or phrase similar in meaning to the capitalised word.

Question 23

IMPOSTURE

A Claim

B Status

C Destruction

D Deception

Answer: D

Question 24

PROBOSCIS

A Search

B Probe

C Snout

D Prove

Answer: C

Question 25

PARLEY

A Discuss

B Deliver

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C Sweeten

D Race

Answer: A

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Instructions

Choose the most appropriate preposition to complete the sentence.

Question 26

The country is ushering .......... a new era.

A into

B in

C of

D over

Answer: B

Question 27

He is a traitor .......... the country.

A for

B to

C in

D of

Answer: B

Question 28

The event passed ............ without any untoward incident.

A of

B on

C off

D away

Answer: C

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Instructions

Choose from the given alternative words, the one that is opposite in meaning to the word given.

Question 29

Predilection

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A Antipathy

B Ignorance

C Dissonance

D Disharmony

Answer: A

Question 30

Docile

A Unmanageable

B Dutiful

C Submissive

D Painful

Answer: A

Question 31

Equivocal

A Mistaken

B Quaint

C Clear

D Universal

Answer: C

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Instructions

In each of these questions, a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the one which best
expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.

Question 32

OVATION : APPLAUSE ::

A Memory: oblivion

B Route : defeat

C Grief : loss

D Triumph : failure

Answer: C

Question 33

TUESDAY : THURSDAY ::

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A Day : night

B Near : adjacent

C Winter : spring

D February : April

Answer: D

Question 34

WIND : GALE ::

A Disaster : calamity

B Storm : sea

C Love : passion

D Disgust: infatuation

Answer: C

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Instructions

In each of these questions, a sentence has four words or phrases that are underlined. Choose that word or phrase
which would not be appropriate in standard written English.

Question 35

He gave me a pass (A) / so (B) / that I can (C) / visit (D) the exhibition.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

Question 36

The new (A)/innovations (B)/ in the (C)/ department were (D) successful.

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: A

Question 37

You (A) / must carry (B) / your luggages (C) / yourself. (D)

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A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: C

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Instructions

In each of these questions, a disarranged sentence is given. The parts of each sentence are marked as. P, Q, R and S.
Choose the arrangement from the alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) which will make the correct sentence.

Question 38

P: checked regularly
Q: you should have
R: blood pressure
S: your

A RSPQ

B RQSP

C QSRP

D RSQP

Answer: C

Question 39

P: she
Q: his phone number
R: didn't know
S: she claimed

A SPRQ

B QRPS

C RSPQ

D RPQS

Answer: A

Question 40

P: Indian
Q: earn as much
R: working women
S: asmen

A QSRP

B PRSQ

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C SRPQ

D PRQS

Answer: D

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Mathematical Skills
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 41

In a group of 15 women, 7 have nose studs, 8 have ear rings and 3 have neither. How many of these have
both nose studs and ear rings?

A 0

B 2

C 3

D 7

Answer: C

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Question 42

Shatabadi Express has a capacity of 500 seats of which 10%are in the Executive Class and the rest being
Chair Cars. During one journey, the train was booked to 85% of its capacity. If Executive Class was
booked to 96% of its capacity, then how many Chair Car seats were empty during that journey?

A 75

B 73

C 71

D None of these

Answer: B

Question 43

A person pays Rs. 975 in monthly instalments, each monthly instalment being less than the former by
Rs. 5. The amount of the first instalment is Rs. 100. In what time, will the entire amount be paid?

A 12 months

B 26 months

C 15 months

D 18 months

Answer: C

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Question 44

p% of a number P is q% more than r% of the number R. If the difference between P and R is r% of R and if
the sum of P and is 210, then which of the following statements is always true ?

A P = 110; R = 100

B P = 220; R = 200

C P = 3300; R = 3000

D All of the above

Answer: A

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Question 45

A vessel is fully filled with a special liquid. Four litres of liquid is drawn out of this vessel and is replaced
with water. If the ratio of the special liquid to the water becomes 1 : 2, then what is the capacity of the
vessel?

A 8 litres

B 10 litres

C 12 litres

D 14 litres

Answer: C

Question 46

The weight of a solid cone having diameter 14 cm and vertical height 51 cm is ..........., if the material of
solid cone weighs 10 grams per cubic cm.

A 16.18 kg

B 17.25 kg

C 26.16 kg

D 71.40 kg

Answer: C

Question 47

A box contains 10 balls out of which 3 are red and the rest are blue. In how many ways can a random
sample of 6 balls be drawn from the bag so that at the most 2 red balls are included in the sample and no
sample has all the 6 balls of the same colour?

A 105

B 168

C 189

D 120

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 Answer: B

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Question 48

‘A’ wants to secure an annual income of Rs. 1500 by investing in 15% debentures of face value Rs. 100
each and available for Rs. 104 each. If the brokerage is 1%, then the sum of money he should invest is

A Rs. 19642

B Rs. 10784

C Rs. 10504

D Rs. 15000

Answer: C

Question 49

A cycle agent buys 30 bicycles, of which 8 are first grade and the rest are second grade, for Rs. 3150.
Find at what price he must sell the first grade bicycles so that if he sells the second grade bicycles at
three quarters of the price, he may make a profit of 40% on his outlay?

