Biology

The Biology E/M test assesses your understanding of general biology at the college preparatory level.

How to Choose Biology E or M

 Take Biology E if you feel more comfortable answering questions pertaining to biological communities, populations, and energy flow.

 Take Biology M if you feel more comfortable answering questions pertaining to biochemistry, cellular structure and processes, such as
respiration and photosynthesis.

 Indicate choice of Biology E or Biology M on your answer sheet on test day.

Choose Your Test

On test day you'll indicate if you're taking Biology-E or Biology-M by gridding the code for the chosen test on your answer sheet. Only questions
pertaining to the test code that is gridded on the answer sheet will be scored. You may not take both Biology-E and Biology-M on the same test day.

Anticipated Skills

 Ability to recall and understand the major concepts of biology and to apply the principles learned to solve specific problems in biology

 Understanding of simple algebraic concepts, including ratios and direct and inverse proportions, and the ability to apply such concepts to
solving word problems

 Ability to organize and interpret results obtained by observation and experimentation and to draw conclusions or make inferences from
experimental data, including data presented in graphic and/or tabular form

 Familiarity with the metric system of units

Due to the differences in high school biology courses, you may find that some questions are on unfamiliar topics.

Recommended Prep

 One-year college preparatory course in biology (either a general survey course, or one with emphasis in ecology or molecular biology)

 One-year course in algebra (or one year of an integrated math sequence)

 Experience in the laboratory

Remember, calculators are not allowed.

Biology

Test Format
Both Biology E and M have

80 multiple-choice questions
60 of the 80 questions are common to both Biology E and M, followed by 20 specialized questions for each section
Here's a breakdown of the topics and how the questions are distributed:

Content Approximate Approximate

% of E Test % of M Test

Cellular and Molecular Biology Cell structure 15 27

and organization, mitosis, photosynthesis,
cellular respiration, enzymes, biosynthesis,
biological chemistry

Ecology Energy flow, nutrient cycles, 23 13

populations, communities, ecosystems,
biomes, conservation biology, biodiversity,
effects of human intervention

Genetics Meiosis, Mendelian genetics, 15 20

inheritance patterns, molecular genetics,
population genetics

Organismal Biology Structure, function, and 25 25

development or organisms (with emphasis
on plants and animals), animal behavior

Evolution and Diversity Origin of life, 22 15

evidence of evolution, patterns of evolution,
 natural selection, speciation, classification
and diversity of organisms

Biology-E and Biology-M Approximate % of Test

Skills Specifications
Knowledge of Fundamental Concepts: 30
remembering specific facts; demonstrating
straightforward knowledge of information and
familiarity with terminology
Application: understanding concepts and 35
reformulating information into other
equivalent forms; applying knowledge to
unfamiliar and/or practical situations; solving
problems using mathematical relationships
Interpretation: inferring and deducing from 35
qualitative and quantitative data and
integrating information to form conclusions;
recognizing unstated assumptions

Question Sets
The first items in the Biology E/M test are arranged in sets with common answer choices. These items appear in the core section of the test. Remember,
these are not MATCHING challenges — each answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Nitrogenous base that occurs in RNA but not in DNA
Top of Form
(A)  Deoxyribose

(B)  Ribose

(C)  Uracil

(D)  Cytosine

(E)  Thymine

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Uracil is one of the four nitrogenous bases found in RNA. The other three nitrogenous bases in RNA are also found in DNA, but uracil is not found in DNA.

Sugar that occurs in DNA but not in RNA

Top of Form
(A)  Deoxyribose

(B)  Ribose

(C)  Uracil

(D)  Cytosine

(E)  Thymine

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is deoxyribose. The name of DNA, deoxyribonucleic acid, refers to this sugar, which is found in DNA but not RNA. RNA, or ribonucleic
acid, contains the sugar ribose instead.

A nitrogenous base that occurs in DNA in equal quantities with guanine

Top of Form
(A)  Deoxyribose

(B)  Ribose

(C)  Uracil

(D)  Cytosine
 (E)  Thymine

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is cytosine. The only base that is always found in equal quantities with guanine is its complement, cytosine (recall that the
nitrogenous bases in DNA pair, A with T and C with G.)

The inability of two populations to interbreed after being separated by a barrier for a long period of time
Top of Form
(A)  Succession

(B)  Dispersion

(C)  Fertilization

(D)  Speciation

(E)  Mutation

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is speciation. Recall that the functional definition of a species is a group of organisms that can interbreed with each other but do not
interbreed with others. The inability to interbreed after long separation is a sign that speciation has occurred; the two populations now represent two
different species.

The change in plant types inhabiting an area over time, resulting in a climax community
Top of Form
(A)  Succession

(B)  Dispersion

(C)  Fertilization

(D)  Speciation

(E)  Mutation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is succession. Within a given area, the vegetation changes over time, tending towards the climax type of vegetation for that particular
area. (Repeated disturbances, of course, interrupt this process, and may in effect reset the clock, so that succession begins anew.)

Plants growing in and around a pond eventually filling in the pond and changing it to a terrestrial habitat
Top of Form
(A)  Succession

(B)  Dispersion

(C)  Fertilization

(D)  Speciation

(E)  Mutation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is succession. This is a specific example of succession, the gradual filling in of a wetland to become a meadow or a forest.

