Air Navigation- August 8th, 2018 Question Paper
1. Climb limit mass is limited by which segment
      a. 1st segment
      b. 2nd segment
      c. 3rd segment
2. The initial range from GPS is called pseudo range because of
      a. Receiver clock error
      b. Because it generates pseudo random codes
3. V1 should never be lower than
      a. Vr
      b. Vmcg
4. For ADF to work correctly
      a. Both sense and loop aerial should receive signal
5. What is EAT?
      a. Time at IAF
      b. Time at FAF
6. Ramp mass is
      a. MZFM + Total fuel
      b. Operating mass + Traffic Load
7. An aircraft flying a constant hdg with 5 deg starboard drift making good a track
   parallel to the center line of the airway, but 12nm to the right of the centerline, find
   ADF reading from an NDB situated 45 nm ahead of the centerline of the airway.
      a. 349°
      b. 011°
      c. 191°
8. INS uses
      a. Accelerometers with a rate gyro stabilized platform
9. IRS uses
      a. Ring laser gyros
10. Scale in a Direct Mercator chart varies with
      a. Secant of latitude
      b. Secant² ½ co-latitude
11. With Static vent blocked in a descent. ASI, VSI and Altimeter will
       a. Over-read, Under-read, Over-read
       b. Over-read, Under-read, Under-read
12. Which instrument is affected by Mushing error
         a. RADIOALT
13. DGI is affected by which of the following errors (i)Turning and Pitching
    (ii)Transport wander (iii) Apparent wander
       a. All three
       b. (ii) and (iii)
       c. (i) and (iii)
14. Radio altimeter measures
       a. Height above terrain
       b. Altitude above MSL
15. Direct Mercator is (i)Cylindrical Projection (ii)Conical Projection (iii)Plane
    projection (iv) Conformal (v) Perspective (vi) Non-perspective
       a. (i), (iv), (vi)
       b. (iii), (iv), (vi)
16. Radio Altimeter measures height from
       a. From lowest wheels to the ground
       b. From Fuselage to the ground
17. Indicated Altitude 6000 ft. OAT -16°C. What is the true altitude
       a. 6050ft
18. For an unscheduled flight what would you enter in Item 8 of a flight plan?
       a. N
       b. N/S
       c. G
19. What can be mention in Item 15 of a flight plan
       a. SID only
       b. STAR only
       c. SID and STAR both where appropriate
20.                                                                       What deviation
      must be done to join track?
        a. Right 275
        b. Right 85
        c. Left 85
21.                                                   What is the track?
        a. 135
        b. 155
22. Which of the following is not an advantage of SSR?
        a. Less power required
        b. Paints all aircraft within range
23. V speed for stall in landing configuration is abbreviated as?
        a. Vso
        b. Vmca
24. What is Vs?
        a. Stall speed in a particular configuration
25. What is standard time?
        a. Time set by authorities for a country or a region
26. An aircraft at 60°N circles the earth at a speed of 240 kts. What speed will an
    aircraft at 0° N/S need to maintain to circle the earth in the same time.
        a. 480 kts
27. VSI measures change in
        a. Static pressure
        b. Dynamic pressure
28. CG at forward limit
        a. Stall speed increases
        b. Stall speed decreases
29. For a heavy aircraft
        a. Stall speed increases
        b. Stall speed decreases
30. In an emergency an aircraft has to do an upwind landing
        a. Speed similar as GS, Undershoot, longer roll on ground
        b. Speed similar as GS, Shorter roll on ground, more controllable
31. Distance to CP is 480 nm from point of departure. The tailwind changes from 20
    kts to 30 kts. The position of CP from departure point becomes
         a. Less than 480 nm
         b. More than 480 nm
         c. Remains unchanged
32. An aircraft is at 45 nm from a DME which is located at MSL height in a 3°
    approach. What is the height of the aircraft.
         a. 1365 ft AMSL
33. The endurance in a Flight plan is for
         a. Total fuel
         b. Trip fuel
         c. Total fuel - Reserve
34. What code should an aircraft squawk when coming from an airspace where no
    SSR is required?
         a. 2000
         b. 7000
35. The change in frequency measured in an aircraft from a radio transmission
    reflected from the ground is used to determine:
         a. the drift and ground speed of the aircraft
         b. the aircraft’s track and speed
         c. the across track wind component and heading
36. If the wavelength of a radio wave is 3.75 metres, the frequency is:
         a. 80 MHz
         b. 80 kHz
         c. 8 MHz
37. Radio wave travelling in air of increasing density. The speed of the wave:
         a. Slows down and wave moves toward high density
         b. Speeds up and moves toward low density
38. Precession is due to?
         a. Bearing friction
39. Advantage of electric AH
         a. Free from turning and acceleration errors
40. What does a DRC read when accelerating Easterly in Northern hemisphere?
         a. Apparent turn towards North
         b. Apparent turn towards South
41. What does a DRC read when accelerating towards West in Northern Hemisphere?
         a. Apparent turn towards North
         b. Apparent turn towards South
42. Turning errors in a DRC:
         a. Max in N/S direction increases with increasing latitude
         b. Max in N/S direction increases with decreasing latitude
         c. Max in E/W direction increases with increasing latitude
43. RCF transponder code?
         a. 7600
         b. 7500
         c. 7700
44. DPNR= 500 nm. Fuel consumption increases from 200 gallon/hour to 240
    gallon/hour. Now the DPNR will be?
