ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING PROFESSIONAL SUBJECTS
JULY 22, 2018 PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION
1. In transformers
a. High tension winding is used near the core
b. High tension winding is used away from the core
c. Low tension winding is used near the core
d. Low tension winding is used away from the core
2. Which of the following parameters can be neglected for a short line?
a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Reactance
d. Capacitance
3. Find the frequency of a radio wave whose wavelength is 600 m.
a. 500 Hz
b. 500 kHz
c. 150 Hz
d. 150 kHz
4. The curve representing Ohm’s law is
a. A parabola
b. Linear
c. A singe function
d. A hyperbola
5. A series connected circuit has R =4 ohm and L = 25Mh. Calculate the value of C that will
produce a quality factor of 50.
a. 62.5 microF
b. 6.25 microF
c. 0.625 microF
d. 25 microF
6. The overcurrent protective device is caused to operate by __________
a. Voltage surge
b. Current flow
c. Voltage drop
d. Impedance
7. What is the maximum number of bends permitted in rigid conduits between outlets?
a. 4 quarter bends
b. 6 quarter bends
c. 2 quarter bends
d. 3 quarter bends
8. Which of the following insulators will be selected for high voltage application?
a. Strain type
b. Disc type
c. Suspension type
d. Pin type
9. At a 115 Kv substation, the PT ratio is 1,000 and the CT ratio is 1200/5. The potential
going into the wattmeter is 115 volts. What is the MW indicated when the wattmeter read
800 watts?
a. 150 MW
b. 192 MW
c. 15 MW
d. 19.2 MW
10. An inductive coil consumes active power of 500 W and draws 10 A from a 60 Hz ac supply
of 110 V. What is the coil inductance?
a. 26 mH
b. 28 mH
c. 30 mH
d. 32 mH
11. If the toque angle continuously increases, system will become
a. Stable
b. Unstable
c. Oscillatory stable
d. Asymptotic stable
12. The condition in Ohm’s law is that
a. Ratio V/I should be constant
b. Current should be proportional to voltage
c. The temperature should remain constant
d. The temperature should vary
13. Which of the following shall be included in the calculation of the reliability standard
indices of the distributor asset by the Philippine Distribution Code?
a. Outages that occur on the secondary lines of the distribution system
b. Planned outages where the customers have been notified at least three (3) days prior
to the loss of power
c. Outages that occur on the primary lines of the distribution system.
d. Outages that occur in the transmission line
14. If 25 Ohms and 125 amperes are the base impedance and base current, respectively for a
given system, what is the base KVA?
a. 781.25
b. 39.1
c. 390.625
d. 78.12
15. A type of electronics communication in which only one part transmits at a time.
a. Full duplex
b. Half duplex
c. Bicom
d. Simplex
16. An equal number of electrons is placed on two metal spheres 3 cm apart in air. How many
electrons are on each sphere if the resultant force is 4kN?
a. 1.47 x 10^14 electrons
b. 1.33 x 10^14 electrons
c. 1.25 x 10 ^14 electrons
d. 1.40 x 10^14 electrons
17. Base load plants are designed to supply power at
a. Low capital cost and low operating cost
b. High capital cost and low operating cost
c. Low capital cost and high operating cost
d. High capital cost and high operating cost
18. Peak load plants are designed to supply power at
a. Low capital cost and low operating cost
b. High capital cost and low operating cost
c. Low capital cost and high operating cost
d. High capital cost and high operating cost
19. A symmetrical three-phase 240 v supplies a balanced delta connected load 6-8j ohms per
phase. What is the line current?
a. -25 + 32j A
b. 25 – j5.78 A
c. -25 - j32 A
d. 25 + j32 A
20. A 440 v, 60 Hz, 6 pole, 3 phase induction motor has rotor input power of 33 kW at rated
voltage and frequency. Under this condition, the rotor emf makes 126 complete
cycles/minute. Find the rotor resistance in ohm/phase if the rotor current is 60 A/phase.