Notice that answer choice A has been used twice in this set, and that B, C, and E were not used at all.

Multiple Choice
The multiple choice questions have five answer choices — one (and only one) is correct in each case.
The pH of human blood is slightly basic. Which of the following is most likely to be the pH of human blood?
Top of Form
 (A)  10.6

(B)  7.4

(C)  7.0

(D)  6.4

(E)  4.6

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is 7.4. The question gives you the information that blood is slightly basic. 10.6 is very basic (recall that pH is a logarithmic scale), 7 is
neutral, 6.4 is slightly acid, and of course 4.6 is the most acid of the five choices.

A student examined two different groups of cells and made the following observations
Trait Cell I Cell II
Cell wall Present Present
Ribosomes Present Present
Nucleus Absent Present
Ability to photosynthesize Present Absent
Cell respiration Present Present
These observations support which of the following conclusions?
Top of Form
(A)  Cell I is more complex in its organization than cell II.

(B)  Cell I is a prokaryote.

(C)  The ancestors of cell II appeared earlier in the fossil record than the ancestors of cell I.

(D)  Cell II does not have a cell membrane.

(E)  Both groups of cells are from plants.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
This type of question requires that you look at the data presented in the table and then select the conclusion that is best supported by these data. Some
students find that reading the choices first, and THEN analyzing the table, helps them to focus more quickly on the pertinent information.

The correct answer is (B). Cell I is probably a prokaryote, as it contains no nucleus, but does have a cell wall and ribosomes. It is NOT more complex than
Cell II, which has a nucleus, so choice A is incorrect. The earliest fossils known are in fact prokaryotic, so choice C is also incorrect. The table contains no
information about membranes, and a cell with a nucleus would certainly not lack a membrane, so choice D is incorrect. Finally, while Cell II has a cell
wall, note that it cannot photosynthesize and is probably not a plant. Cell I provides more conclusive evidence against choice E; since it lacks a nucleus it
is clearly not a plant cell.

In animals, ritualized contests with little risk of serious injury or death to participants within the species lead to
Top of Form
(A)  a stable dominance hierarchy

(B)  biological altruism

(C)  adaptive radiation

(D)  instinctive behavior

(E)  a broader habitat

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is a stable dominance hierarchy, (A). Ritualized combat, such as that found in many wild animal populations, leads to a stable
hierarchy; generally one individual is acknowledged to be dominant, and true combat is avoided. This benefits both the winner and the loser, as neither
faces death or serious injury in a mock battle.

Which of the following correctly explains how a favorable genetic trait can increase in frequency in a population?
Top of Form
 (A)  Lamarck's principle

(B)  Natural selection

(C)  Adaptive radiation

(D)  Genetic recombination

(E)  Segregation of alleles

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is natural selection, (B). Favorable traits increase in a population over time because the organisms bearing those favorable traits have
some advantage over other members of the population, and thus leave more surviving offspring than do individuals without the trait. This is sometimes
called "survival of the fittest" but it is important to realize that survival alone is only part of the equation; the gene frequency is most influenced by the
differential reproductive success of these survivors (that is, by the fact that individuals with the trait leave more offspring than individuals without the
favorable trait).

Lamarck, (while a very important man in his time, and one who struggled to come up with an explanation that made sense) has been shown to have
been wrong about the inheritance of acquired characteristics, so choice A is clearly wrong. Adaptive radiation involves the spread of organisms into open
niches and subsequent speciation, so C is not a correct choice. Genetic recombination is part of sexual reproduction, whether or not gene frequencies are
changing, so D is not a correct choice. And finally, segregation of alleles does not explain a change in gene frequency over time. E is not correct.

Blood flows from the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary artery and returns from the lungs to the heart in the pulmonary vein. The blood in the
pulmonary artery is
Top of Form
(A)  higher in O2 and lower in CO2 content than the blood in the pulmonary vein

(B)  higher in both O2 and CO2 content than the blood in the pulmonary vein

(C)  lower in O2 and higher in CO2 content than the blood in the pulmonary vein

(D)  lower in both O2 and CO2 content than the blood in the pulmonary vein

(E)  higher in O2 content, but about the same in CO2 content as the blood in the pulmonary
vein

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is lower in oxygen and higher in carbon dioxide than blood in the pulmonary vein (C ). Recall that arteries carry blood away from the
heart. The blood in the pulmonary artery is on its way to the lungs. Oxygen has diffused out of this blood into the tissues it has passed through on its way
around the body, and carbon dioxide has diffused in. In the lungs, the blood will lose much of its carbon dioxide and acquire oxygen, so the blood
returning to the heart in the pulmonary vein is oxygen-rich, compared to that in the pulmonary artery.

A microscopic unicellular organism is observed to have the following characteristics: a food gullet, a flagellum, chloroplasts, mitochondria, and a nucleus.
This organism belongs to which kingdom?
Top of Form
(A)  Protista

(B)  Plantae

(C)  Fungi

(D)  Animalia

(E)  Monera

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is Protista, (A). In the five kingdom classification system that is widely used in modern biology, a single celled, flagellated, eukaryote
with chloroplasts would be placed in the Protista. Perhaps you have seen Euglena under the microscope. Recall that plants are multicellular and are not
flagellated, so this is not a plant cell (B). Fungal cells do not contain chloroplasts, so this is not a fungus (C). Animals are multicellular and not
photosynthetic, so this is not an animal (D), and clearly the nucleus rules out Monera (E).