A Rs. 200

B Rs. 240

C Rs. 180

D Rs. 210

Answer: C

Question 50
x
If logx a, a 2 and log b x are in GP then x is

A loga(logb a)

B loga(loge a) + loga(loge b)

C -loga(loga b)

D -loga(loge b) + loga(loge a)
Answer: A

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Question 51

The angles of elevation of an artificial satellite measured from two earth stations are 30∘ and 40∘
respectively, if the distance between the earth stations is 4000 km, then the height of the satellite is

A 2000 km

B 6000 km

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C 3464 km

D 2828 km

Answer: C

Question 52

By selling 33 metres of cloth, a shopkeeper gains the price of 11 metres of cloth. His gain percent is

A 7%

B 50%

C 20%

D 22%

Answer: B

Question 53

A cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from 20 players including 6 bowlers and 3 wicket keepers.
The number of ways in which a team can be formed having exactly 4 bowlers and 2 wicket keepers is

A 20790

B 6930

C 10790

D 360

Answer: A

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Question 54

Sanjay borrowed a certain sum from Anil at a certain rate of simple inerest for 2 years. He lent this sum
to Ram at the same rate of interest compounded annually for the same period. At the end of two years,
he received Rs. 4200 as compound interest but paid Rs. 4000 only as simple interest. Find the rate of
interest.

A 15%

B 20%

C 35%

D 10%

Answer: D

Question 55

A man in a train notices that he can count 21 telephone posts in one minute. If they are known to be 50
metres apart, then at what speedis the train travelling?

A 57 km/h

B 60 km/h

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C 63 km/h

D 55 km/h

Answer: B

Question 56

A racecourse is 400 metres long. A and Brun a race and Awins by 5 metres. B and C run over the same
course and B wins by 4 metres. C and D run over it and D wins by 16 metres. If Aand D run over it, then
who would win and by how much?

A A, by 8.4 metres

B D, by 8.4 metres

C D, by 7.2 metres

D A, by 7.2 metres

Answer: C

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Question 57

A track is in the form of a ring whose inner circumference is 352 m and the outer circumference is 396 m.
The width of the track is

A 44 m

B 14 m

C 22 m

D 7m

Answer: D

Question 58

At a dinner party, every two guests used a dish of rice between them. Every three guests used a dish of
daal and every four used a dish of meat between them. There were altogether 65 dishes. How many
guests were present?

A 75

B 59

C 60

D 65

Answer: C

Question 59

In an examination paper there are two groups, each containing 4 questions. A candidate is required to
attempt 5 questions but not more than 3 questions from any group. In how many ways can 5 questions
be selected?

A 24

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B 48

C 96

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 60

In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?

A 6.25

B 6.50

C 6.75

D 7.00

Answer: A

Question 61

The average (arithmetic mean) of x andy is 40. If z = 10, then whatis the average of x, y and z ?

2
A 16( 3 )

B 30

C 25

1
D 17( 2 )

Answer: B

Question 62

If a solid sphere of radius 10 cm is mouldedinto 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius then the surface
area of each ball is

A 60 π cm2
π
B 50 π cm2

C 75 π cm2
π
D 100 π cm2
Answer: D

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Question 63

If 7% of the sale price of an article is equivalent to 8% of its cost price and 9% of its sale price exceeds
10%of its cost price by Re. 1, then what is the costprice of the article?

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A Rs. 400

B Rs. 350

C Rs. 300

D Rs. 280

Answer: B

Question 64

Two passengers boarding a flight were found to have between them 34.5 kg of luggage. As per the
excess luggage policy of the flight operator, the two passengers were made to pay Rs. 3.75 and Rs. 6.00
for the excess weight of their luggage. Later they found out that if the same luggage wereto belong to
just one person, then the excess luggage fee would have been Rs. 13.50. How muchfree luggageis
allowed for each passenger?

A 8 kg

B 9 kg

C 6.5 kg

D 7.5 kg

Answer: D

Question 65

A person wishes to make a 100 sq m rectangular garden. Since he has only 30 m barbed wire for fencing,
he fences only three sides letting the house wall act as the fourth side The width of the garden is

A 10 m

B 5m

C 50 m

D 100 m

Answer: B

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Question 66

A daily wage worker was paid Rs: 1,700 during a period of 30 days. During this period he was absent for
4 days and was fined Rs. 15 per day for absence. He waspaid the full salary only for 18 days as he came
late on the other days. Those who came late were given only half the salary for that day. What was the
total salary paid per month to a worker who came on time every day and was never absent?

