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SREE CHITRA TIRUNAL INSTITUTE FOR MEDICAL SCIENCES AND TECHNOLOGY
THIRUVANANTHAPURAM - 695 011, INDIA
WRITTEN TEST FOR THE POST OF STAFF NURSE - A
Date : 28.11.2010 Duration : 90 Minutes
Time : 9.30A.M Total Marks: 80
QUESTION PAPER
1. Percentage of oxygen delivered by use of a non-rebreathing mask with a
flow rate of 10 litres {minute is:
a. 20 - 35
b. 35 - 50
c. 50-60
d. 90 - 95
2. Simple or typical febrile seizures occur in:
a. Infants below 3 months of age
b. 3 months - 5 years
c. 3 years - 8 years
d. Preadolescents
3. The dilution of adrenaline used in neonatal resuscitation is:
a. 1:10
b. 1:100
c. 1:1000
d. 1:10000
4. Injection sodium bicarbonate should not be mixed with
a. Normal saline
b. 5% dextrose
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Ringer lactate
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Grams: Chitramet Phone: 2443152 Fax: (91)471-2446433
E-mail: set.@setimst.ker.nie.in
:2550728
5. Weight and Length of a normal full term baby, with birth weight of 3 kg at
one year of ages are expected to be:
a. 7 kg and 70 cm
b. 9 kg and 75 cm
c. 12 kg and 80 cm
d. 12 kg and 85 cm
6. Using a placebo for pain control in a certain case without the patient's
consent is:
a. justified and ethical
b. justified but unethical
c. deceptive but ethical
d. deceptive and unethical
7. Which of the following can be used for applying moist heat?
a. Sitz bath
b. Aqua pad
c. Hot water bag
d. Commercial hot pack
8. Which action is most effective in preventing wound infections?
a. Using sterile dressings
b. Suggestingdietary supplements
c. Applying antibiotic ointment
d. Observingcareful hand hygiene
9. Before administering enteric coated drug through a naso-gastric tube, the
nurse should first ensure:
a. Crushing of the tablet
b. Flushingthe tube with warm water
c. Checking for proper placement of the tube
d. Taking the patient's vital signs
10. Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs is useful when planning and
implementing nursing care, as it provides a structure for:
a. Making accurate nursing diagnosis
b. Establishing priorities of care
c. Communicatingconcerns more concisely
d. Integratingscience into nursing care
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11. Which nursing organization was the first international organization of
women nurses?
a. The International Council of Nurses (ICN)
b. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
c. The National League for Nursing (NLN)
d. The National Student Nurses' Association (NSNA)
12. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is administered through a central vein
because of:
a. Rapid rate of infusion
b. High volume of infusion
c. High osmolarity of solution
d. Easy access
13. Gas gangrene is caused by:
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringes
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Anaerobic streptococci
14. Most important step in avoiding wrong site surgery is:
a. Having a check list procedure before surgery
b. Avoiding patients with the same name on the list
c. Avoiding patients with same conditions in the list
d. Having a short operation list
15. Transmission of HIV to health care workers during surgery can be
prevented by:
a. Routine screening of all patients
b. Using "universal precautions"
c. Avoiding surgery on HIV patients
d. Antiretroviral prophylaxis for the health care workers
16. Accurate estimation of large burn areas is done by:
a. "Rule of nine"
b. Patient hand approximated to 1% total burn surface area
c. Lund & Browder chart
d. Calculation of Body Mass Index
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17. Mos~ common topical treatment used for burn wound, which is effective
against both pseudomonas and MRSA is:
a. Silver sulphadiazine
b. 0.5% Silver nitrate
c. Mafenide acetate
d. Soframycin
18. Best and easy way to monitor resuscitation in a burn patient is:
a. Monitoring pulse rate
b. Monitoring blood pressure
c. Monitoring urine output
d. Monitoring haematocrit
19. Lucid interval is seen in
a. Intra cerebral haemorrhage
b. Extradural haemorrhage
c. Acute subdural haemorrhage
d. Chronic subdural haemorrhage
20. All the following suture materials are absorbable, EXCEPT:
a. Polyglycolic acid (Vicryl)
b. Chromic catgut
c. Polypropylene (Prolene)
d. Polydioxanone (POS)
21. A patient with Diabetes Insipidus characteristically complains of:
a. Fatigue
b. Hunger
c. Thirst
d. Weight loss
22. The fluid preferred for initial resuscitation of a patient with hemorrhagic
shock is:
a. Ringer's lactate
b. Whole blood
c. 5% dextrose
d. Fresh frozen plasma
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23. Nyctalopia and Bitot Spot are due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
24. One pint of 10%dextrose yields, how much of calories?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400
25. The thick collection of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of
the brain is called:
a. Corpus callosum
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pons
d. Brain stem
26. Guedal airway is a:
a. Oropharyngeal airway
b. Nasopharyngeal airway
c. Laryngeal airway
d. Tracheal airway
27. All of the following are complications of immobility, EXCEPT:
a. Pneumonia
b. Deep venous thrombosis
c. Pressure sores
d. Hepatic failure
28. Which of the following represents lead III of electrocardiography?
a. Right leg to right arm
b. Left leg to left arm
c. Right leg to left arm
d. Left leg to right arm
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29. In Trendelenburg position:
a. The foot end of the bed is elevated
b. The head end of the bed is elevated
c. Patient is put in decubitus position
d. Patient is put in prone position
30. Gastric lavageshould not be done in:
a. Antipsychotic drug poisoning
b. Corrosive poisoning
c. Organophosphorus poisoning
d. Organochlorine poisoning
31. Which of the following clinical nursing practices is recommendedas most
important to healthcareand nursing professionals today?
a. Primary care nursing
b. Community-based nursing
c. Authoritative nursing
d. Evidence-based practice
32. The oral clinical thermometer records a temperature of 102°Fin a patient
scheduled for surgery, but the patient is afebrile to touch. The first thing
to be done by the recording nurse is to:
a. inform the in-charge nurse
b. inform the doctor
c. validate the finding
d. document the finding
33. Which route one uses to identify hypothermia in a new born?
a. Oral
b. Aural
c. Rectal
d. Surface probe
34. A known admitted cardiac patient develops dyspnea. What should the
attending nurse do first before other activities?
a. Remove pillows from under the head
b. Keep the. patient in left-side up position
c.' Elevate the foot end of the bed
d. Keep the patient in propped-up position
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35. In the critical-care pain observation tool, which facial expression has
been given the score of 2?
a. Relaxed, neutral
b. Tense
c. Grimacing
d. Shouting
36. Which method of documentation uses the categories "data, action and
response" (DAR) to facilitate nurse's daily charting?
a. Narrative notes
b. Focus charting
c. Case management model
d. Minimum data set
37. When implementing the plan of care for a patient receiving intravenous
therapy, which nursing practice would be most appropriate?
a. Changing the IV catheter entry site daily
b. Changing the tubings every 8 hours
c. Increasing the rate to catch up, if the correct amount has not been
infused at the end of the shift
d. monitoring the flow rate once every hour
38. While administering a blood transfusion, the ideal nursing care
recommended to identify a blood transfusion reaction is:
a. Inspecting 15 minutes after the infusion is started
b. Inspecting at the end of transfusion
c. Inspecting once in every 30 minutes
d. Inspecting whenever the patient complains
39. When caring for a patient with chronic lung disease on oxygen therapy by
nasal canula, the most important check, that is expected of the nurse is :
a. The oxygen must be humidified
b. The rate will be 2 Umin or less
c. Periodic sampling of arterial blood for ABG
d. The rate will be 6 Umin or more
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40. Which nursing action is inappropriate when performing oro-pharyngeal
suctioning on a patient?
a. Using sterile technique
b. Applying suction as the catheter is being introduced
c. Flushingthe catheter with saline between catheter insertions
d. Limitingsuction to 15 second intervals at one time.
41. Dilated pupil could result from:
a. Structural lesions in the pons
b. Morphinepoisoning
c. Pilocarpineeye drops instillation
d. Brain death
42. Rest is needed in patients with coronary artery disease to:
a. Correct arrhythmias
b. Reduceoxygen requirements of the body
c. Reducethe size of the heart
d. Reducethe tendency for insomnia
43. Myasthenia gravis is a disease of:
a. Neuromuscularjunction
b. Anterior horn cells
c. Skeletal muscle
d. Spinal cord
44. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Uniform spasticity
b. Postural instability
c. Tremors
d. Bradykinesia
45. One of the following drugs cannot be used in hypertension management:
a. Nifedipine
b. Dopamine
c. Propranolol
d. Reserpine
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46. The typical ECG pattern (in the appropriate leads) of Acute Myocardial
Infarction:
a. ST Depressionand T Wave Inversion
b. ST SegmentElevation
c. DeepT Wave Inversion
d. RightBundleBranchBlock pattern
47. One of the following drugs is used to lower blood cholesterol:
a. Diltiazem
b. Propranolol
c. Frusemide
d. Atorvastatin
48. One of the following is an antipiatelet drug:
a. Digoxin
b. Streptokinase
c. Aspirin
d. Dobutamine
49. The drug that is used to treat a cyanotic spell in a child is:
a. Morphine
b. Pethidine
c. Diazepam
d. Haloperidol
50. The supportive cells of the nervous system are:
a. T cells
b. Stem cells
c. Glial cells
d. Astrocytes
51. A 35-year old smoker with gangrene toe most probably suffers from:
a. Thrombo-angitisobliterans
b. Reynaud'sdisease
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Arterio-venousfistula
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52. Nursing activities shown to potentially increase intracranial pressure
include:
a. Raising the head of the bed to 30 degree
b. Applying therapeutic touch
c. Endo-tracheal suctioning
d. Speaking softly
53. Thetreatment of mitral stenosis is:
a. Balloon Valvotomy
b. PTCA
c. By-Pass Surgery
d. Angiogram
54. Oneof the following is a new test used in acute chest pain:
a. SGOT estimation
b. Troponin T or I estimation
c. Blood Cholesterol estimation
d. LDH estimation
55. The nurse should expect a patient who has chronic renal failure to be
given erythropoietin (Epogen)to :
a. Elevate the WBC count
b. Enhance the maturation of thrombocytes
c. Increase the production of platelets
d. Stimulate the synthesis of red blood cells
56. When teaching the care-givers of a patient who has dementia of the
Alzheimer type, a nurse should stress the importanceof :
a. Increased stimuli
b. A predictable environment
c. Restricted activities
d. Independent decision making
57. Which of the following blood values on the laboratory report should a
nurse expect;when assessing a-patientwho has emphysema?