A stream is free of pollutants within a few miles downstream of a point at which a small amount of sewage is being dumped into it. This is most likely the
result of
Top of Form
 (A)  succession

(B)  eutrophication

(C)  evaporation

(D)  photosynthesis

(E)  decomposition

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The correct answer is decomposition, (E). Decomposition breaks down organic material such as sewage. Succession of vegetation types (A) does not
explain this process. Eutrophication (B) might well result from the dumping of sewage into a body of water, but does not explain the observation that the
stream is free from pollutants a few miles downstream. Evaporation (C ) would result in the loss of water from the stream but not the loss of pollutants.
Photosynthesis (D) takes place in aquatic plants and algae, sometimes using the products of decomposition, but it does not result in the breakdown of
organic material.

As rain mixes with chemicals such as sulfur dioxide in the air, acid rain is produced. This may result in
Top of Form
(A)  lowering the pH in ponds, thus limiting the survival of many organisms

(B)  lowering the pH in ponds, thus affecting water temperature

(C)  raising the pH in ponds, thus encouraging the growth of organisms

(D)  raising the pH in ponds, thus limiting animal development

(E)  depleting atmospheric carbon dioxide available for photosynthesis

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is that it lowers the pH in ponds and limits the survival of many organisms (A). Choice B correctly identifies the lower pH, but
incorrectly couples it with water temperature. Choices C and D incorrectly state that acid rain will raise the pH. Choice E suggests that somehow carbon
dioxide will removed from the air when acid rain is formed. Carbon dioxide within bodies of water is at equilibrium with carbon dioxide in the air.

Biology-E
Characteristics of birds but not of mammals include which of the following?
I. Feathers
II. Giving birth to live
young
III. Four-chambered hearts
Top of Form
(A)  I only

(B)  III only

(C)  I and II only

(D)  I and III only

(E)  I, II, and III

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
This type of question requires you to look at the choices I, II, and III, and decide which combination of characteristics belongs to birds and does not
belong to mammals. The correct answer is feathers only, (A). Clearly, most mammals give birth to live young, so II is not part of the correct answer. This
rules out choices C and E. Four chambered hearts are also characteristic of mammals (humans, for instance) so choice III is not part of the correct
answer. This rules out choices B and D.

It is thought that the Galapagos Islands were originally colonized by one species of finch. Today these islands contain many species of finches that occupy
diverse niches. This most likely resulted from which of the following?
I. Biological
Magnification
II. Convergent Evolution
 III. Adaptive Radiation
Top of Form
(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  III only

(D)  II and III only

(E)  I, II, and III

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
This is another question that requires you to assess I, II, and III and decide which most likely resulted in pattern of finch populations seen in the
Galapagos. The correct answer is adaptive radiation only, (C). Biological magnification, I, refers to the bioaccumulation of materials, particularly
problematic at higher trophic levels, and is not part of the correct answer, which rules out choices A and E. Convergent evolution, II, refers to the
independent development of similar characteristics in unrelated organisms as a result of adaptation to similar environments, and is not part of the correct
answer, which rules out choices B and D.

Biology-M
Some sets of Biology E/M questions refer to an experiment or data. Here are two examples - click on the "view answer" button for the answer.
The graph below illustrates the data obtained from reactions at various temperatures of an enzyme with its specific substrate at pH 6.

Based on the data, what results can be predicted if the experiment is carried out at 5°C?
Top of Form
(A)  No prediction would be valid.

(B)  An amount of product equal to that at 20°C would be formed.

(C)  An amount of product equal to that at the optimum temperature would be formed.

(D)  An amount of product equal to that at 60°C would be formed.

(E)  Little or no product would be formed.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The correct answer is that relatively little product would be formed (E). This question requires you to extrapolate from the data in order to predict the
amount of product that would likely be formed at a temperature lower than the temperatures tested. Choice A indicates that no prediction can be made.
While the amount of product at 5 degrees can not be known with certainty, it can be predicted from the information provided, so choice A is not correct.
Choices B, C, and D suggest that the same amount of product will be formed at 5 degrees as at 20, 40, and 60 degrees respectively. This is unlikely,
based on the pattern of the data. Between 10 and 40 degrees the amount of product formed varies with temperature, so the most reasonable prediction
is that there would be very little product formed at 5 degrees.

The graph below illustrates the data obtained from reactions at various temperatures of an enzyme with its specific substrate at pH 6.
 Based on the data, what results could be predicted if the experiment were repeated at pH 4?
Top of Form
(A)  The available data are insufficient to make a reliable prediction.

(B)  An amount of product equal to that to that at pH 6 would be formed.

(C)  An amount of prodcut less than that at pH 6 would be formed.

(D)  An amount of product more than that at pH 6 would be formed.

(E)  Little or no product would be formed.