a. 0.0118
b. 0.00107
c. 0.170
d. 0.118
21. If the effect of earth is taken into account, then the capacitance of the line to groud
a. Decreases
b. increases
c. remains unchanged
d. become infinite
22. The effective resistance of conductor is increased by
a. skin effect
b. proximity effect
c. corona effect
d. both a and b
23. Surge impedance of transformer line is given by
a. √C⁄L
b. √LC
c. 1/√LC
d. √L⁄C
24. A 100 watts 230 volts gas fitted lamp has a mean spherical candle power of 92. Find its
efficiency in lumen per watts.
a. 9.56
b. 10.56
c. 11.56
d. 12.56
25. The overload KVA of each transformer of an open-delta bank is 11.55. If each transformer
is rated 37.5 KVA, then what is the KVA of the balanced 3 phase load?
a. 70
b. 80
c. 85
d. 90
26. In a 6-pole alternator how many mechanical degrees is the equivalent of 180 electrical
degrees?
a. 60
b. 30
c. 120
d. 90
27. A two terminal pair of network of a transmission line can be represented by a
a. Π network
b. T-network
c. Either a or b
d. Tree network
28. In television system, channel 2 and 13 are classified as
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. SHF
d. EHF
29. An aluminum cable has 10 identical strands, a length of 1500 m and a diameter of 2.50 mm
each. What is the resistance of the cable?
a. 86.3 ohms
b. 0.863 ohms
c. 56.3 ohms
d. 0.563 ohms
30. An ACSR conductor has (n -1) layers around its single center strand, the total number of
strands will be
a. 3n2 + 3n + 1
b. 3n2 - 3n - 1
c. 3n2 + 3n – 1
d. 3n2 – 3n + 1
31. Three resistors A, B and C are connected in series to a 120-v supply. If the resistor A = 50
ohms and the voltage across B = 40 v when the current is ½ A, what is the resistance of
resistor C in ohms?
a. 105
b. 90
c. 110
d. 100
32. An induction motor with 8 poles, 60 Hz is operated with a slip of 3 %. Calculate the rotor
speed.
a. 1,684
b. 1,024
c. 873
d. 927
33. Which of the following methods of generating electric power from the sea water is more
advantageous?
a. Water power
b. Ocean power
c. Tidal power
d. None of these
34. When installing two grounding electrodes, the minimum distance between them is
a. 1,800 mm
b. 2,000 mm
c. 1,500 mm
d. 2, 400 mm
35. A 36 ohms resistor is connected in parallel with an unknown resistor R. Their combination
is then connected in series with a 12 ohms resistor. Find the value of R such that the power
drawn by the parallel combination of 36 ohm and R is equal to the power in the 12 ohm
resistor.
a. 6
b. 18
c. 24
d. 48
36. The current flowing in L and C at parallel resonance are
a. Zero
b. Equal
c. Infinite
d. Different
37. What does PEMC in EPIRA stands for?
a. Philippine Energy Market Corporation
b. Private Energy Marketing Company
c. Philippine Electricity Market Corporation
d. Philippine Electrical Marketing Corporation
38. For two alternators operating in parallel, if the load shared by one of them is to be
increased, its field excitation is
a. To be strengthened keeping input torque the same
b. To be weakened keeping input torque the same
c. To be kept constant but input torque should be increased
d. To be kept constant but input torque should be decreased.
39. A 7.5 MVA, 69/13.8 KV, 3-phase transformer has 8 % impedance, What is the per unit
impedance at 10 MVA?
a. 0.24
b. 0.106
c. 0.06
d. 0.096
40. Open circuit test on transformer is conducted to determine
a. Hysteresis loss
b. Copper loss
c. Core loss
d. Eddy current loss
41. Which of the following power plant is a conventional source of energy?
a. Solar energy
b. Geothermal energy
c. Coal energy
d. Wind energy
42. A transformer is rated 10 kVA, 440/110 V and 60 Hz when operated as a conventional 2
winding transformer. This transformer is to be used as 550/440 v step-down
autotransformer in a distribution system. What is the new KVA rating of the transformer
in this manner?
a. 20
b. 10
c. 37.5
d. 50
43. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back emf depends on
a. Load on the motor
b. Dc excitation only
c. Both the speed and rotor flux
d. None of these
44. A dc ammeter has an internal resistance of 0.1 ohm. A shunt of 1.01 x 10^-3 ohm is
connected to the ammeter. What is the multiplier of the set up?