A Rs. 2400

B Rs. 3000

C Rs. 2700

D Rs. 2250

Answer: A

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Question 67

The number of rectangles that you can find on a chessboard is

A 1764

B 1600

C 1825

D 1296

Answer: D

Question 68

A car driver travels from the plains to the hill station, which are 200 km apart, at an average speed of 40
km/h. In the return trip, he covers the same distance at an average speed of 20 km/h. The average speed
of the car over the entire distance of 400 km is

A 16.56 km/h

B 17.89 km/h

C 26.67 km/h

D 35 km/h

Answer: C

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Question 69

The area of a square increases by ........... if its side increases by 30%

A 71%

B 60%

C 69%

D 30%

Answer: C

Question 70

The monthly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 4 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the
ratio of 7 : 9. If each saves Rs. 50 a month, then what are their monthly incomes?

A Rs. 100, Rs. 125

B Rs. 200, Rs. 250

C Rs. 300, Rs. 375

D Rs. 400, Rs. 500

Answer: D

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Question 71
1
A's age is 6 th of B's age. B's age will be twice of C's age after 10 years. If C's eighth birthday was
celebrated two years ago, then the present age of A must be

A 5 years

B 10 years

C 15 years

D 20 years

Answer: A

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Question 72

A manufacturer offers a 20% rebate on the marked price of a product. The retailer offers another 30%
rebate on the reduced price. The two reductions are equal to a single reduction of

A 50%

B 44%

C 46%

D 40%

Answer: B

Question 73

A leak was found in a ship when it was 77 km from the shore. It was found that the leak admits 2.25
tonnes of water in 5.5 minutes. 92 tonneswill suffice to sink the ship. But the pumps can throw out the
water @ 12 tonnes an hour. Find the averagerate of sailing at which the ship may reach the shore as she
begins to sink.

A 9.75 km/h

B 13 km/h

C 14.5 km/h

D 10.5 km/h

Answer: D

Question 74

Suppose six coins are flipped. Then the probability of getting at least one tail is

71
A 72

53
B 54

63
C 64

D 1
12

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 Answer: C

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Question 75

In the figure, ABCD is a square with side 10. BFD is dn arc of a circle with centre C. BGD is an arc of a
circle with centre A. What is the area of the shaded region?

A 100 − 50π

B 100 − 25π

C 50π − 100

D 25π − 100
Answer: C

Question 76

Three boys and three girls are to be seated around table in a circle. Among them the boy X does not
want any girl neighbour and the girl Y does not want any boy neighbour. How many such arrangements
are possible?

A 5

B 6

C 4

D 2

Answer: C

Question 77
1∘
We have an angle of 2 ( 2 ). How big will it look through a glass that magnifies things three times?

1∘
A 2( 2 ) × 4

1∘
2( ) × Downloaded from cracku.in
 1∘
B 2( 2 ) × 3

1∘
C 2( 2 ) × 2

D none of these

Answer: D

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Question 78

Acircular running path is 726 metres in circumference. Two men start from the same point and walk in
opposite directions @ 3.75 km/h and 4.5 km/h respectively. When will they meetfor the first time?

A 5.5 minutes

B 6.0 minutes

C 5.28 minutes

D 4.9 minutes

Answer: C

Question 79

How many ml of water must be added to 48 ml of alcohol to make a solution that contains 25% alcohol ?

A 48

B 64

C 144

D 192

Answer: C

Question 80

When a bus started from the first stop, the number of male passengers to the number of female
passengers was 3: 1. At the first stop, 16 passengers got down and 6 more female passengers got in.
The ratio of the male to female passengers now became 2 : 1. What was the total number of
passengersin the bus when it started from the first stop?

A 64

B 48

C 54

D 72

Answer: A

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Data Analysis & Sufficiency

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Instructions

The diagram below depicts the sources and uses of funds in a Public Sector Enterprise. The total outlay is Rs. 4000
crore.

Question 81

If working capital has to be managed out of the loan funds, then what percentage (approximately) of
loan funds should be set apart for this purpose?

A 25%

B 40%

C 55%

D 70%

Answer: C

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Question 82

The total amount which has been used for buying land, machinery, setting plants and capital works is
approximately Rs.

A 2000 crore

B 3000 crore

C 3500 crore

D 3800 crore

Answer: B

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Question 83

The total cash credits acquired by the companyare approximately Rs

A 200 crore

B 240 crore

C 270 crore

D 285 crore

Answer: D

Question 84

The company is in need of more working capital. How much capital it can acquire by redeeming its
investments?

A Rs. 144 crore

B Rs. 152 crore

C Rs. 164 crore

D Rs. 184 crore

Answer: C

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Question 85

If the company were to manage its total working capital from internal resources alone, then how much
fund from this resource will still be left for other use?

A Rs. 288 crore

B Rs. 312 crore

C Rs. 344 crore

D Rs. 432 crore

Answer: A

Instructions

The following bar graph depicts the annual rates of Inflation in percentages for 1975 and 1987.

