MICROBIOLOGY BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS: (A) Dental plaque (D) Stomach

Write the CORRECT LETTER on the space provided. Make it a habit not to (B) Mouth (E) Vagina
erase your answer. (C) Skin

NAME: ___11. Vertical transmission is the transmission of organisms from mother to

fetus or newborn child. Infection by which one of the following bacteria is
___1. Bacteria, fungi (yeasts and molds), viruses, and protozoa are important most likely to be transmitted vertically?
causes of human disease. Which one of the following microbes contains (A) Chlamydia trachomatis (D) Shigella dysenteriae
either DNA or RNA but not both? (B) Clostridium tetani (E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(A) Bacteria (D) Viruses (C) Haemophilus influenzae
(B) Molds (E) Yeasts
(C) Protozoa ___12. Which of the following bacteria produce an exotoxin that inhibits the
release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
___2. Which one of the following contains DNA that is not surrounded by a (A) Bacillus anthracis (D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
nuclear membrane? (B) Bordetella pertussis (E) Escherichia coli
(A) Bacteria (C) Protozoa (C) Clostridium botulinum
(B) Molds (D) Yeasts
___13. If the venipuncture site is inadequately disinfected, blood cultures
___3. The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adherence are most often contaminated with which one of the following bacteria?
of the organism to mucous membranes. The bacterial component that (A) E. coli (D) Staph. epidermidis
mediates adherence is the: (B) H. influenzae (E) Strep. pneumoniae
(A) Lipid A (D) Pilus (C) P. aeruginosa
(B) Nucleoid (E) Plasmid
(C) Peptidoglycan ___14. The main purpose of performing a throat culture is to detect the
presence of which one of the ff bacteria?
___4. Of the following bacterial components, which one exhibits the most (A) N. meningitidis (D) Strep. pneumoniae
antigenic variation? (B) Staph. aureus (E) Strep. pyogenes
(A) Capsule (D) Ribosome (C) Staph. epidermidis
(B) Lipid A of endotoxin (E) Spore
(C) Peptidoglycan ___15. A sputum culture will be rejected by the clinical laboratory if:
(A) it is streaked with blood. (D) it contains pus.
___5. β-Lactamases are an important cause of antibiotic resistance. Which (B) it contains IgA antibody. (E) it contains sulfur granules.
one of the following is the most common site where β-lactamases are (C) it contains many more epithelial cells
located?
(A) Attached to DNA in the nucleoid ___16. Which of the ff is the immunogen in the vaccine against Strep.
(B) Attached to pili on the bacterial surface pneumoniae?
(C) Free in the cytoplasm (A) Capsular polysaccharide (D) Pilus protein
(D) Within the capsule (B) Endotoxin (E) Toxoid
(E) Within the periplasmic space (C) Formaldehyde-killed organisms

___6. Bacteria that cause nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections often ___17. Disease caused by which one of the following bacteria is prevented
produce extracellular substances that allow them to stick firmly to medical by a toxoid vaccine?
devices, such as IV catheters. Which one of the following is the name of this (A) Bacteroides fragilis (D) Salmonella typhi
extracellular substance? (B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae (E) Vibrio cholerae
(A) Axial filament (D) Glycocalyx (C) Neisseria meningitidis
(B) Endotoxin (E) Porin
(C) Flagella ___18. Superantigen production by Staphylococcus aureus is involved in the
pathogenesis of which one of the following diseases?
___7. Lysozyme in tears is an effective mechanism for preventing bacterial (A) Impetigo (D) Septicemia
conjunctivitis. Which one of the following bacterial structures does lysozyme (B) Osteomyelitis (E) Toxic shock syndrome
degrade? (C) Scalded skin syndrome
(A) Endotoxin (D) Pilus
(B) Nucleoid DNA (E) Plasmid DNA ___19. A pore-forming exotoxin produced by Staph. aureus that kills cells
(C) Peptidoglycan and is important in the severe, rapidly spreading necrotizing lesions caused
by MRSA strains is:
___8. Some bacteria are obligate anaerobes. Which of the following (A) coagulase. (D) P-V leukocidin.
statements best explains this phenomenon? (B) enterotoxin. (E) staphyloxanthin.