a. 10
b. 50
c. 80
d. 100
45. A single-phase, 10 km transmission line has 16.65 mH total inductance. If the distance
between the conductors is 1 m, what is the conductor radius?
a. 2 cm
b. 1.5 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 0.75 cm
46. A 4- pole wave wound generator has 220 coils of 10 turns each. The resistance of each turn
is 0.02 ohm. Find the resistance of armature winding.
a. 11 ohm
b. 22 ohm
c. 0.2 ohm
d. 0.44 ohm
47. PDC in EPIRA means
a. Philippine Distribution Commission
b. Philippine Distribution Code
c. Philippine Distribution Corporation
d. Philippine Distribution Company
48. What is the maximum plug and cord rating of a 30 A branch circuit?
a. 24 A
b. 30 A
c. 26 A
d. 28 A
49. Wavelength is the distance travelled by an electronic wave during the time of one cycle.
Given a wavelength of 12 meters, what is the frequency?
a. 250 kHz
b. 25 kHz
c. 250 kHz
d. 25 MHz
50. Alternators installed in a hydro power station, are of
a. Low speed
b. High speed
c. Medium speed
d. Very high speed
51. A sine wave has a frequency of 60 Hz. Its angular frequency is
a. 120 pi
b. 60 pi
c. 30 pi
d. 6 pi
52. In a loss-free RLC circuit, the transient current is
a. Oscillating
b. Square wave
c. Sinusoidal
d. Non-oscillating
53. What is the maximum flux mWb of a transformer with 200 primary turns when connected
to a 60 Hz, 200 v supply?
a. 10.35
b. 6.25
c. 50.5
d. 3.75
54. A 60 Hz, 4 pole, 3 phase induction motor has a slip 2.5%. What is the slip speed in rpm?
a. 55
b. 40
c. 60
d. 45
55. A 15 Hp, 460 V, 60 Hz, 6 Pole, 3 phase induction motor has full-load slip of 4%. Find the
full-load torque in N-m.
a. 85
b. 88
c. 93
d. 90
56. At very low frequency a series RC circuit behaves as almost purely
a. Resistive
b. Inductive
c. Capacitive
d. None of these
57. A power plant gets water from a dam from a height of 122.45 m at the rate of 1,000 cubic
meters per minute. If the output of the plant is 15,000 kW, what is the plant efficiency?
a. 80%
b. 75%
c. 70%
d. 65%
58. A 500 KVA, 34.5/13.8kV, 3-phase transformer is delta-wye connected. The primary and
secondary winding resistances are 3 ohms and 0.876 ohm per phase, respectively. Calculate
the percent efficiency at full-load and unity power factor if core loss is 3 kW.
a. 97.8
b. 98.7
c. 96.4
d. 97.2
59. One of the advantages of distributing the winding in alternators is to
a. Reduce harmonics
b. Reduce the amount of copper
c. Improve voltage waveform
d. Decrease the value of the voltage
60. The effect of corona is
a. Increase reactance
b. Increase inductance
c. Increase energy loss
d. All of these
61. The rms value of pure cosine function is
a. 0.5 of peak value
b. 0.707 of peak value
c. Same as peak value
d. Zero
62. Calculate the use factor of a power plant if the capacity factor is 35% as it operates 8,000
hours during the year.
a. 38.32%
b. 33.82%
c. 36.82%
d. 32.54%
63. How many commutator bars does a 6-pole dc generator with 4 coil elements per slot and
20 slots per pole has?
a. 60
b. 120
c. 240
d. 480
64. A coil having a resistance of 10 ohms and inductance of 4 H is switched across a 20 V dc
source. Calculate the rate of current change when the current reaches 50% of its final steady
value.
a. 2.5 A/s
b. 3.5 A/s
c. 4.5 A/s
d. 5.5 A/s
65. Calculate the torque in N-m developed by a 440-v dc motor having an armature resistance
of 0.25 ohm and running at 750 rpm when taking a current 60 A.