Explanation:
The correct answer is that for this question there are insufficient data to make a prediction, (A). Unlike the previous question, which called for an
extrapolation within a small range of the obtained data, this question calls for a prediction at a pH 100 times as acidic (remember that pH is a logarithmic
scale). We have no information on the optimal pH of this enzyme, so choices B, C, D, and E are all inappropriate.
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Chemistry

Chemistry
The chemistry test assesses your understanding of general chemistry at the college preparatory level.

Anticipated Skills
Understanding of the major concepts of chemistry and the ability to apply principles to solve specific problems
Ability to organize and interpret results obtained by observation and experimentation and to draw conclusions or make inferences from experimental
data, including data presented in graphic and/or tabular form
Laboratory experience and familiarity with the metric system of units
Ability to handle simple algebraic relationships and apply these to solving word problems
Familiarity with the concepts of ratio and direct and inverse proportions, exponents and scientific notations
Please Note: Due to the differences in high school chemistry courses, you may find that some questions are on unfamiliar topics.

Recommended Prep
One-year college preparatory course in chemistry
One-year course in algebra
Experience in the laboratory

Chemistry

Test Format
The Chemistry test consists of 85 questions, and is scored between 200 to 800. The use of a calculator is not permitted. Numerical calculations are
limited to simple arithmetic. A periodic table indicating the atomic numbers and masses of elements is provided for all test administrations.

Topics Covered Approximate

Percentage
of Test

Structure of Matter 25

States of Matter 15

Reaction Types 14

Stoichiometry 12

Equilibrium and Reaction Rates 7

Thermodynamics 6

Descriptive Chemistry 13

Laboratory 8
 Skills Specifications

Recall of Knowledge 20

Application of Knowledge 45

Synthesis of Knowledge 35

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© 2010 The College Board

The Chemistry Subject Test is designed to assess your understanding of the major concepts of chemistry as well as the ability to apply them in problem-
solving scenarios. The test requires the ability to organize and interpret results obtained by observation and experimentation and familiarity with the
concepts of ratio, proportions, scientific notation, and exponential functions.

Classification Sets
Electrolysis of water to form hydrogen and oxygen gases
Top of Form
(A)  Precipitation

(B)  Oxidation-reduction

(C)  Distillation

(D)  Hydration

(E)  Condensation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The chemical equation for this reaction is
2 H2O(l) 2 H2(g) + O2(g).

Note that the oxidation number of hydrogen changes from +1 to 0, and the oxidation number of oxygen changes from -2 to 0. Hydrogen gains electrons
and oxygen loses electrons. This is an oxidation-reduction reaction.

Reaction of silver ion with chloride ion in water solution

Top of Form
(A)  Precipitation

(B)  Oxidation-reduction

(C)  Distillation

(D)  Hydration

(E)  Condensation

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Silver chloride is very insoluble in water. (The Ksp of silver chloride is approximately 1.6 10-10 at 25ºC.) When a solution that contains Ag+ ions is mixed
with a solution that contains Cl- ions, AgCl will be produced as a precipitate.

Reaction of iron filings with powdered sulfur

Top of Form
(A)  Precipitation

(B)  Oxidation-reduction

(C)  Distillation

(D)  Hydration

(E)  Condensation
 Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
When iron metal reacts with solid sulfur, an iron sulfide forms. Sulfur gains electrons and iron loses electrons. This is an oxidation-reduction reaction.

Relationship Analysis
Each of the following questions consists of two statements, I in the left-hand column and II in the right-hand column. For each question, determine
whether statement I is true or false and whether statement II is true or false. Select the appropriate answer combination from the choices below.
Choices with a filled CE oval denote that statement II is a correct explanation of the true statement I.

A molecule of silicon tetrachloride, SiCl4, is nonpolar BECAUSE the four bonds in SiCl4 are identical and the molecule has
a tetrahedral structure.
Top of Form
(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is T, T, CE.

Silicon has four valence electrons. In SiCl4, the four chlorine atoms are arranged around the central silicon atom. The four bonds are polar, since Si and Cl
have different electronegativities, but they are identical. The arrangement of electron pairs that best minimizes the repulsion is a tetrahedral
arrangement. There are four dipoles in the molecule but, because of the molecule's symmetry, they cancel each other and the molecule is therefore
nonpolar. Both statement I and statement II are true. Because the bonds are identical and the molecule is tetrahedral, the molecule is nonpolar (i.e.,
statement II is a correct explanation of statement I).

An element that has the electron configuration 1s2  2s2 BECAUSE in atoms of transition elements, the 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, and 3p
2p6  3s2 3p6 3d3  4s2 is a transition element orbitals are completely filled in the ground state.
Top of Form
(A) 

(B) 

(C) 
 (D) 

(E) 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is T, T.

The element with the electron configuration shown is vanadium (atomic number = 23). The transition elements are those in groups IIIB-IIB. Therefore,
statement I is true. It is also true that the 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, and 3p orbitals are completely filled in the transition elements. However, statement II is not a
correct explanation of statement I. For example, statement II is true for Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn, and other elements that are not transition elements.

The combustion of fuels containing sulfur leads to the BECAUSE sulfur oxides form acid solutions in water.
production of acid rain
Top of Form
(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

The combustion of fuels containing sulfur leads to the production of BECAUSE sulfur oxides form acid solutions in water.
acid rain
Top of Form
(A) 

(B) 
 (C) 

(D) 

(E) 

CollegeBoard
Close
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is T, T, CE.