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Question 86

From 1975 to 1987, inflation rate increasedin the third world countries approximately by

A 10%

B 20%

C 30%

D 35%

Answer: D

Question 87

In the year 1975, the lowest rate of inflation was in the

A Developed Nations

B UK

C USA

D Third World

Answer: C

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Question 88

In the year 1987, the inflation rate in the third world countries vis-a-vis the whole world jumped
approximately by

A 50%

B 100%

C 125%

D 200%

Answer: C

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Question 89

Comparing the figures for the USA vis-a-vis the developed nations, it can be concluded that

A USA had better control on inflation

B Developed nations had better contro! on inflation

C The control on inflation rate continues to be the same for the USA and for the developed nations

D No conclusion can be drawn

Answer: C

Instructions

Refer the table given below to answer these questions.

Question 90

In 1979, the maximum reduction in per capita consumption of cement took place in

A USSR

B Italy

C Japan

D India

Answer: A

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Question 91

In 1979, USSR produced more cement than, the combined total of four other countries excluding

A India

B Japan

C Italy

D France

Answer: B

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Question 92

The adverse effect of decline in the consumption of cement in 1979 in comparison to 1978, is likely to be
more in

A USSR

B Italy

C France

D India

Answer: D

Question 93

In 1978, .......... had 15 times more per capita cement consumption thanthatin India.

A France

B West Germany

C USSR

D Japan

Answer: A

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Instructions

Refer the graph below to answerthese questions :

Figure

Question 94

Approximately, what was the actual profit made by the Department Store in the second quarter of 1999?

A Rs. 160 lakh

B Rs. 170 lakh

C Rs. 180 lakh

D Rs. 210 lakh

Answer: A

Question 95

In which of the following quarters, did the Departmental Store make the least amount of profits ?

A Third quarter of 2000

B Second quarter of 1999

C First quarter of 1999

D Third quarter of 1998

Answer: D

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Question 96

During the period 1998-2000, how many quarters exceeded the profit of Rs. 150 lakh?

A 6

B 5

C 4

D 3

Answer: A

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Question 97

In the year 2000, total profit made by the Departmental Store was approximately

A Rs. 540 lakh

B Rs. 630 lakh

C Rs. 720 lakh

D Rs. 770 lakh

Answer: D

Question 98

The total annual profit made by the Departmental Store increased by approximately what percent from
1997 to 2000?

A 40%

B 50%

C 90%

D 120%

Answer: C

Instructions

Study the table given below to answer these questions.

NHPC has undertaken massive afforestation, which is an effective tool in arresting sail erosion and enrichment of
environment. The details are as under

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Question 99

The maximum number of trees has been affected by the project

A Chamera-II (HP)

B Tanakpur

C Uri (J&K)

D Chamera-I (HP)

Answer: D

Free Gk Tests
Question 100

Out of the given projects, the minimum forest area involved has been in respect of

A Dulhasti (J & K)

B Uri (J & K)

C Rangit (Sikkim)

D Chamera-II (HP)

Answer: A

Question 101

Assuring that the trees have been planted on moreorless even distribution, the density of the trees
planted has been maximum in the case of

A Chamera-1 (HP)

B Dulhasti (J & K)

C Rangit (Sikkim)

D None of the above

Answer: B

Question 102

Out of the given projects, maximum forest area involvedis in the State of

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A Himachal Pradesh

B Jammu & Kashmir

C Sikkim

D Uttranchal

Answer: A

Daily Free Topic Test

Instructions

Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions given below it.

Question 103

What is the ratio of the companies having more demandthan production to those having more production
than demand?

A 2:3

B 4:1

C 2:2

D 3:2
Answer: D

Question 104

What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the tive companies
taken together ?

A 1400

B 400

C 280

D 138

Answer: C

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Question 105

The production of company D is how many timesto that of the production of the company A?

A 1.8

B 1.5

C 2.5

D 1.11

Answer: A

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 106

The demand for company B is approximately what percent of the demand for company C?

A 4

B 24

C 20

D 60

Answer: B

Question 107

If company A desires to meet the demand by purchasing TV. sets from a single company, then which one
of the following companies can meetthe need adequately ?

A B

B C

C D

D None of the these

Answer: C

Instructions

The gross investments of Life Insurance Corporation of India (in crore of rupees)in different sectors are shown in the
Pie Chart given below :

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Question 108

The percentage of gross investments in State Government Securities is nearly

A 7.1%

B 7.8%

C 8.6%

D 9.2%

Answer: A

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Question 109

The magnitude of the acute ∠BOC is nearly

A 25∘

B 40∘

C 50∘

D 60∘
Answer: A

Question 110

The investmentin socially-oriented sectors (Plan and Non-Plan) is .... than the investment in Government
Securities (Central and State) by ...........

A more, 4 crore

B more, 1 crore

C more, 1 1 1 crore

D less, 106 crore

Answer: B

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Question 111

The investment in private sector is nearly ........... percent higher than the investment in State
Government Securities.