(A) They can produce energy both by fermentation and by respiration using (C) exfoliatin.
the Krebs cycle and cytochromes.
(B) They cannot produce their own ATP. ___20. Which one of the following is a club-shaped, Gm(+) rod that causes
(C) They do not form spores. disease by producing an exotoxin that kills cells by inhibiting elongation
(D) They lack superoxide dismutase and catalase. factor-2, resulting in the inhibition of protein synthesis?
(E) They do not have a capsule (A) Bacillus anthracis (D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(B) Bacillus cereus (E) Listeria monocytogenes
___9. The colon is the site of the largest number of normal flora bacteria. (C) Clostridium perfringens
Which one of the following bacteria is found in the greatest number in the
colon? ___21. Which one of the following is a large Gm(+) rod that causes necrosis
(A) Bacteroides fragilis (D) Escherichia coli of tissue by producing an exotoxin that degrades lecithin, resulting in the
(B) Clostridium perfringens (E) Lactobacillus sp lysis of cell membranes?
(C) Enterococcus faecalis (A) Bacillus anthracis (D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
(B) Bacillus cereus (E) Listeria monocytogenes
___10. A 76yo woman with a prosthetic (artificial) hip comes to you (C) Clostridium perfringens
complaining of fever and pain in that joint. You are concerned about S.
epidermidis. Using your knowledge of normal flora, what is the most likely ___22. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is
source of this organism? correct EXCEPT:
(A) Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity. (B) Salivary enzymes (D) Alpha interferon
(B) They are formed by gram-positive rods.
(C) They can be killed by being heated to 121°C for 15min ___37. The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated
(D) They are formed primarily when nutrients are limited by tetanus immunization is:
(A) Opsonize the Clostridium tetani (C) Prevent adherence of pathogen
___23. The ff statements concerning endotoxins is correct, EXCEPT: (B) Prevent growth of pathogen (D) Neutralize the pathogen’s toxin
(A) Less toxic than exotoxins. (C) Bind to specific cell receptors
(B) More stable on heating than exotoxins. (D) Part of the bacterial cell wall ___38. Which of the following enteric illnesses is a chronic carrier state
MOST likely to develop?
___24. Of the following choices, the MOST important function of antibody in (A) Campylobacter enterocolitis (C) Cholera
host defenses against bacteria is: (B) Shigella enterocolitis (D) Typhoid fever
(A) Lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
(B) Accelerates proteolysis of exotoxins ___39. Which one of the ff zoonotic illnesses has NO arthropod vector?
(C) Facilitation of phagocytosis (A) Plague (C) Brucellosis
(D) Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis (B) Lyme disease (D) Epidemic typhus

___25. Which one of the following BEST describes the mode of action of ___40. Which organism principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
endotoxin? (A) Salmonella typhi (C) Haemophilus influenzae
(A) Degrades lecithin in cell membranes (C) Blocks release of acetylcholine (B) Rickettsia rickettsii (D) Coxiella burnetii
(B) Inactivates elongation factor-2 (D) Causes the release of TNF
___41.Which of the ff bacterial vaccines are toxic side effects an important
___26. The ff is a typical property of obligate anaerobes EXCEPT: concern?
(A) Generate energy using the cytochrome system. (A) Vaccine with pneumococcal polysaccharide
(B) They grow best in the absence of air. (B) Vaccine containing killed Bordetella pertussis
(C) They lack superoxide dismutase. (C) Vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
(D) They lack catalase (D) Vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid

___27. In the Gm stain, the decolorization of Gm(-) bacteria by alcohol is ___42. The ff statements about Staphylococcus aureus is correct, EXCEPT:
MOST closely related to: (A) Gm (+) cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear.