The combustion of fuels containing sulfur produces SO2(g). This SO2(g) is oxidized in the atmosphere to SO3(g). The reaction SO3(g) + H2O(l)
H2SO4(aq) then occurs in the atmosphere: this acid can then fall as rain, snow, or mist. Statement II is a correct explanation of statement I.

© 2010 The College Board

Each of the following questions consists of two statements, I in the left-  
hand column and II in the right-hand column. For each question,
determine whether statement I is true or false and whether statement II
is true or false. Select the appropriate answer combination from the
choices below. Choices with a filled CE oval denote that statement II is a
correct explanation of the true statement I.

At the same temperature and pressure, 1 L of hydrogen BECAUSE equal volumes of ideal gases at the same temperature and
gas and 1 L of neon gas have the same mass pressure contain the same number of moles.
Top of Form
(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

. . . BCl3(g) + . . . H2(g) . . . HCl(g) + . . . B(s)

When the equation for the reaction represented above is balanced and all coefficients are reduced to lowest whole-number terms, the coefficient for HCl is
Top of Form
(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

(E)  6

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
Since there are three Cl atoms and two H atoms on the left side of the equation, the number of  HCl's on the right side must be divisible by 2 and by 3.
The coefficient for HCl is at least 6. If it is 6, then there are 2 BCl3's, 3 H2's, and 2 B's. These numbers do indeed result in a balanced equation where the
coefficients are the lowest whole numbers possible.

Which of the following statements about catalysts is true?

(A)  They increase the value of the equilibrium constant.

(B)  They increase the amount of product present at equilibrium.

(C)  They increase the concentration of the reactants.

(D)  They are permanently altered as the reaction proceeds.

(E)  They reduce the activation energy of the reaction.

Which of the following statements about catalysts is true?

(A)  They increase the value of the equilibrium constant.

(B)  They increase the amount of product present at equilibrium.

(C)  They increase the concentration of the reactants.

(D)  They are permanently altered as the reaction proceeds.

(E)  They reduce the activation energy of the reaction.

Raising the temperature at which a chemical reaction proceeds may do all of the following EXCEPT

(A)  increase the molecular collision frequency

(B)  increase the number of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy

(C)  speed up the forward and reverse reactions

(D)  decrease the randomness of the system

(E)  change the relative concentrations of products to reactants that are present at equilibrium.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Note that this question ends with "EXCEPT": this means that all of the options but one are correct, and you need to find the one that is NOT correct.

The molecules of a given substance have a higher average speed at a higher temperature. Therefore, molecules will collide more frequently at higher
temperatures. At higher temperatures, the curve showing the proportion of molecules with a certain energy is shifted towards higher energy. Therefore,
option B is also correct. The speeds of the forward and reverse reactions increase, so option C is correct. The randomness (entropy) of the system is
HIGHER at higher temperatures, so option D is NOT an effect of raising the temperature. Option E is correct because raising the temperature of an
equilibrium mixture changes the relative concentrations of products and reactants in the mixture.

To determine whether a water solution of Na2S2O3 at room temperature is supersaturated, one can
 (A)  heat the solution to its boiling point

(B)  add water to the solution

(C)  add a crystal of Na2S2O3 to the solution

(D)  acidify the solution

(E)  cool the solution to its freezing point

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The other options describe processes that would not enable you to determine whether or not the solution was supersaturated: you would observe the
same thing either way. Supersaturated solutions are not stable. If you add more solute (in this case the crystal) to a supersaturated solution, the extra
solute will precipitate out of the solution, indicating that the solution was indeed supersaturated.

At constant temperature, the change of state of any substance from liquid to gas always includes which of the following?

  I. The breaking of covalent bonds

 II. An increase in the randomness of the system
III. The absorption of energy

(A)  I only

(B)  II only

(C)  I and II only

(D)  II and III only

(E)  I, II, and III

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Changes of state do not involve breaking covalent bonds (i.e., molecules do not break into atoms as a compound vaporizes). The molecules of the gas
are free to occupy more locations than the molecules of the substance in the liquid state, so the molecules of a substance in its gaseous state are more
random than the molecules in the liquid state. Energy must be absorbed to overcome the relatively strong intermolecular forces in the liquid. Roman
numerals II and III are correct.

When HS- acts as a Brønsted base, which of the following is formed?

(A)  S2-

(B)  H+

(C)  H2S

(D)  H2S2

(E)  H3S+

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A Brønsted base is a proton acceptor. When HS- reacts with H+ (a proton), H2S is formed.

2 NO(g) + H (g) N O(g) + H O(g) + 351 kJ

2 2 2

If the total pressure on the system is increased when the reaction represented above is at equilibrium, which of the following occurs?

(A)  The concentration of H2O increases.

(B)  The concentration of N2O decreases.

(C)  The rate of the reaction decreases.

 (D)  The temperature of the system decreases.