A 66

B 54

C 46

D 40

Answer: A

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Question 112

The ratio of the area of the sector CDEF to the area of the sector CBAF is nearly

A 1

B 0.75

C 0.50

D 0.25

Answer: A

Instructions

Study the following graph, showing the sales forecast for the next ten weeks, to answer these questions.

Question 113

If the forecasted demand is met by having uniform production during the weeks at an average level, then
the number of weeks during which demand will not be met is

A 2

B 3

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C 4

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 114

lf the production is uniform, then what should be the minimum capacity of the storage space to store the
units in excess of demand?

A 25

B 50

C 100

D 200

Answer: D

Daily Free Topic Test

Question 115

lf the maximum production capacity is 300 units, then the unmet demand will be

A 225

B 275

C 175

D All the demand will be met

Answer: A

Instructions

Each question is followed by two statements ‘A’ and 'B'. Mark your answer as

Question 116

How far is it from town A to town B? TownC is 15 km west of town A.

A. It is 10 km from town to town C.
B. There is a canal between town A and town B.

A If the Question can be answered with the help of statement 'A’ alone.

B If the Question can be answeredwith the help of statement 'B’ alone.

If the Question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not with the help of either
C
statement alone.

D If the Question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together or separately.

Answer: D

Question 117

How many people in town K read neither Times of India nor the Indian Express?
A. Of the 2500 people in town K, 1000 read no newspaper.
B. Of the people in town K, 700 read the Times of India only and 600 read the Indian Express only.

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A If the Question can be answered with the help of statement 'A’ alone.

B If the Question can be answeredwith the help of statement 'B’ alone.

If the Question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not with the help of either
C
statement alone.

D If the Question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together or separately.

Answer: D

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 118

What is the total numberof trips to a certain construction site made by the two trucks delivering 100
metric tons of gravel?
A. The smaller truck carried 5 metric tons of gravel on eachtrip to the site and the larger truck carried 8
metric tons of gravel on eachtrip to the site.
B. Each truck delivers the same total amountof gravel to the site.

A If the Question can be answered with the help of statement 'A’ alone.

B If the Question can be answeredwith the help of statement 'B’ alone.

If the Question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not with the help of either
C
statement alone.

D If the Question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together or separately.

Answer: C

Question 119

John had an average score of 85 in three tests. What was the John's lowest score?
A. John's highest score was 95.
B. The average of John's two highest scores was 92.

A If the Question can be answered with the help of statement 'A’ alone.

B If the Question can be answeredwith the help of statement 'B’ alone.

If the Question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not with the help of either
C
statement alone.

D If the Question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together or separately.

Answer: B

Question 120

What is the area of the play ground P?

A. Playground is rectangular in shape and is 120 metres wide.
B. Playground is square in shape and hasa side with length of 120 metres.

A If the Question can be answered with the help of statement 'A’ alone.

B If the Question can be answeredwith the help of statement 'B’ alone.

C If the Question can be answered with the help of both the statements together but not with the help of either
statement alone.

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D If the Question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements taken together or separately.

Answer: A

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Intelligence & Critical Reasoning

Instructions

Mehta is planning his sales calls for the next day. He is judged and paid by his company both on the basis of the
number of calls he makes and the amount of sales he generates.

Alembic Co. will take only one hour and will probably result in an order of 5 boxes. Bell Corp. will take three hours and
will result in an order of 20 boxes or nothing. Champion Shops Inc. will take one hour and yield an order of 10 boxes.
Des Raj Bros. will take from one to three hours and probably result in an order of 10 to 30 boxes.

Question 121

Under the conditions mentioned above, what is the greatest number of boxes that Mehta can reasonably
help to sell in a seven hour working day?

A 65

B 60

C 45

D 35

Answer: B

Free Gk Tests
Question 122

Under the given conditions, what is the minimum number of boxes that Mehta can reasonably expectto
sell in eight working hours?

A none

B 15

C 20

D 35

Answer: D

Question 123

Mehta has sold 20 boxes to Des Raj Bros, and then his car breaks down and gets repaired only at 2 PM.
What is the minimum sales figure for the day that he can reasonably hope to achieve by 5 PM?

A 35

B 40

C 45

D 55

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 Answer: A

Question 124

If Mehta has an unbreakable thirty minutes lunch on appointment at 1 : 30 PM, then what is his best
schedule for a 9 AM to 5 PM day?

A Alembic and Champion, then Bell and Des Raj Bros.

B Bell Corp and Alembic, then Champion andif time permits, then Des Raj Bros.

C Bell and Champion, then Des Raj Bros andif time permits, then Alembic.

D Champion, Bell Corp., Alembic and Des Raj Bros.

Answer: C

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Question 125

If Mehta is sick and has to carry all his calls over to the next day, when he must visit another company
Escorts from 10.30 AM to 1.30 PM, then what should be his best schedule for the day from 9 AM to 5 PM?