(A) Proteins encoded by F plasmids (C) 70S ribosomes (B) The coagulase test is positive.
(B) Lipids in the cell wall (D) Branched polysaccharides in capsule (C) Treatment should include a β-lactamase–resistant penicillin.
(D) Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor
___28. The effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Opsonization (C) Activation of the coagulation cascade ___43. A 25yo man complains of a urethral discharge. You perform a Gm
(B) Fever (D) Hypotension stain on a specimen of the discharge and see neutrophils but no bacteria. Of
the organisms listed, the one MOST likely to cause the discharge is:
___29. The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the ff EXCEPT: (A) Treponema pallidum (C) Candida albicans
(A) Lysis of Gm(-) bacteria in conjunction with complement (B) Chlamydia trachomatis (D) Coxiella burnetii
(B) Augmentation of phagocytosis
(C) Increase in the frequency of lysogeny ___44. Your patient has a brain abscess that was detected 1 month after a
(D) Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces dental extraction. Which of the ff organisms is MOST likely to be involved?
(A) Anaerobic streptococci (C) Lactobacillus acidophilus
___30. The following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT: (B) Mycobacterium smegmatis (D) M. pneumoniae
(A) Exotoxins are polypeptides.
(B) Exotoxins are more easily inactivated by heat than are endotoxins. ___45. The MOST important contribution of the capsule of Strep.
(C) Exotoxins are less toxic than the same amount of endotoxins. pneumoniae to virulence is:
(D) Exotoxins can be converted to toxoids (A) Prevent dehydration of the organisms on mucosal surfaces
(B) To retard phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
___31. The following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT: (C) To inhibit polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemotaxis
(A) Clostridium perfringens (C) Escherichia coli (D) To accelerate tissue invasion by its collagenase-like activity
(B) Enterococcus faecalis (D) Vibrio cholerae
___46. The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST
___32. The ff organisms is an important cause of UTI, EXCEPT: likely to involve invasion of the intestinal mucosa?
(A) Escherichia coli (C) Klebsiella pneumoniae (A) Vibrio cholerae (C) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
(B) Proteus mirabilis (D) Bacteroides fragilis (B) Shigella sonnei (D) Clostridium botulinum

___33. Your patient is a yo woman with nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14h. ___47. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that
Which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness? follows infection by which one of the following organisms?
(A) Clostridium difficile (C) Shigella dysenteriae (A) Enterococcus faecalis (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Salmonella enteritidis (B) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Streptococcus agalactiae

___34. Which one of the ff diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means? ___48. The pathogenesis of which of the ff diseases does NOT involve an
(A) Q fever (C) Gonorrhea exotoxin?
(B) Pulmonary tuberculosis (D) Actinomycosis (A) Scarlet fever (C) Toxic shock syndrome
(B) Typhoid fever (D) Botulism
___35. The coagulase test, in which the bacteria cause plasma to clot, is used
to distinguish: ___49. Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria,
(A) S. pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to be resistant?
(B) Strep. pyogenes from Staph. aureus (A) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Streptococcus pyogenes
(C) Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis (B) Enterococcus faecalis (D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(D) Staph. epidermidis from N. meningitidis
___50. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause
___36. Which one of the following host defense mechanisms is the MOST of pneumonia in an immunocompetent young adult?
important for preventing dysentery caused by Salmonella? (A) Nocardia asteroides (C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(A) Gastric acid (C) Normal flora of the mouth (B) Serratia marcescens (D) Legionella pneumophila
 (D) They grow best under anaerobic conditions
___51. Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of
either N. gonorrhoeae or N. meningitidis? ___64. Which one of the ff statements concerning Legionella pneumophila is
(A) Polysaccharide capsule (C) M protein CORRECT?
(B) IgA protease (D) Pili (A) It is part of the normal flora of the colon.
(B) It cannot be grown on laboratory media.