(E)  The H2 gas condenses.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Le Châtelier's principle states that if a change is made to a system at equilibrium, the position of equilibrium shifts in the direction that reduces the
change. There are three moles of gas on the left side of the equation for every two moles of gas on the right side. An increase in pressure will shift
equilibrium to favor the side with fewer moles of gas, in this case the right side, in order to partially reduce the pressure. Therefore, the concentrations of
N2O(g) and H2O(g) will increase and the concentrations of NO(g) and H2(g) will decrease. Option C is incorrect because the reaction rate would increase
as the pressure increased. Option D is incorrect because the reaction is exothermic, so the temperature would increase. Option E is incorrect because at
the conditions necessary for H2 gas to condense, the other reactant and the products would not be gases and the reaction as written would not occur.

A solution is made by adding 5.6 g of KOH (molar mass 56 g/mol) to enough water to make 1.0 L of solution. What is the approximate pH of the resulting
solution?

(A)  1

(B)  3

(C)  7

(D)  9

(E)  13

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The 5.6 grams of KOH is 0.1 mole of KOH.   A solution of 0.1 mole of solute in 1 liter of solution has a concentration of 0.1 M.   KOH is a strong base, and
dissociates completely in water.   Therefore, the concentration of OH- in this solution is 0.1 M.

[OH-] = 1 10-1

Kw = [H+] [OH-] = 1 10-14

[H+] = (1 10-14)/(1 10-1) = 1 10-13

pH = -log[H ], so pH = 13
+

Physics
Purpose
To assess your understanding of physics at the college preparatory level

Anticipated Skills

 An ability to recall and understand the major concepts of physics and to apply physical principles to solve specific problems

 An understanding of simple algebraic, trigonometric, and graphical relationships, and the concepts of ratio and proportion, and how to apply
these to physics problems

 Familiarity with the metric system of units

Note: Due to the differences in high school physics courses, it is likely that most students will find that some questions are on topics they are not familiar
with.

Recommended Preparation

 One-year introductory college preparatory course in physics

 Courses in algebra and trigonometry

 Experience in the laboratory

Physics

Test Format
Purpose
To assess your understanding of physics at the college preparatory level

Anticipated Skills
 An ability to recall and understand the major concepts of physics and to apply physical principles to solve specific problems

 An understanding of simple algebraic, trigonometric, and graphical relationships, and the concepts of ratio and proportion, and how to apply
these to physics problems

 Familiarity with the metric system of units

Note: Due to the differences in high school physics courses, it is likely that most students will find that some questions are on topics they are not familiar
with.

Recommended Preparation

 One-year introductory college preparatory course in physics

 Courses in algebra and trigonometry

 Experience in the laboratory

Format
75 multiple-choice questions on the topics listed below

Topics Covered Approximate

Percentage
of Test

Mechanics 36-42

Electricity and Magnetism 18-24

Waves 15-19

Heat, Kinetic Theory, and Thermodynamics 6-11

Modern Physics 6-11

Miscellaneous (measurement, math skills, laboratory skills, history of physics, and questions of a general nature that overlap several 4-9
major topics)

Level of Concept Application

Recall 20-33

Single-concept problem 40-53

Multiple-concept problem 20-33

Scores Reported
Total score on the 200-to-800 scale

The Physics Subject Test is designed to assess your understanding of the major concepts of physics and the ability to apply them to solve specific
problems. The test requires an understanding of simple algebraic, trigonometric, and graphical relationships as well as the application of such concepts to
physics problems.

A beam of light is incident on a rectangular opening in the front of a box, as shown in the side view above. The back of the box is open. After passing
through the box, the light is incident on a screen. The following devices may be in the box, positioned as shown.

Which device could produce a tiny spot of light on the screen?

 This set of questions requires you to know how each of the devices that may be in the box would affect the set of parallel light rays that enter the
rectangular opening.

 A convex lens would cause the rays to converge.

 A concave lens would cause the rays to diverge.

 A thick sheet of glass would cause the rays to bend at each face, but as long as the light was a single wavelength they would remain parallel.

 An opaque card with a very narrow slit would result in diffraction (the spreading of light into a region behind an obstruction).

 A prism would cause the rays to bend at each face, but as long as the light was a single wavelength they would remain parallel.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is a convex lens. To produce a tiny spot of light, the optical device must cause the rays to converge and create a real image on the
screen. Of the devices shown, only a convex lens can accomplish this.

Which device could produce a diffraction pattern consisting of a central bright fringe with parallel secondary fringes that decrease in intensity with
increasing distance from the center of the screen?
 This set of questions requires you to know how each of the devices that may be in the box would affect the set of parallel light rays that enter the
rectangular opening.

 A convex lens would cause the rays to converge.

 A concave lens would cause the rays to diverge.

 A thick sheet of glass would cause the rays to bend at each face, but as long as the light was a single wavelength they would remain parallel.

 An opaque card with a very narrow slit would result in diffraction (the spreading of light into a region behind an obstruction).

 A prism would cause the rays to bend at each face, but as long as the light was a single wavelength they would remain parallel.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is the opaque card with the slit. It provides an obstruction that would yield the single-slit diffraction pattern described.

This set of questions questions relate to various physical quantities that are functions of time.

Which graph best represents the magnetic field established at the center of a coil by a steady current in the coil?
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is a steady non-zero magnetic field. The magnetic field at the center of a coil is directly proportional to the current in the coil. If the
current remains constant over time so does the magnetic field.

Which graph represents the total heat developed from time t = 0 by a resistor carrying a steady current?