         a. 425 NM
         b. 475 NM
45. Find the shortest distance between 0° N/S 173° E and 0° N/S 176° W.
         a. 1220 KM
         b. 660 KM
46. What is the diameter of earth?
         a. 12,700 km
         b. 40,000 km
47. ADF interception outbound. Hdg=20° Relative bearing=20°. What is the heading to
    be steered to intercept 330° radial outbound at 40° interception angle
         a. 10°
         b. 330°
         c. 310°
48. Stopway surface should be designed such that
         a. Aircraft doesn’t get get damaged during rejected takeoff
         b. Aircraft can get damaged during rejected takeoff
49. A current flight plan is a
         a. Filed flight plan with all amendments and clearances
50. The V speed at which a takeoff can be continued with failure of critical engine.
    [Asked twice]
         a. Vmca
         b. Vmcg
         c. Vmca & Vmcg
51. A length on a map measure 23 nm at 20° latitude. What will the same length
    measure at 40° latitude. [Values are not exact but the structure of the question was the
    same]
52. And aircraft consumes 200 kg of fuel with a SG 0.80. How much fuel will be
    consumed with a SG of 0.75?
53. What is BFO used for?
         a. To make frequencies audible
54. Space gyro has how many planes of freedom?
55. An island in spotted on an AWR 30° to the left. Heading given, variation given.
    Find the true course from the island to the nose of the aircraft.
56. If a radar has a beam width of 3° and a pulse length of 4 microseconds, the target
    azimuth resolution at a range of 60 NM will be approximately:
         a. 3 NM
         b. 2 NM
      c. 4 NM
57. FL 75. Airfield at 1500 ft. QNH 1023 mb. How many feet will the aircraft have to
    climb? 1 mb=30 ft
58. Pitot measures Was asked thrice with little variation.
        a. Static Pressure
        b. Dynamic Pressure
        c. Total Pressure
59. In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is:
        a. Inversely proportional to TAS
        b. Proportional to TAS
        c. Proportional to aircraft weight
60. Highest latitude at which sun will be 90° above the horizon
        a. 23
        b. 66
61. On a Lamberts Chart, the scale remains constant
        a. Along a latitude
        b. Along a longitude
62. When is a Radio wave said to be vertically polarized
        a. Electric field is vertical
        b. Magnetic field is vertical
63. Rate 1 turn of 90 degrees will be completed in:
        a. 30 seconds
64. Magnetic Dip is maximum at the
        a. Poles
        b. Equator
        c. Mid latitudes
65. Max Range of Radio Transmission when the height of the Tx is 900 ft and Rx(a/c)
    is at 18000 ft.
66. Maximum error in direct reading compass is due to
        a. Turning
        b. Parallax
        c. Magnetic Deviation
67. Earth is considered to be
        a. A sphere as far navigation is concerned
68. ADF is affected by the which of the following errors
        a. Station interference, static interference
        b. Quadrantal Error, Night Effect, Selective Availability
69. If an aircraft carries Ballast fuel, this weight should be added to:
        a. Basic Empty Mass
70. The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is
        a. TAS
        b. IAS
71. Maximum range of a pulse depends on?
        a. PRF
        b. PRI
72. You are going from 94°00° W towards West direction. Distance travelled is 6 NM.
    What will your new position be?
73. 2 Straight forward numericals of Distance to PNR & 1 numerical was on PET (Unable to
    recollect the values.)
74. Question on calculating wind speed and direction. TAS, GS, Heading and Track given,
    calculate W/V. [4 questions of this type were asked]
75. For Vmcg to be calculated:
        a. Rudder force should not exceed 300 lbs
        b. Rudder force should not exceed 150 lbs
76. Define ROC.
77. An a/c cruising from 3000 to 4000 ft. Track 200 degrees. Made a final climb to 20000 ft.
    TAS was given. Rate of Climb was given. Some ISA -5 values were given. Time and
    distance to calculate from 0 to 20000 ft. It required the use of PA= IA + (ISA
    Dev*4*IA/1000) formula
78. Same question as above but final climb was till 16000 ft with a different TAS and rate of
    Climb speed
79. 2 questions were straight forward from Mass and Balance formulas.