___52. Which of the ff is NOT an important characteristic of Strep. (C) It does not have a cell wall.
pyogenes? (D) It causes atypical pneumonia, especially in those with reduced
(A) Protein A (C) Beta-hemolysin cellmediated immunity
(B) M protein (D) Polysaccharide group-specific substance
___65. Each of the ff statements concerning wound infections caused by
___53. Each of the following is associated with the Lancefield group B Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT:
streptococci (S. agalactiae) EXCEPT: (A) An exotoxin plays a role in pathogenesis.
(A) Pyoderma (impetigo) (B) Gram-positive rods are found in the exudate.
(B) Vaginal carriage in 5% to 25% of normal women of childbearing age (C) The organism grows only in human cell culture.
(C) Neonatal sepsis and meningitis (D) Anaerobic culture of the wound site should be ordered
(D) Beta-hemolysis
___66. Ticks are vectors for the transmission of each of the following
__54. Diarrhea caused by which one of the following agents is characterized diseases EXCEPT:
by the presence of fecal leukocytes? (A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever (C) Tularemia
(A) Campylobacter jejuni (C) Clostridium perfringens (B) Epidemic typhus (D) Lyme disease
(B) Rotavirus (D) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
___67. Each of the ff statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
___55. Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis (A) Rash is a prominent feature.
is correct EXCEPT: (B) It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
(A) It is an important cause of nongonococcal urethritis. (C) Farm animals are an important reservoir.
(B) It is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum. (D) It is caused by Coxiella burnetii
(C) Important cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis.
(D) It is an important cause of conjunctivitis ___68. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one of the
following virus groups?
___56. Which one of the following types of organisms is NOT an obligate (A) Polioviruses (C) Rhinoviruses
intracellular parasite and therefore can replicate on bacteriologic media? (B) Herpesviruses (D) Influenza viruses
(A) Chlamydia (C) Adenovirus
(B) Mycoplasma (D) Rickettsia ___69. Which one of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be
LEAST likely to be lifelong?
___57. The soil is the natural habitat for certain microorganisms of medical (A) Passive immunity (C) Active immunity
importance. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to reside there? (B) Passive–active immunity (D) Cell-mediated immunity
(A) Clostridium tetani (C) Bacillus anthracis
(B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare (D) Chlamydia trachomatis ___70. The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory
infections by immunization is:
___58. Which one of the following organisms is the MOST frequent bacterial (A) The poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses
cause of pharyngitis? (B) The large number of serotypes of the rhinoviruses
(A) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Strep. pyogenes (C) The side effects of the vaccine
(B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Neisseria meningitidis (D) The inability to grow the viruses in cell culture

___59. of the following is LEAST likely to be transmitted at these times? ___71. Each of the ff statements concerning interferon is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Haemophilus influenzae (C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.
(B) Treponema pallidum (D) Chlamydia trachomatis (B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA.
(C) Interferon made by cells of one species acts more effectively in the cells
___60. Each of the following statements concerning the fluorescent of that species than in the cells of other species.
treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT: (D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell
(A) The test is specific for Treponema pallidum.
(B) Patient’s serum is absorbed with saprophytic treponemes. ___72. Each of the ff statements concerning viruses is correct EXCEPT:
(C) If positive, test remains (+) despite appropriate therapy. (A) Viruses can reproduce only within cells.
(D) The test is rarely positive in primary syphilis (B) The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus
into host cells.
___61. Each of the ff statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct, (C) Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the
EXCEPT: virus.
(A) The disease is characterized by a rash. (D) Viruses replicate by binary fission
(B) The Weil-Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease.
(C) The disease is caused by a Rickettsia. ___73. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the following
(D) The causative organism is transmitted from rodents to humans by a tick. statements concerning this fact is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells.
___62. Each of the ff statements concerning Clostridium perfringens is (B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells.
correct, EXCEPT: (C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
(A) It causes gas gangrene. (D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes
(B) It causes food poisoning.