A Champion, Escorts, Des Raj and if time permits, Alembic

B Champion, Escorts, Alembic andif time permits, Des Raja Bros

C Bell, Escorts, Des Raj Bros, andif time permits, Champion

D Alembic, Escorts, Des Raj Bros andif time permits, Champion

Answer: A

Instructions

in the diagram given below, the circle represents Professors in a Medical College, the triangle stands for Surgical
Specialists while the rectangle represents the Medical Specialists:

Question 126

Professors who are also surgical specialists are represented by

A Y

B C

C D

D X

Answer: C

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Question 127

Surgical specialists who are also medical specialists but not professors are represented by

A X

B Y

C Z

D B

Answer: C

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 128

College professors who are also medical specialists are represented by

A Y

B X

C Z

D A

Answer: B

Question 129

'B' represents

A Professors who are not medical specialists

B Professors who are not surgical specialists

C Professors who are neither medical specialists nor surgical specialists

D Medical specialists who are neither professors nor surgical specialists

Answer: D

Question 130

'C' represents

A Professors

B Medical Specialists

C Surgical Specialists

D Medical and Surgical Specialists

Answer: C

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Instructions

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Answer these questions based on the following paragraph:

Five golfers C, D, E, F and G play a series of matches in which the following are always true of the results. Either C is
the last and is the first or C is the first and G is the last. D finishes ahead of E. Every golfer plays in and finishes every
match. There are no ties in any match, i.e. no two players ever finish in the same position in a match.

Question 131

If exactly 1 golfer finishes between C and D, then which of the following must be true?

A C finishes first

B G finishes first

C F finishes third

D E finishes fourth

Answer: D

Question 132

Which of the following CANNOT be true?

A E finishes second

B F finishes second

C F finishes ahead of F

D F finishes ahead of D

Answer: A

Question 133

If D finishes third, then which of the following must be true?

A G finishes first

B E Finishes ahead of F

C F finishes ahead of E

D F finishes behind D

Answer: C

Free Gk Tests
Question 134

If C Finishesfirst, then in how many different orders is it possible for the other golfers to finish?

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 4

Answer: B

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Question 135

Which of the following additional conditions makeit certain that F finishes second?

A C Finishes ahead of D

B D finishes ahead of F

C F finishes ahead of D

D D finishes behind G

Answer: C

Instructions

Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. Take the statement to be true and then decide which of
the conclusions logically follows. Mark your answer as

Question 136

Statement : Of the ten fishermen caught in a storm, nine managed to return to the shore. Praveen has
not yet returned after four days.
Conclusions :
I. Praveen got killed in the storm.
II. Praveen has survived the storm.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If either conclusion I or II follows

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: C

Daily Free Topic Test

Question 137

Statement : Now you don't need an import licence to own a VCR.

Conclusions :
I. VCRs are now manufactured indigenously.
II. VCRs are now freely permitted to be imported.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If either conclusion I or II follows

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: B

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Question 138

Statement : Just about everyone in Germany has been ona diet at one time or the other and millions of
them have learned that the weight they lose is all too easily regained. Still despite their frustration, few
question the wisdom of dieting.
Conclusions :
I. Germans should stop dieting.
II. Germans do not learn from experience.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If either conclusion I or II follows

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: D

Question 139

Statement: A study of Planning Commission reveals boom in revenues. However, this has been of little
avail owing to soaring expenditure. In the event, there has been a high dose of deficit financing, leading
a marked rise in prices. Large financial outlays year after year had little impact on the level of living.
Conclusions :
I. A boom in revenues leads to rise in prices.
II. Large financial outlays should be avoided.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If either conclusion I or II follows

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: D

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 140

Statement : The average number of students per teacher is 50 in the urban areas where a sit is 60 in
rural areas. The national average is 55.
Conclusions :
I. The student-teacher ratio in the rural areas is higher than in the urban areas.
II. More students study with the same teacher in the rural areas as compared to those in the urban
areas.

A If only conclusion I follows

B If only conclusion II follows

C If either conclusion I or II follows

D If neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following information carefully to answer these questions given below it.

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There are six teachers A, B, C, D, E and F ina school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory
subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject is History while three others have it as compulsory subject.
E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of
both C and E. History and English are A's subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are reverse
of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of any one of them. There is only one female teacher in the school
who has English as her compulsory subject.

Question 141

What is C's compulsory subject?

A History

B Physics

C Chemistry

D English

Answer: A

Question 142

Who is a female member in the group?

A A

B B

C C

D D

Answer: D

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Question 143

Who among the following has some compulsory and optional subjects as those of F's?

A D

B B

C A

D C

Answer: D

Question 144

Disregarding which is compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subjects
combination as F?

A A

B B

C E

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D D

Answer: C

Question 145

Which of the following groups of teachers has History as the compulsory subject?

A A, C and D

B B, Cand D

C C and D

D A, B and C

Answer: D

Free Gk Tests
Instructions

Seven poles A, B, C, D, E, F and G are put in such a way that the distance between the next two decreases by 1 metre.
The distance between the first two poles, A and B,is 10 metres, Now answer the following questions?

Question 146

What is the distance between the first pole A and the last pole G?