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is a steadily increasing amount. The rate of heat dissipation by a resistor is equal to the power it expends. The power P is related to
the current I and the resistance R by the equation P = I2 R, so if the current is constant the power is constant. The total heat developed is then the power
multiplied by the total time
t: Heat = Pt = I 2 Rt.

The graph is thus a steadily increasing function of time.

Each of the four identical carts shown above is loaded with a total mass of 4 kilograms. All of the carts are initially at rest on the same level surface.
Forces of the same magnitude directed to the right act on each of the carts for the same length of time. If friction and air resistance are negligible, which
cart will have the greatest velocity when the forces cease to act?

(A)  Cart 1

(B)  Cart 2

(C) Cart 3

(D) Cart 4

(E) All four carts will have the same velocity.

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The velocities are all the same. According to Newton's second law, F = ma, the acceleration a (determined by the equation a = F / m) depends only on
the force F and the total mass m, so the distribution of mass on each cart has no effect. The total mass and the magnitude and direction of the force are
the same for each cart, so the acceleration is the same. Finally, since the time over which the forces act is the same, the velocities (equal to the
acceleration multiplied by the time) are also the same.

A known positive charge is located at point P as shown above, between two unknown charges, Q1 and Q2. P is closer to Q2 than Q1. If the net electric force
acting on the charge at P is zero, it may correctly be concluded that:

(A)  Both Q1 and Q2 are positive

(B)  Both Q1 and Q2 are negative

(C) Q1 and Q2 have opposite signs

(D) Q1 and Q2 have the same sign, but the magnitude of Q1 is greater than the magnitude of Q2

(E) Q1 and Q2 have the same sign, but the magnitude of Q2 is greater than the magnitude of Q1

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The two charges have the same sign, and the magnitude of Q1 is greater than that of Q2. For the net force on charge P to be zero, the forces due to the
other two charges must act in opposite directions. This means that Q1 and Q2 can either both attract or both repel charge P, so they are either both
negative or both positive, but one cannot determine which. The force between two point charges is proportional to q1q2 / r2, where q1 and q2 are the
magnitudes of the charges and r is the distance between them. Since Q1 is farther from point P, it must have a greater magnitude in order to exert a
force on P of the same magnitude that Q2 does.

The half-life of one isotope of radium is about 1,600 years. In a given sample of this isotope, 15/16 of the radium atoms will decay in a time most nearly
equal to

(A)  1,000 years

(B)  1,500 years

(C) 1,600 years

(D) 3,200 years

 (E) 6,400 years

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
During each half-life, an average of 1/2 of the nuclei present will decay. So after one half-life only about 1/2 of the radium nuclei remain. After two half-
lives the sample contains 1/2 of 1/2 , or about 1/4 of the original number of radium nuclei. In general, the number of nuclei remaining after n half-lives
have elapsed is (1/2)n. Having 15/16 of the radium nuclei decay means having 1/16 of them remain, which is (1/2) 4 . So the answer is four half-lives,
which is 6,400 years.

Two small conducting spheres are identical except that sphere X has a charge of -10 microcoulombs and sphere Y has a charge of +6 microcoulombs.
After the spheres are brought in contact and then separated, what is the charge on each sphere, in microcoulombs?

    Sphere Sphere
X Y
(A)  -4 0

(B)  -2 -2

(C) +2 -2

(D) +4 0

(E) +6 -10

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is -2 microcolumbs on each sphere. Excess charge on a number of conductors in contact will be distributed in such a way that the
electric potential on the surface of the conductors is the same everywhere. If the conductors are identical, this requires that an equal amount of excess
charge reside on both conductors. The net excess charge on these two spheres is -4 microcolumbs (+6 + (-10)). Since charge is conserved, when the
excess charge is shared equally each sphere will carry -2 microcolumbs.

A satellite moving in a circular orbit with respect to the Earth's center experiences a gravitational force. If the satellite is put into a new circular orbit of
smaller radius, how will the gravitational force and the speed of the satellite change, if at all?

    Gravitational Force Speed

(A)  Decrease Decrease

(B)  Decrease Increase

(C) Remain the same Remain the same

(D) Increase Decrease

(E) Increase Increase

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:

Both will increase. The gravitational force is proportional to , where r is the radius of the orbit. As the radius decreases the gravitational force

increases. The centripetal force on the satellite is provided by the gravitational force and is proportional to the centripetal acceleration , where is

the speed. Therefore , is proportional to so is proportional to and also increases as the radius decreases.

A pendulum is swinging upward and is halfway toward its highest position, as shown above, when the string breaks. Which of the paths shown best
represents the one that the ball would take after the string breaks?

(A)  A
 (B)  B

(C) C

(D) D

(E) E

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
As the pendulum swings in an arc, the velocity at any instant is tangent to the arc and therefore perpendicular to the string. The ball has this velocity at
the instant the string breaks, so the initial part of the path must be perpendicular to the string. Afterwards, the ball behaves as a projectile under the
influence of gravity alone, so it follows a parabolic path.