a. 240
b. 325
c. 285
d. 342
66. In a 13.8 kV, 10 MVA base three-phase system, a phase to phase fault occurs, If the
Thevenin’s equivalent impedance of the system is 2.63%, what is the per unit fault current?
a. 19.01 pu
b. 32.93 pu
c. 57.03 pu
d. 98.78 pu
67. A single-phase transmission line having a length of 15 miles is composed of two copper
conductors spaced 7 ft apart having a diameter of 0.575 inch. Determine the line to line
capacitance in farad if the system frequency is 60 Hz.
a. 4.9 x 10^-12
b. 9.8 x 10^-12
c. 11.8 x 10^-9
d. 118 x 10^-9
68. What is the equivalent IEEE device function number for directional power relay?
a. 21
b. 32
c. 37
d. 87
69. Energy radiated continuously in the form of lighting waves is called
a. Luminous intensity
b. Lumen
c. Luminous flux
d. Illumination
70. Efficiency is secondary only consideration in case of
a. Base load plants
b. Peak load plants
c. Both base load and peak load plants
d. None of these
71. A capacitor is charged with 10,000µC. If the energy stored is 1 Joule, find the capacitance.
a. 5 µF
b. 50 µF
c. 500 µF
d. 5,000 µF
72. To a series RLC circuit, a voltage of 10 v is applied. If Q of the coil at resonant frequency
is 20, the voltage across the inductor at resonant frequency will be
a. 200 v
b. 100 v
c. 75 v
d. 50 v
73. A 75 kVA, 13,200/240, 60 Hz, single-phase transformer has 1% resistance and 3%
reactance. Find the copper loss of the transformer at 3/4 of full-load and unity power factor.
a. 185 W
b. 422 W
c. 368 W
d. 508 W
74. The starting current of a 15 Hp, 460 V, 3-phase induction motor is 130 A. What voltage in
volts should applied to the motor so that the starting current will not exceed 84.8 A?
a. 238
b. 295
c. 300
d. 310
75. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measure in terms of its
a. Current value
b. Specific gravity
c. Acid content
d. Voltage output
76. If the field of dc shunt motor is opened
a. It will continue to run at its rated speed
b. The speed of the motor will become very high
c. The motor will stop
d. The speed of the motor will decrease
77. An ideal full-wave rectifier with non-inductive load has zero transformation losses. What
is the efficiency?
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 90%
d. 100%
78. In an ACB sequence balanced 3 phase system, the angle between the line voltage and the
line current is 50 degree, what is the lagging power factor of the system?
a. 0.30
b. 0.50
c. 0.64
d. 0.94
79. A power station supplies 60 kW to a load over 2,500 ft of 000 2-conductor copper feeder
the resistance of which of 0.078 ohm per 1,000 ft. The bus-bar voltage is maintained
constant at 600 volts. Determine the maximum power which can be transmitted.
a. 60 kW
b. 230.7 kW
c. 120 kW
d. 150 kW
80. If a certain conductor has an area of 336,400 circular mils, what is the radius of this
conductor in cm?
a. 0.663
b. 0.810
c. 0.737
d. 0.921
81. In laboratory experiment, the impedance of a coil was obtained at 60 Hz and 30 Hz. These
are 75.48 ohms and 57.44 ohms, respectively. What is the inductance of the coil?
a. 150 mH
b. 182.5 mH
c. 42.5 mH
d. 2.1 mH
82. The dummy coil in dc machines is used to
a. Eliminate reactance voltage
b. Eliminate armature reaction
c. Bring about mechanical balance of armature
d. Eliminate harmonics developed in the armature
83. A half wave rectified sine wave has an average value of 100 amperes. What is the effective
value?
a. 157 A
b. 70.71 A
c. 100 A
d. 141.4 A
84. A 3 phase transmission line has two aluminum conductors in bundle. The self GMD of
each conductor is 8.90 mm and the distance between the conductors and phases is 40 cm
and 9 m, respectively. What is the inductance of the line per phase?