A 40 m

B 49 m

C 45 m

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 147

lf a monkey hops from pole G to pole C, then how much distance did it cover?

A 26 m

B 19 m

C 22 m

D None of these

Answer: A

Question 148

If the authorities decide to remove one pole and place the remaining on equal distances among the
poles, then each set of two poles would be .......... metres apart.

1
A 88 2

1
B 72

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C 9

D None of these

Answer: C

Daily Free Topic Test

Instructions

In these questions, there are four groups of letters, words or numbers listed as (a), (b), (c) and (d). On of the groups
does not belong to the same category as others. Find the odd one out.

Question 149

A BAT

B RAT

C EAT

D FAT

Answer: C

Question 150

A 5183

B 33442

C 34424

D 25631

Answer: C

Question 151

A USTO

B OOTU

C TTOU

D SSTO

Answer: A

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Instructions

Study the following figure carefully to answer these questions.

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Question 152

How many squares are there in the figure?

A 5

B 6

C 7

D 8

Answer: C

Question 153

Count the number of triangles in the figure.

A 10

B 12

C 17

D 24

Answer: C

Instructions

Find out the missing letter/numberin place of '?’.

Question 154

A M

B Q

C P

D S

Answer: C

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 Download Excellent App for MAT Preparation
Question 155

A 11

B 5

C 9

D 13

Answer: C

Instructions

Use the figure given below to answer these questions.

Question 156

What is the number of triangles in the figure?

A 30

B 27

C 20

D 15

Answer: A

Question 157

What is the number of squares in the figure ?

A 60

B 55

C 50

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D 42

Answer: B

Free Gk Tests
Instructions

if 'EFGHUK'’'is the coded letter representing 'VUTSRQP', then choose the right code for the words given in the capital
letters from the answer choices(a), (b), (c) and (d) :

Question 158

GROUP

A TILFK

B TILEL

C TILGH

D TILHG

Answer: A

Question 159

ZERO

A BUHN

B AVIM

C AVIL

D AVTI

Answer: C

Question 160

HIGH

A STRS

B SRTS

C RSTR

D RJHR

Answer: B

Daily Free Topic Test

Indian & Global Development

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 161

Name India's largest pharma ceutical companywith a turnover of Rs. 1000 crore.

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A Glaxo Smith Kline

B Cipla

C Ranbaxy

D None of these

Answer: C

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 162

Who is currently the Secretary-General of the UN?

A Colin Powell

B TonyBlair

C Kofi Annan

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 163

Under what brand name has MTNL started internet telephony to 168 countries?

A Bol-Anmol

B Talk time

C Baaten Anmol

D Talky

Answer: A

Question 164

Who is the Cabinet Minister for Finance in the NDA Government?

A Yashwant Sinha

B Jaswant Singh

C Anantha Kumar

D None of these

Answer: B

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Question 165

Name the renowned Indian space scientist who has been conferred the Officer of the Legion of Honour by
the French Government.

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A A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

B K. Subramaniyam

C Dr. Seyed E. Hasnain

D K. Kasturirangan

Answer: D

Question 166

How many countries have signed the SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA)?

A Three

B Four

C Six

D Seven

Answer: D

Question 167

The last meeting of the foreign ministers of the ASEAN was held in September 2002. ASEAN stands for

A Academy of South-East Asian Nations

B Association of South-East African Nations

C Association of South-East Asian Nations

D None of the above

Answer: C

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Question 168

How many Union Territories does India have?

A Six

B Seven

C Four

D Five

Answer: A

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Question 169

Which of the following is true about the key points agreed at the recently held Earth Summit, 2002 in
Johannesburg?
I. To halve proportion of people wilhout access to proper sanitation by 2015.
II. To cut significantly the rate at which rare animals and plants are becoming extinct by 2010.
III. To initiate strategies to preserve resourcesfor future generations by 2005.
IV. To increase the share of world energy produced from renewable ‘green’ sources such as solar or wind
power.

A I and II

B I, II and III

C I, II and IV

D I, III and IV

Answer: B

Question 170

Name the country which is the second fastest growing spender in the world on Information Technology.

A France

B Switzerland

C Japan

D India

Answer: D

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Question 171

The Union Disinvestment Minister is

A Yashwant Sinha

B George Fernandes

C Arun Shourie

D None of the above

Answer: C

Question 172

How many countries are the members of SAARC ?

A Four

B Five

C Six

D Seven

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 Answer: D

Question 173

In September 2002, the Cauvery River Authority (CRA) has scaled down the quantum of water to be
released by

A Tamil Nadu to Karnataka

B Kornataka to Tamil Nadu

C Karnataka to Andhra Pradesh

D Tamil Nadu to Kerala

Answer: C

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 174

According to the census 2001, the density of population in India (per sq km) is

A 304

B 324

C 344

D 364

Answer: C

Question 175

The present Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir belongs to

A National Conference

B People’s Democratic Party

C Congress Party

D None of these

Answer: C

Question 176

The Vice-Presidentis the Chairman of the

A Parliament

B Lok Sabha

C Rajya Sabha

D All of the above

Answer: C

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 Download Excellent App for MAT Preparation
Question 177

The 2001 Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration and Management
Sciences has been conferred on

A Azim Hasham Premji

B N. R. Narayana Murthy

C Kumarmangalam Birla

D Anil Ambani

Answer: B

Question 178

How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years?