If the addition of 2,000 joules of heat to 10 kilograms of a substance raises its temperature 2°C, the specific heat of the substance is

(A)  0.01 J/kg • °C

(B)  0.2 J/kg • °C

(C) 50 J/kg • °C

(D) 100 J/kg • °C

(E) 200 J/kg • °C

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is 100 J/kg • ºC. The change in temperature of a mass m of a substance is related to the amount of heat Q added to it by the
equation Q = mc , where c is the specific heat of the substance. Solving for the specific heat and substituting the given quantities, c = 2,000 J/(10
kg) (2ºC) = 100 J/kg • ºC

An object with mass m and speed 0 directed to the right strikes a wall and rebounds with speed 0 directed to the left.

The change in the object's kinetic energy is

-m 0
2

- m 0
2

Zero

m 0
2

m 0
2

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct answer is zero. The kinetic energy of an object of mass M moving at speed is M . Since the object has the same speed before and after
2

striking the wall, its kinetic energy does not change.

The change in the object's momentum is

2 m  0 directed to the left

m  0 directed to the left

Zero

m  0 directed to the right

 2m 0 directed to the right

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The change in the object's momentum is 2m 0 directed to the left. Momentum is a vector quantity. Its magnitude for an object of mass M and speed is
M . Taking the positive direction to be to the right (the initial direction of the object), the object has momentum +m 0 before striking the wall and
momentum -m 0 afterward. The change in momentum is the final value minus the initial value: -m 0 -(+m 0) = -2m 0

This is a change of magnitude 2m 0 directed to the left.

A teacher measures and records her own mass to an accuracy of better than 1/2 percent. Which of the following is most likely the mass that she
recorded?

(A)  6.43 kg

(B)  60 kg

(C) 64.3 kg

(D) 600 kg

(E) 643 kg

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is 64.3 kg. This question is intended to assess your knowledge of realistic values for physical quantities as well as an understanding of
experimental error and significant figures. Only 60 kg and 64.3 kg are likely masses for an adult human. (If you need to compare the choices in pounds
to see this, 1 kg is approximately 2.2 pounds.) When recording measurements, it is assumed that there is some measurement error in the last digit
recorded. For both possible values for the teacher's weight, 1/2 percent is about 0.3 kg. Therefore, a mass recorded to better than this accuracy will
indicate tenths of a kilogram.

A block is pulled along a horizontal surface with a constant horizontal force of magnitude F. The surface exerts a frictional force of constant magnitude f
on the block. The graph of speed as a function of time t for the block is shown above.

Which of the following shows the graph of acceleration a as a function of time t for the block?
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is (B), a constant acceleration. At each instant the acceleration is the slope of the velocity graph. Since the velocity curve is a straight
line that has constant slope, the acceleration is constant. Alternately, the description indicates that both the force pulling the block and the frictional force
are constant. Acceleration is force divided by mass, so it also must be constant.

If, instead, the block slides without friction but is pulled with the same horizontal force of magnitude F, which of the following would be a possible new
graph of speed as a function of time t? (The dashed line represents the old graph.)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is (A). Without friction, there is still a constant force on the block. This means a constant acceleration, so the speed curve will still be
a straight line. Removing friction will not cause the block to be in motion before it is pulled, so the initial speed remains zero. Finally, since friction would
act against the pulling force, the net force on the block is greater without friction, so the acceleration and thus the slope of the speed graph would be
greater

The three lowest energy levels of an atom are shown above. An atom in the n = 3 state can, in a single transition, spontaneously emit a photon having
an energy of

(A)  3 eV only

(B)  4 eV only

(C) 7 eV only

(D) 4 eV or 7 eV only

(E) 3 eV or 4 eV only

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is 4 eV or 7eV only. When the atom in the n= 3 state makes just a single transition, it can end up in either the n= 2 state or the n= 1
state. The energy of the photon released is just the difference in the energy of the initial and final atomic states. In this case the photon energy is either
7 eV - 3 3V = 4 eV or 7 eV - 0 eV = 7eV.

A ball, initially at rest at t= 0 seconds, rolls with constant acceleration down an inclined plane 10 meters long. If the ball rolls 1 meter in the first 2
seconds, how far will it have rolled at t= 4 seconds?

(A)  2 m

(B)  3 m

(C) 4 m

(D) 5 m

(E) 8 m

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is 4 m. Since the initial speed of the ball is zero, distance x down the plane as a function of time t is related to acceleration a by the
equation
x = 1/2 at2. The first condition, that the ball rolls 1 meter in the first 2 seconds, allows you to use this equation to determine that the acceleration is 1/2
m/s2. Using the equation again with this acceleration and t = 4 seconds gives a distance of 4 meters. Alternatively, one could realize that since x is
proportional to t2, when the time is doubled the distance is quadrupled.

A bar magnet is located next to a coil of wire that is fixed in position and connected to an ammeter A, as shown above. There will be an induced electric
current through the ammeter if the magnet is moving in which of the following ways?

I. Toward the coil with constant speed

II. Toward the coil with increasing speed

III. Away from the coil with constant speed

IV. Away from the coil with increasing speed

(A)  I or II only

(B)  I or III only

(C) II or IV only

(D) III or IV only

(E) I or II or II or IV

Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
The correct answer is all four motions. Since the magnetic field extending from the end of the bar magnet is non-uniform, any motion of the magnet will
cause a change in the magnetic flux passing through the coil. This, in turn, causes an induced emf and thus a current in the coil.