(C) It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin and causes necrosis and ___74. Each of the ff viruses possesses an outer envelope of lipoprotein
hemolysis. EXCEPT:
(D) It is a gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose (A) Varicella-zoster virus (C) Influenza virus
(B) Papillomavirus (D) HIV
___63. Each of the ff statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
(A) They are gram-negative diplococci. ___75. Which one of the following viruses possesses a genome of single-
(B) They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor. stranded RNA that is infectious when purified?
(C) They are oxidase-positive. (A) Influenza virus (C) Measles virus
(B) Rotavirus (D) Poliovirus
___88. Each of the following statements concerning respiratory syncytial
___76. Each of the ff viruses possesses an RNA polymerase in the virion virus (RSV) is correct, EXCEPT:
EXCEPT: (A) RSV has a single-stranded RNA genome.
(A) Hepatitis A virus (C) Mumps virus (B) RSV induces the formation of multinucleated giant cells.
(B) Smallpox virus (D) Rotavirus (C) RSV causes pneumonia primarily in children.
(D) RSV infections can be effectively treated with acyclovir
___77. Each of the ff viruses possesses a DNA polymerase in the virion
EXCEPT: ___89. The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza
(A) HIV (C) Epstein–Barr virus virus appears to be:
(B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus (D) Hepatitis B virus (A) People in isolated communities such as the Arctic
(B) Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl
___78. Each of the following viruses possesses double-stranded nucleic acid (C) Soil, especially in the tropics
as its genome EXCEPT: (D) Sewage
(A) Coxsackie virus (C) Rotavirus
(B) Herpes simplex virus (D) Adenovirus ___90. Scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
(A) A histologic picture of spongiform encephalopathy
___79. Each of the following statements about both measles virus and (B) Transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation period
rubella virus is correct, EXCEPT: (C) Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function
(A) They are RNA enveloped viruses. (D) Prominent intranuclear inclusions in oligodendrocytes
(B) Their virions contain an RNA polymerase.
(C) They have a single antigenic type. ___91. The slow virus disease that MOST clearly has immunosuppression as
(D) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol an important factor in its pathogenesis is:
(A) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
___80. Each of the following statements about both influenza virus and (B) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
rabies virus is correct EXCEPT: (C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(A) They are enveloped RNA viruses. (D) Kuru
(B) Their virions contain an RNA polymerase.
(C) A killed vaccine is available for both viruses. ___92. Which one of the following is the MOST reasonable explanation for
(D) They each have a single antigenic type. the ability of hepatitis B virus to cause chronic infection?
(A) Infection does not elicit the production of antibody.
___81. Each of the following statements about both poliovirus and (B) The liver is an “immunologically sheltered” site.
rhinoviruses is correct EXCEPT: (C) Viral DNA can persist within the host cell.
(A) They are nonenveloped RNA viruses. (D) Many humans are immunologically tolerant to HBs antigen
(B) They have multiple antigenic types.
(C) Their virions contain an RNA polymerase. ___93. Which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to base a
(D) They do not integrate their genome into host cell DNA decisive diagnosis of acute mumps disease?
(A) A positive skin test
___82. Each of the following statements about human immunodeficiency (B) A fourfold rise in antibody titer to mumps antigen
virus (HIV) is correct EXCEPT: (C) A history of exposure to a child with mumps
(A) HIV is an enveloped RNA virus. (D) Orchitis in young adult male
(B) The virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
(C) DNA copy of the HIV genome integrates into host cell DNA. ___94. The eradication of smallpox was facilitated by several features of the
(D) Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication virus. Which one of the following contributed LEAST to eradication?
(A) It has one antigenic type.
___83. Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or latent (B) Inapparent infection is rare.
infection EXCEPT: (C) Administration of live vaccine reliably induces immunity.