a. 1 µH/m
b. 2 µH/m
c. 3 µH/m
d. 4 µH/m
85. The purpose of insulating oil when used on power circuit breaker are the following,
EXECEPT;
a. Interrupter
b. Coolant
c. Insulation
d. Quencher
86. A wind generator with an efficiency of 80% has blade diameter of 20 m. If the wind
velocity is 30 km/hr, how much power in KW is obtained from the generator?
a. 58.47
b. 45.78
c. 48.75
d. 54.87
87. The field system of a 50 Hz alternator has sinusoidal flux per pole of 0.1 Wb. Calculate the
emf generated in one turn which spans two-thirds of a pole pitch.
a. 17.4 v
b. 19.2 v
c. 12.2 v
d. 9.6 v
88. A dc shunt motor develops 15 Hp at 120 v. If the effective armature resistance is 0.061
ohm and field winding draws 2 amperes, what is the overall efficiency?
a. 90%
b. 93%
c. 94%
d. 95%
89. An 8-pole triplex wave-wound armature carries a total of 660 amperes. If there are 8 brush
arms, calculate the current in each armature conductor.
a. 110 A
b. 66 A
c. 22 A
d. 11 A
90. Inside a hollow spherical conductor
a. Electric field is zero
b. Electric field is constant
c. Electric field chances with distance from the center of the sphere
d. Electric field is unity
91. Residual magnetism is necessary in a
a. Separately excited generator
b. Self-excited generator
c. Both of these
d. None of these
92. Three impedances Zab = 4 – j3 ohms, Zbc = 3 + j4 ohms and Zca = 10 + j0 ohms are connected
in delta across a 220 volts, three phase balanced source. What is the total power of the
circuit?
a. 1,839 W
b. 1,936 W
c. 6,130 W
d. 18,392 W
93. A light source located 2.75 m from a surface produces an illumination of 528 lux on that
surface. Find the illumination if the distance is changed to 1.55 m.
a. 298 lux
b. 1,662 lux
c. 937 lux
d. 168 lux
94. In case of delta connected circuit, when one resistor is open, power will be
a. Unaltered
b. Reduced to 1/9
c. Reduced to 1/16
d. Reduced by 1/3
95. Two similar poles, each of 1 Wb, placed 1 m apart in air will experience a repulsive force
of ______.
a. 63,000 N
b. 769 N
c. 8 x 10^12 N
d. 63 x 10^-3 N
96. In a transformer, the core loss is found to be 60 watts at 30 Hz and 90 watts at 40 Hz
measured at the same maximum flux density. Compute the eddy current and hysteresis
losses at 60 Hz in watts.
a. 90, 75
b. 85, 60
c. 95, 69
d. 88, 72
97. Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when
a. R = 0
b. R = 2√𝐿/𝐶
c. R > 2√𝐿/𝐶
d. R < 2√𝐿/𝐶
98. The current from neutral to ground connection is 12A. What is the zero sequence
component in phases?
a. 12 A
b. 36 A
c. 4 A
d. 3 A
99. With reference to armature windings, wave windings are often called _______ windings.
a. Cascade
b. Series
c. Parallel
d. Ring
100. This is the compact arrangement of switching devices
a. Circuit protector
b. Switchboard
c. Switchgear
d. Panel board
ANSWER KEY 33. C 67. D
34. A 68. B
1. A
35. B 69. C
2. D
36. B 70. B
3. B
37. C 71. B
4. B
38. C 72. B
5. C
39. B 73. B
6. B
40. C 74. C
7. A
41. C 75. B
8. C
42. D 76. B
9. B
43. B 77. B
10. A
44. D 78. D
11. B
45. A 79. B
12. C
46. A 80. C
13. C
47. B 81. A
14. C
48. A 82. C
15. B
49. D 83. A
16. C
50. C 84. A
17. B
51. A 85. A
18. C
52. C 86. D
19. D
53. D 87. B
20. C
54. D 88. A
21. B
55. C 89. A
22. D
56. C 90. A
23. D
57. B 91. B
24. C
58. B 92. D
25. C
59. C 93. B
26. A
60. C 94. D
27. C
61. B 95. A
28. A
62. A 96. A
29. B
63. C 97. A
30. D
64. A 98. C
31. C
65. B 99. B
32. C
66. B 100. C