a. PC02 52 mm Hg
b. pH 7.48
c. P02 94 mm Hg
d. HC03 21 mEq/2
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58. Which of the following conditions would a nurse recognize as
contributing to the development of respiratory acidosis?
a. COPD
b. Hyperventilation
c. Diarrhea
d. Achalasia
59. Which of the following outcomes observed by the nurse during the drain
cycle of peritoneal dialysis should be reported immediately to the
physician?
a. Clear yellow output
b. Cloudy output
c. Patient complaint of slight cramping
d. A drain output of SOcc less than instilled
60. Which of the following foods should be removed from the dietary tray of
a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?
a. Idli
b. Drumstick leaves
c. Fresh fruit
d. Eggs
61. Which of the following findings would a nurse identify as indicative of
septic shock in a patient?
a. Bradycardia
b. Elevated JVP
c. Cool, clammy skin
d. S3 gallop
62. The nurse should instruct a patient who is to receive Digoxin (Lanoxin)
to report developmentof which of the following side effects?
a. Ringing in the ears
b. Loss of appetite
c. Signs of bruising
d. Sensitivity to sunlight
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63. Enteric fever is transmitted by:
a. Inhalation
b. Ingestion
c. Inoculation
d. insects
64. Nursing care for a patient who has polycythemia vera would focus on
preventing?
a. Dysrhythmias
b. Hypotension
c. Thrombosis
d. Decubitus ulcers
65. The length of the spinal cord in an adult male is:
a. 18 cm
b. 45 cm
c. 50 cm
d. 36 cm
66. When caring for a patient who is on a mechanical ventilator, the nurse
should monitor the patient for which of the following complications?
a. Flail chest
b. Pleural effusion
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pulmonary embolus
67. Broca's area controls:
a. Sensory functions
b. Speech
c. Emotions
d. Motor functions
68. Who invented the Blood grouping as A, B, O?
a. Landsteiner
b. John Gibbon
c. William Harvey
d. Robert Boucher
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69. Which of the following vitamins is soluble in water?
a. A
b. E
c. C
d. 0
70. How many lobes are present in Right lung?
a. 7
b. 2
c. 3
d. 9
71. Which plane divides the brain into unequal right and left portions?
a. Frontal plane
b. Transverse plane
c. Mid-sagittal plane
d. Para-sagittal plane
72. Which channels are opened during depolarization in metabolism?
a. K +
b. Na +
c. Mg +
d. Ca +
73. What is the outermost layer of heart called?
a. Endocardium
b. Epicardium
c. Myocardium
d. Pericardium
74. Cholesterol is important in the human body for:
a. Angiogenesis
b. Cell membrane structure
c. Enzyme synthesis
d. Osteogenesis
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75. In the P, Q, R, S waves in E.C.G.,'P' wave represents?
a. Atrial depolarisation
b. Atrial repolarisation
c. Ventricular depolarisation
d. Ventricular repolarisation
76. To calculate cardiac output, heart rate is multiplied with?
a. Stroke volume
b. Systemic arterial pressure
c. Pulmonary arterial pressure
d. Circulatory volume
77. In which organ are the 'Kupfer cells' present?
a. Brain
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Pancreas
78. "Gonads" means:
a. Salivary glands
b. Sebaceous glands
c. Sweat glands
d. Testis and ovaries
79. In proteins classification, class 'A' proteins are:
a. Animal proteins
b. Vegetable proteins
c. Oil proteins
d. Milk proteins
80. What is the scientific nameof vitamin 86?
a. Biotin
b. Pyridoxine
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Thiamine
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