(A) Cytomegalovirus (C) Hepatitis B virus (D) It multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected cells
(B) Hepatitis A virus (D) Herpes simplex virus
___95. Which of the following is the MOST common lower respiratory
___84. Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce lasting pathogen in infants?
intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus? (A) Respiratory syncytial virus (C) Rhinovirus
(A) Parenteral (intramuscular) immunization with inactivated vaccine (B) Adenovirus (D) Coxsackie virus
(B) Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin
(C) Parenteral immunization with live vaccine ___96. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be caused by
(D) Oral immunization with live vaccine adenoviruses?
(A) Conjunctivitis (C) Pharyngitis
___85. Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with infection (B) Pneumonia (D) Glomerulonephritis
by picornaviruses EXCEPT:
(A) Myocarditis/pericarditis (C) Mononucleosis ___97. Which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus
(B) Hepatitis (D) Meningitis infection is CORRECT?
(A) Congenital infection of the fetus is an important complication.
___86. A 6mo child develops a persistent cough and a fever. PE and chest X- (B) The virus replicates extensively in the GI tract.
ray suggest pneumonia. Which one of the ff organisms is LEAST likely to (C) A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the virus.
cause this infection? (D) Amantadine is an effective preventive agent.
(A) Respiratory syncytial virus (C) Parainfluenza virus
(B) Adenovirus (D) Rotavirus ___98. Which one of the following fungi is MOST likely to be found within
reticuloendothelial cells?
___87. Each of the ff statements concerning mumps is correct EXCEPT: (A) Histoplasma capsulatum (C) Cryptococcus neoformans
(A) Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a single-stranded RNA (B) Candida albicans (D) Sporothrix schenckii
genome.
(B) Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps. ___99. Fungi often colonize lesions due to other causes. Which one of the
(C) Mumps orchitis in children prior to puberty often causes sterility. following is LEAST likely to be present as a colonizer?
(D) During mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream (viremia) to (A) Aspergillus (C) Sporothrix
various internal organs (B) Mucor (D) Candida
 ___112. The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult worms is:
___100. Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus (A) Lung alveoli (C) Renal tubules
neoformans is correct EXCEPT: (B) Intestinal venules (D) Bone marrow
(A) Its natural habitat is the soil, especially associated with pigeon feces.
(B) Pathogenesis is related primarily to the production of exotoxin A. ___113. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito
(C) Budding yeasts are found in the lesions. to human is the:
(D) The initial site of infection is usually the lung (A) Sporozoite (C) Merozoite
(B) Gametocyte (D) Hypnozoite
___101. A woman who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes
develops a local pustule that progresses to an ulcer. Several nodules then ___114. Which one of the following protozoa primarily infects macrophages?
develop along the local lymphatic drainage. The MOST likely agent is: (A) Plasmodium vivax (C) Trypanosoma cruzi
(A) Cryptococcus neoformans (C) Sporothrix schenckii (B) Leishmania donovani (D) Trichomonas vaginalis
(B) Candida albicans (D) Aspergillus fumigatus
___115. The ff parasites has an intermediate host as part of its life cycle
___102. Several fungi are associated with disease in immunocompromised EXCEPT:
patients. Which one of the following is the LEAST frequently associated? (A) Trichomonas vaginalis (C) Echinococcus granulosus
(A) Cryptococcus neoformans (C) Malassezia furfur (B) Taenia solium (D) Toxoplasma gondii
(B) Aspergillus fumigatus (D) Mucor species
___116. The ff parasites passes through the lung during human infection
___103. Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected EXCEPT:
tissues of patients with: (A) Strongyloides stercoralis (C) Wuchereria bancrofti
(A) Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis (B) Necator americanus (D) Ascaris lumbricoides
(B) Mycetoma, candidiasis, and mucormycosis
(C) Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor ___117. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by flies EXCEPT:
(D) Sporotrichosis, mycetoma, and aspergillosis (A) Schistosoma mansoni (C) Trypanosoma gambiense
(B) Onchocerca volvulus (D) Loa loa
___104. Infection by a dermatophyte is MOST often associated with:
(A) Intravenous drug abuse ___118. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the
(B) Inhalation of the organism from contaminated bird feces following parasites EXCEPT:
(C) Adherence of the organism to perspiration-moist skin (A) Echinococcus granulosus (C) Ascaris lumbricoides
(D) Fecal–oral transmission (B) Taenia solium (D) Trichinella spiralis

___105. Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of: ___119. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes
(A) Budding cells (C) Metachromatic granules EXCEPT:
(B) Septate hyphae (D) Pseudohyphae (A) Leishmania donovani (C) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Plasmodium falciparum
___106. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of
histoplasmosis? ___120. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately
(A) Person-to-person transmission (C) Yeasts in the tissue cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
(B) Specific geographic distribution (D) Mycelial phase in the soil (A) Diphyllobothrium latum (C) Paragonimus westermani
(B) Ancylostoma duodenale (D) Clonorchis sinensis
___107. Each of the following statements concerning fungi is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Yeasts are fungi that reproduce by budding. ___121. The ff statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is correct, EXCEPT:
(B) Molds are fungi that have elongated filaments called hyphae. (A) T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.