A Half

B One-third

C One-fourth

D One-Fifth

Answer: B

Question 179

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has declared a bailout package for UTI. It includes
I. Splitting UTI into two UTI-1 and UTI-II.
II. UTI-ll with an asset base of Rs. 17,784 crore would be brought under professional management.
III. Extension of a tax cover to investors holding upto 5000 US-64 units.
IV. UTI-11 will be privatised.

A I, II, III and IV

B I, II and III

C II and III

D III and IV

Answer: A

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Question 180

According to the UNCTAD's World Investment Report 2002, which country has been ranked as the best
performing host economies for the FDI ?

A China

B Angola

C Hong Kong

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D India

Answer: C

Question 181

Tokyo Marine & Fire Insuranceis offering General Insurance of India using the ad tagline "The life you
deserve” in association with

A IDBI

B HDFC

C SIDBI

D IFFCO

Answer: D

Question 182

A.F. Ferguson wasin the newsfor its recent audit survey report of a Tata Company and its subsequent
withdrawl of the report. Name the Tata Company that was under scrutiny.

A TISCO

B Tata Tea

C Tata Finance

D Tata Investment Corporation

Answer: C

Daily Free Topic Test

Question 183

Which country is the latest entry into the United Nations ?

A Eritrea

B Western Sahara

C East Timor

D Albania

Answer: C

Question 184

The 14th Asian Games wereheld in Busan during September-October 2002. Busan is in

A North Korea

B South Korea

C Japan

D Singapore

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 Answer: B

Question 185

Which of the following is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security Council ?

A Germany

B France

C Great Britain

D China

Answer: A

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 186

Who is the Chairperson of the Planning Commission?

A The Vice-President

B The Prime Minister

C The Finance Minister

D The Home Minister

Answer: B

Question 187

Which bank has introduced a wireless applience that uses SMSto authorised credit and transactions?

A UTI Bank

B Citi Bank

C ABN Amro

D ICICI Bank

Answer: B

Question 188

The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is related to

A Asian Trade Development

B International Cyber Crime

C International Drug Trafficking

D Globai Climate Change

Answer: D

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 Download Excellent App for MAT Preparation
Question 189

The dropping of the demand for a separate State by the LTTE during the talks with the Sri Lankan
Government is a favourable development for the resolution of the ethnic conflict. LTTE stands for

A Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam

B Lankan Tigers for Tamil Eelam

C Lankan Troops for Tamil Empire

D None of the above

Answer: A

Question 190

Which organisation was the forerunner to the World Trade Organisation?

A The World Bank

B General Agreementon Tariff Trade (GATT)

C The United Nations Development Fund (UNDP)

D The League of Nations

Answer: B

Question 191

Who among the following is the only Indian businessmanto be listed in Fortune's list, of 40 billionaires
under 40 years of age?

A Anil Ambani

B Kumarmangalam Birla

C Ratan Tata

D Mukesh Ambani

Answer: B

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Question 192

What is Zero Coupon Bond?

A Bond sold at the fraction of its face value

B Bond sold at the fraction of its cost price

C Bond issued for industrialists only

D None of the above

Answer: A

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Question 193

What is the percentage of growth projected by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) for India during
the current financial year ?

A 7.5 percent

B 6.2 percent

C 9.5 percent

D 5.5 percent

Answer: D

Question 194

Which auto major launched the multi utility vehicle-Scorpio ?

A TELCO

B FIAT

C Mahindra

D Toyota

Answer: C

Daily Free Topic Test

Question 195

Which state tourism department's motto is "God's own country"?

A Tamil Nadu

B Himachal Pradesh

C Assam

D Kerala

Answer: D

Question 196

According to NASSCOM, during the fiscal 2002-03, Indian software industry's exports will achieve a
revenue of

A $6.9 billion

B $8.5 billion

C $10.1 billion

D $12.5 billion

Answer: B

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Question 197

Which mountain range does the Konkan railway pass through ?

A western Ghats

B Eastern Ghats

C Nilgiri Hills

D Aravalis

Answer: A

MAT Free Solved Previous Papers

Question 198

The organisation arranging the India International Trade Fair (IITF) is

A ITDC

B ITPO

C CII

D FICCI

Answer: B

Question 199

Which of the following is not among the nine Indian companies listed on NYSE ?

A TCS

B Wipro Ltd.

C Dr. Reddy's Lab

D ICICI Bank

Answer: A

Question 200

When theprice of a substitute of a commodity X falls, then the demandfor X

A Rises

B Falls

C Remains unchanged

D First rises and then falls

Answer: B

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