(C) Thermally dimorphic fungi exist as yeasts at 37°C and as molds at 25°C. (B) T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
(D) Both yeasts and molds have a cell wall made of peptidoglycan (C) T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
(D) T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool
___108. Each of the ff statements concerning yeasts is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Yeasts have chitin in their cell walls and ergosterol in their cell ___122. The ff statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct, EXCEPT:
membranes. (A) G. lamblia has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle.
(B) Yeasts form ascospores when they invade tissue. (B) G. lamblia is transmitted by the fecal–oral route from both human and
(C) Yeasts have eukaryotic nuclei and contain mitochondria in their animal sources.
cytoplasm. (C) G. lamblia causes hemolytic anemia.
(D) Yeasts produce neither endotoxin nor exotoxins (D) G. lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test in which a weighted string
___109. The ff statements concerning fungi and protozoa is correct, EXCEPT: is swallowed and passes into the upper GIT
(A) Both fungi and protozoa are eukaryotic organisms.
(B) Fungi possess a cell wall, whereas protozoa do not. ___123. The ff statements concerning T. vaginalis is correct, EXCEPT:
(C) Both fungi and protozoa use flagella as their organ of motility. (A) T. vaginalis is transmitted sexually.
(D) Both fungi and protozoa generate energy in mitochondria. (B) T. vaginalis can be diagnosed by visualizing the trophozoite.
(C) T. vaginalis can be treated effectively with metronidazole.
___110. The ff statements concerning Candida albicans is correct, EXCEPT: (D) T. vaginalis causes bloody diarrhea.
(A) C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms pseudohyphae when it invades
tissue. ___124. The ff statements concerning Trypanosoma cruzi is correct, EXCEPT:
(B) C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol. (A) T. cruzi is transmitted by the reduviid bug.
(C) C. albicans causes thrush. (B) T. cruzi occurs primarily in tropical Africa.
(D) Impaired cell-mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to (C) T. cruzi can be diagnosed by seeing amastigotes in a bone marrow
disease. aspirate.
(D) T. cruzi typically affects heart muscle, leading to cardiac failure.
___111. Aspergillus fumigatus can be involved in a variety of clinical
conditions. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to occur? ___125. The following statements concerning kala-azar is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Tissue invasion in immunocompromised host (A) Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani.
(B) Allergy following inhalation of airborne particles of the fungus (B) Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies.
(C) Colonization of tuberculous cavities in the lung (C) Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural Latin America.
(D) Thrush (D) Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow
___126. The ff statements concerning hydatid cyst disease is correct, (A) B cells that can kill without complement
EXCEPT: (B) Cytotoxic T cells
(A) The disease is caused by Echinococcus granulosus. (C) Increased by immunization
(B) The cysts occur primarily in the liver. (D) Able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
(C) The disease is caused by a parasite whose adult form lives in dogs’
intestines. ___139. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction)
(D) The disease occurs primarily in tropical Africa. indicates that:
(A) A humoral immune response has occurred
___127. The ff statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct, (B) A cell-mediated immune response has occurred
EXCEPT: (C) Both the T-and B-cell systems are functional
(A) S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the (D) Only the B-cell system is functional
skin.
(B) Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium. ___140. Reaction to poison ivy or poison oak is:
(C) S. haematobium eggs have no spine. (A) An IgG-mediated response (C) A cell-mediated response
(D) S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder CA (B) An IgE-mediated response (D) An Arthus reaction

___128. The ff statements concerning hookworm infection is correct, ___141. A child disturbs a wasp nest, is stung repeatedly, and goes into
EXCEPT: shock within minutes, manifesting respiratory failure and vascular collapse.
(A) Hookworm infection can cause anemia. This is MOST likely to be due to:
(B) Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae (A) Systemic anaphylaxis (C) An Arthus reaction
penetrate the skin. (B) Serum sickness (D) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
(C) Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
(D) Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the ___142. A primary immune response in an adult human requires
stool. approximately how much time to produce detectable antibody levels in the
blood?
___129. The ff statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct, (A) 12 hours (C) 1 week
EXCEPT: (B) 3 days (D) 3 weeks
(A) A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
(B) A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs. ___143. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin
(C) Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides. heavy chain synthesized is the:
(D) A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia (A) Mu chain (C) Epsilon chain
(B) Gamma chain (D) Alpha chain
___130. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic
disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? ___144. The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on the glomerular basement
(A) Atopic or anaphylactic (C) Immune complex membrane in a kidney tissue section is the:
(B) Cytotoxic (D) Delayed (A) Precipitin test (C) Agglutination test
(B) Complement fixation test (D) Indirect fluorescent-antibody test
___131. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within
minutes and lapses into unconsciousness. This reaction is probably mediated ___145. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by:
by: (A) Edema without a cellular infiltrate
(A) IgE antibody (D) Complement (B) An infiltrate composed of neutrophils
(B) IgG antibody (E) IgM antibody (C) An infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages
(C) Sensitized T cells (D) An infiltrate composed of eosinophils

___132. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The ___146. The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the
symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by: blood of a human newborn is:
(A) Interleukin-2 (C) Serotonin (A) IgG (D) IgD
(B) Slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) (D) Bradykinin (B) IgM (E) IgE
(C) IgA
___133. Hypersensitivity to penicillin and hypersensitivity to poison oak are
both: ___147. Individuals of blood group type AB:
(A) Mediated by IgE antibody (A) Are Rh(D)-negative
(B) Mediated by IgG and IgM antibody (B) Are “universal recipients” of transfusions
(C) Initiated by haptens (C) Have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
(D) Initiated by Th-2 cells (D) Have the same haplotype

___134. Grafts between genetically identical individuals (i.e., identical twins): ___148. Graft and tumor rejection are mediated primarily by:
(A) Are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibility antigens (A) Non–complement-fixing antibodies(C) Helper T cells
(B) Are subject to hyperacute rejection (B) Phagocytic cells (D) Cytotoxic T cells
(C) Are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
(D) Are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected ___149. The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to:
(A) Make antibody (C) Activate cytotoxic T cells
___135. AIDS is caused by a human retrovirus that kills: (B) Lyse virus-infected target cells (D) Process antigen and present it
(A) B lymphocytes (C) CD4-positive T lymphocytes
(B) Lymphocyte stem cells (D) CD8-positive T lymphocytes ___150. The main advantage of passive immunization over active
immunization is that:
___136. C3a and C5a can cause: (A) It can be administered orally
(A) Bacterial lysis (C) Phagocytosis of IgE-coated bacteria (B) It provides antibody more rapidly
(B) Vascular permeability (D) Aggregation of C4 and C2 (C) Antibody persists for a longer period
(D) It contains primarily IgM
___137. Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:
(A) IgM (C) C5a
(B) C1 (D) C8

___138. Natural killer cells are: