6.1 and 6.

2
1-A disk is a circular platter constructed of nonmagnetic material is called
a)track b) substrate c) sector d) head
2-Benefits of glass substrate are
a)Greater ability to withstand shock and damage b) Better stiffness to reduce disk dynamics
c) both d) None of these
3-During read and write operations ,head is
a)stationary b) rotates c) move up down d) move right left
4-Magneto resistive sensor contained by
a)Read head b) write head c) sector d) None of these
5-The MR material has an ----- resistance that depends on the direction of the magnetization of
the medium moving under it.
a)Magnetic b) Electrical c) water d) None of these
6-The organization of data on the platter in a concentric set of rings is called
a)sector b) tracks c) head d) substrate
7-Per track contain hundreds of
a)Sectors b) inter tracks c) gaps d) holes
8-Sectors may be of fixed or variable length, fixed length sectors use
a)612 bytes b) 512 bytes c) 480 bytes d) 360 bytes
9-The information can then be scanned at the same rate by rotating the disk at a fixed speed,
known as the
a) constant angular velocity b) multiple zooned velocity
c) fixed head disk d) None of these
10-A _________ disk is permanently mounted in the disk drive.
a)Removable b) Non-removable c) Single-sided d) Double-sided
11-Which disk uses head mechanisms that actually comes into physical contact with the medium
during a read or write operation?
a)Single-sided disk b) Removable disk c) Floppy disk d) None
12-The set of all the tracks in the same relative position on the platter is referred to as ______.
a)Read write head b) Cylinder c) Air gap d) Data density
13-Which hard disk drive has highest capacity?
a)Seagate Barracuda ES.2 b) Seagate Barracuda 7200.10
c) Seagate Barracuda 7200.9 d) None
14-On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track is known
as_______.
a)Seek time b) Access time c) Transfer time d) Rotational delay
15-A typical average seek time on contemporary hard disks is under ______.
a)3ms b) 10ms c) 1.5ms d) 5ms
16-RAID stands for
a)Redundant Array of Independent Disks b) Rapid Array of Independent Disks
c) Redundant Array of Isolated Disks d) Rapid Array of isolated Disks
17-RAID is a set of ________ viewed by the operating system as a single logical drive
a)Hard Disks b) Floppy Disk c) Physical Disk Drives d) USB drives
18-Data in RAID are distributed across the physical drives of an array in a scheme known as
a)Physical Drives b) Striping c) Disks d) Platters
19-Some applications of RAID level 0 are on
a)Supercomputers b) Minicomputers c) Microcomputers d) All
20-The performance of any of the RAID levels depends critically on the ________of the host
system and on the layout of the data
a)Architecture b) Request pattern c) Structure d) Scheme
21-In a transaction-oriented environment, the user is typically more concerned with ______than
with transfer rate
a)Process time b) Processing speed c) Response time d) All
22-An approach to introduce redundancy is to duplicate every disk, process is known as.
a)Redundancy b) Duplicating c) Mirroring d) Reflectivity
23-Solution to improving reliability is to introduce
a)Repositioning b) Reflectivity c) Transitivity d) Redundancy
24-Transfer rate can be improved by striping data, which is of level:
a)2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
25-In RAID level 4, one block read accesses______.
a) Only One Disk b) All disk simultaneously
c) All disk sequentially d) None of these
26-The overall I/O rate in level 4 is
a)Low b) Very low c) High d) None of these
27-RAID level 5 is known as:
a) Bit-interleaved parity organization b)Block-interleaved parity organization
c) Block-interleaved distributed parity d)Memory-style ECC organization
28-The potential overuse of single parity disk is avoided in RAID level____.
a)3 b) 4 c) 5 d) All of these
29-RAID level 0+1 is used , Because level 0 provides_____, whereas level 1 provides____.
a) Performance, redundancy b) Performance, reliability
c) Redundancy, performance d) None of these
30-If a disk fails in level ___ rebuilding lost data is easiest.
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

6.3 and 6.4

31.Computer disk is a non-readable disk that can store more than _____ of audio information on
one side.
a)50 minutes b)60 minutes c)30 minutes d)55 minutes
32. Sync field identifies the _____ of a block.
a) Ending b) Beginning c) Intermediate d) None of these
33. Mode 1 specifies the _____ of a block.
a) Data-correcting b) User-correcting c) Error-correcting d) Value-correcting
34. The data capacity for a CD-ROM is about.
a) 460 MB b) 608 MB c) 680 KB d) 680 MB
35. The spacing between loops of a spiral on a CD is.
a) 1.6 micro meter b) 1.7 micro meter c) 1.8 micro meter d) 0.7 micro meter
36. The medium is ____ tape coated with magnetizable material.
a) Vapor-plated b) Tape-drives c) Flexible polyester d) platinum-coated
 37. The widths range vary from ____ to _____
a) 0.5 inch to 0.15 inch b) 0.38 cm to 1.27 cm c) 0.15 cm to 0.19 cm d) Both a , b
38. Earlier tape system were using tracks.
a) 18 to 36 b) 9 to 18 c) 9 to 36 d) 18 to 30
39. Typical recording technique used in serial tapes is reffered to as.
a) Serial recording b) Serpentine recording c) Parallel recording d) All of these
40. As with the disk, data are read and written in contiguous blocks called _____
a) Physical records b) Serial recording c) non-recovered gaps d) None of these
41. ____ was the first kind of secondary memory.
a) Serial tape b) Magnetic tape c) Tape drives d) All of these
42. LTO was developed in late as an open source.
a) 1870 s b) 1990 s c) 2000 s d) 1880 s
43. A disk drive need not t read all the ____ on a disk sequentially to get the desired cone.
a) Sectors b) Cylinder c) Cycles d) Boxes
44. If the tape head is positioned to record 1, then to read record N, it is necessary to read
physical record 1 through N-1, one at a time.
a) Random access device b) Only read device c) Sequential access device d) All of these
45. 100% _____ of data means no rebuild is necessary in case of a disk failure.
a) Redundancy b) Spreading c) Control d) None
of these
46. Highest disk overhead of all RAID types _____ inefficient.
a) 80% b) 70% c) 90% d) 100%
47. CD-ROM can hold more than ______.
a) 650 GBs b) 680 KBs c) 650 MBs d) 560 MBs
48. To achieve greater capacity, CDs and CD-ROMs don nor organize information on ______
a) Cycles b) Concentric tracks c) Compact disks d) Boxes
49. In Auxiliary mode 1 is a ______ error correcting code.
a) 288 bits b) 288 bytes c) 288 Mbs d) 288 KBs
50. The database on a magnetic disk has to be reproduced by copying one disk at a time using
_____ disk drivers.
a) Four b) Eight c) Three d) Two
51. Disadvantage of CD-ROM is.
a) It is Read only b) Cannot be updated c) Both of these d) None of these
52. CD-RW has the obvious advantages over CD-ROM and CD-R that it can be.
a) Re-written, true secondary storage b) Only read, updated
c) Read, Write d) All of these
53. High bit density is achieved by using a laser with.
a) High wavelength b) Short wavelength c) Moderate wavelength d) None of these 24.
54-The HD-DVD can store____ on a single layer on a single side.
a) 15 KB b) 15 MB c) 15 GB d) 15 TB
55. Blue ray can store _____ on a single layer.
a) 25 GB b) 25 MB c) 25 KB d) 52 GB
56. Application of RIAD in layer 1 is.
a) Parallel b) Finance c) Accounting d) All of these
57. Advantages of RAID in layer 1 are.
a) Easy to implement b) Simple design c) Easy to understand d) Both a,b
58. Disadvantages of RAID in layer 4 are.
a) Inefficient b) Difficult to implement c) Inaccurate d) None of these
59. DVD-R is similar to.
a) DVD-ROM b) DVD-RW c) CD-ROM d) All of these
60. CD system uses _____ and record mere _____
a) 13cm, 26cm b) 12cm, 60ms c) 12cm,60cm d) 13cm, 26ms

8.1 and 8.2

61. ______ shares characteristics with both hardware and software
a)OS b)Storage c)Processor d)Data
62.The primary purpose of an operating system is
a) To make the most efficient use of computer resources b)To manage users
c)To make computer easy to use d)None
63.With use of multiprogramming batch processing work can be
a)Efficient b)Rigid c)Flexible d)Expensive
64.Timer is used to prevent
a)Job b)information c)Program d)Time
65.Interrupts make an operating system more
a)Flexible b)Efficient c)Slow d)Fast
66.______ is a decision to add a new process to the set of processes that are currently active. It is
performed when a new process is created.
a)Long Term Scheduling b)Short term scheduling
c)Medium term scheduling d)I/O scheduling
67._______ also known as the dispatcher, executes most frequently and makes the fine grained
decision of which process to execute next.
a)Long Term scheduling b)Medium term scheduling
c)I/O scheduling d)Short scheduling
68.______ is a part of the swapping function in which the decision to add to the number
of process that are partially or fully in main memory.
a)Medium term scheduling b)Short term scheduling
c)Long term scheduling d)I/O term scheduling
69.______ is the actual decision of which ready process to execute next.
a)Long term scheduling b)Short term scheduling
c)I/O scheduling d)Medium term scheduling
70.The ______ consists of all processes in the ready state.
a)Short-term queue b)Long-term queue
c)I/O-term queue d)Medium-term queue
71.Process are classified into different groups in _______
a)Multi-level scheduling algorithm b)Shortest scheduling algorithm
c)Round robin scheduling d)Priority scheduling
72.Programming language used to provide instructions to the monitor
a)Job Control language (JCL) b)Java language
c)Low level Language d)None
73.A single program is also referred as
a)Uni-program b)Job c)Process d)None
74.With multiprogramming, ______ is used productively.
a)Time b)Space c)Money d)All of the mention above
75. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________scheduler, to be executed.
a)blocked, short term b)wait, long term c)ready, short term d)ready, long term
76. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
compared with the priority of
a)All Process b)Currently running process
c)Parent process d) unit process
77. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
1)Multiprocessor systems 2)multiprogramming operating systems
3)larger memory sized systems 4)none of the mentioned
78. Scheduling is done so as to:
a)Increase the waiting time b)Keep the waiting time the same
c)Decrease the waiting time d)None of the mentioned
79. To improve ______ simple batch operating systems were developed.
a)Utilization b)Memory c)Space d)Processor
80. What is the ready state of a process?
a)When process is scheduled to run after some execution
b)When process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c)When process is using the CPU
d)None of the mentioned
81. The degree of multi-programming is:
a)The number of processes executed per unit time
b)The number of processes in the ready queue
c)The number of processes in the I/O queue
d)The number of processes in memory
82. When the process issues an I/O request:
a)It is placed in an I/O queue b)It is placed in a waiting queue
c)It is placed in the ready queue d)It is placed in the Job queue
83. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is:
a)The length of their queues b)The type of processes they schedule
c)The frequency of their execution d) None of the mentioned
84. The state of a process is defined by:
1)The final activity of the process 2) The activity just executed by the process
3)The activity to next be executed by the process 4)The current activity of the process
85. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
1)New 2)Old 3)Waiting 4)Running
86. The objective of multi-programming is to:
1)Have some process running at all times
2)Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
3)To minimize CPU utilization
4)None of the mentioned
87. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
1)CPU registers 2)Program counter 3)Process stack 4)Pipe
88. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in:
1)Process Register 2)Program Counter 3)Process Table 4)Process Unit
89. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following:
1)Stack 2)Data 3)Bootstrap program 4)Priority
90. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the:
Blocked state b) Ready state c)Halted d)Suspended

8.3 to 8.4
91-The task of subdivision is carried out dynamically by the OS and is known as ________?
a)Thread b) Swiping c) Memory Management c) Memory Compaction
92 - The OS shifts the processes in memory to place all the free memory together in one
block is Called ________.
a)Compaction b) Rare fraction c) Memory Management d) Free Memory
93 - An actual location in main memory is called ?
a)Logical address b) Physical address c) Base address d) None of all
94 - The chunks of a program, known as ______?
a)Frame b) page c) Main memory d) a & b
95 - Which table shows the frame location for each page of the process ?
a)Main Memory b) CPU c) Page Table d) all of these
96 - Each page of a process is brought in only when it is needed is called _____.
a)Paging b) Processing c) Page fault d) Page needed
97 - When it brings one page in, it must throw another page out; this is known as ____?
a)Page receptor b) page controller c) page Replacement d) a &c
98 - if the program references data on a page not in memory it is a _______.
a)Page handler b) page fault c) Error d) Fatal Error
99 - Main memory also referred as a _______?
a)Secondary memory b) Tertiary memory c) Main memory d) None of above

100 – Page which is next fetch whose address is stored in ____.

a)Memory b) Register c) Buses d) a & b
101 - Virtual memory schemes make use of a special cache for page table entries, usually called
____.
a)TLB b) Buffer c) Register d) none of above
102- Addressable memory can be subdivided is called_________.
a)Portion b) portioned c) Segmentation d) TBL
103- Paging is ______ to the programmer and serves the purpose of providing the a)programmer
with a larger address space,
a)Invisible b) Visible c) intangible d) Difficult
104- Who will assign programs and data to different Segments.
a)Programmer b) Server c) TBL d) OS e) a & d
105- Memory references consist of a form of address.
a)segment number, offset b) only offset c) TBL d) None
106- The Pentium II memory management hardware is essentially the same as that used in?
a)Intel 80486 b) Intel 80386 c)Pentium iv d) a & b
107 - The Pentium II includes hardware for whom?

a)Paging b) Software c) Segmentations d) a & c

108 -The virtual address is the same as the physical address is called _____.
a)Segmented and paging b) Unsegment and paging c) unsegment and unpaged d) None
109 - Unsegment paged memory cause by operating system?
a)TBL B) Transition table c) Berkeley UNIX d) Page fault
110 - Memory is viewed as a collection of logical address spaces is called ______.
a)Segmented and paging b)Unsegment and paging
c)unsegment and unpaged d)segment and unpaged
111 - Segmentation is used to define logical memory partitions subject to access control, and
paging is used to manage the allocation of memory within the partitions is called ?
a)Segmented and paging b)Unsegment and paging
c)unsegment and unpaged d)segment and unpaged
112 - When segmentation is used, each virtual address consist of?
a)16 bit segment and 64bit offset b)16bit segment & 32 offset
c)64bit segment reference and 32bit offset d)None of these
113 - Virtual address space is divided into two parts which are?
a)Global address space , local b) local & transitive
c) global & virtual d) local and page table
114 - Each segment are two forms of protection?
a)Privilege & activation b) privilege & open
c) open & close d) privilege and access
115 - Data segment which specifies whether read/write or read only accesses are permitted ?
a)Control b) Segment c) Local address space d) access

116 - Indicates whether the global segment table or a local segment table should be used for
translation called?
a)Segment number b) table indicator c) Request privilege level d) none
117 - The privilege level requested for this access.
a)Segment number b) table indicator c) Request privilege level d) none
118 - A full 4-GByte main memory requires about how much memory for page table ?
a)2MB b) 6MB c) 12 MB d) 4MB
119 - Defines the starting address of the segment within the 4-GByte linear address space.?
a)Limit b) G c) Base d) segment
120- Specifies the privilege level of the segment referred to by this segment descriptor ?
a) Limit b) Base c) Descriptor privilege level d) DPL e) c &d

9.1,9.2
121. Operation is performed by ALU is
a)square root b)arithmetic&logical c)data manipulation d)all of these
122 . Unit of computer which is capable of performing arithmetic, logical and data manipulation
operations on binary numbers is called
a)CU b)ALU c)I/O unit d)processing unit
123 . Operations of computer arithmetic and logic unit are directed by
1)ALU itself b)program c)control unit d)memory unit
124 . .Data are presented to the ALU in registers, and the results of an operation are stored in
1)RAM 2)Registers 3)ALU 4)None of these
125 . .These registers are temporary storage locations within the
1)processor 2)RAM 3)Storage 4)None of these
126 . The flag values are also stored in
1)RAM 2)Registers 3)ALU 4)Memory
127 . Positive integers can be represented as
1)Signed numbers 2)Unsigned numbers 3)Negative integers 4)Both a and b
128 . How to represent -9 with signed 2's complement?
1)10001001 2)11110110 3)11110111 4)11110011
129 . More convenient system for representing negative numbers is
1)Signed-complement system 2)Unsigned-complement system
3)Negative integer system 4)Positive integer system
130 . 1's complement as a logical operation is equivalent to
1)Logical design 2)Illogical design
3)Logical complement 4)Illogical complement
131. 11 . +0 =
1)00000000 2)10000000 3)00000001 4)00000011
132 . -0 =
1)00000000 2)10000000 3)00000001 4)00000011
133 . What provides the control unit.
a) Operations b) Signals c) Both a, b d) None of these
134. What is representation of number 41 in 8 bit.
a) 00000010 b) 10000100 c) 00101001 d) 00110011
135. what is representation of number 0 in twos complementation
a) 1 b) 2 c) Both d) None
136. What is range of twos complementation
a)-2 b) c) d)
137.what is representation of number -18 bit
a) 10010010 b) 10001100 c) 01010000 d) 10010001
138. ALU is the part of computer that perform
a ) arithmetic operation b) logic operaton c) a & b d) none
139. In the binary number system, arbitrary numbers can be represented with
a) 0,1 b) minus sign c) period or radix point d) all
140. For purposes of computer storage and processing we used
a) Periods b) binary digits c)minus sign d) b&c
141. An 8-bit word can represent the numbers from
a) 0 – 254 b) 0 – 255 C ) 0 – 256 d) 0-257

9.3,9.4,9.5
142)A number can be stored in a binary word with ……….. fields:
a)One b) Two c)Three d) Five
143)There is one bit to the ……….. Of the radix point.
a)Right b) Center c)Left d) None of above
144.The leftmost bit stores the sign of the number
a) (0 = positive, 1 = negative) b) (0 = negative, 1 = positive)
c) (0 = positive, 1 = positive) d) none of above
144- A fixed value, called the bias, is …………..from the field to get the true exponent value.
a)Multiplied b) Subtracted c)Divided d)Add
145-The bias equals to …….
a) (2k-1 – 1) b) 2(k-1 – 2) c) 2(n-1 – 1) d) none of above
146- For comparison purposes ……….. Floating-point numbers can be treated as integers.
a)negative b) nonnegative c)both a & b d)None of above
147-The base B is implicit and need not be stored because it is the same for …… numbers.
a)Some b) Any c)All d) None of above
148- In Exponent overflow, A ………. exponent exceeds the maximum possible exponent
value
a) Positive b) A & B c) Negative d) None of above
149- A negative exponent is less than the minimum possible exponent value is …….
a)Exponent Overflow b) A & B c)Exponent underflow d) All of above
150- There are……… basic phases of the algorithm for addition and subtraction.
a)Two b) Three c)Four d) None of above
151- In Normalization phase, each shift causes a …………. of the exponent.
a)Increment b)equal c)Decrement d) All of above
152- In Addition phase, there is also the possibility of significand overflow by ……… digit.
a)1 b) 2 c)3 d) None of above
153- ……….. is the default rounding mode listed in the standard.
a)Round towards 0 b)) Round towards infinity
c)Round to nearest d) all of above
154- To implement an interval arithmetic technique …………… are useful.
a) Rounding to plus b) A & B
c) Minus infinity d) none of above
155- . The Normalization is
a)deleting significand digits left until the most significant digit is nonzero.
b) Shifting significand digits left until the most significant digit is nonzero.
c)shifting significand digits left until the most significant digit is zero.
d)none
156- If the exponent of the product is within the proper range, the next step is to
multiply the significands, taking into account their ________.
a) Start b) Range
c) Numbers d) signs
157- The extra bits are ignored in ______________ technique.
a)rounding to plus b)minus infinity
c)round toward zero d) all
158- The width of the interval, which is the difference between the __________ endpoints.
a) Upper and mid b)upper and lower
c)mid and lower d)All
159- Alignment may be achieved by shifting either.
a) Smaller number to the right b) shifting the larger number to the left
c) Both a and b d) none
160- Floating-point operation, the exponent and significand of each operand are loaded into
_________ .
a) Memory Buffer b) PSW
c)ALU registers d)IR
161-In Boolean complement of the integer we change 1 to 0 and _____.
a)2 to 1 b) 0 to 1 c) 1 to 1 d) 2 to 0
162-Two’s complement of +18 is _______.
a)11100010 b) 11001001 c) 11101110 d) 11001100
163-Negative of the negative of that number is ______.
a)Positive number b) Number itself c) Double of that number d) None
164-8 bit representation of 01 is ______.
a)01000000 b) 00010000 c) 00000001 d) 00000010
165-Bitwise complement of 00111010 is _____.
a)00000011 b) 00111000 c)11000101 d) 11000010
166-Two’s of complement of +20 is _____.
a)+20 b) -20 c) +40 d) -40
167- (-7) + (+5) = _____.
a)+2 b) +3 c) -2 d) +12
168- (1100) + (0100) = ______.
a)0011 b) 01000 c)10000 d) 1100
169- OF stands for _____.
a)overflow bit b) On Off bit c) Opposite flow d) None
170- (1011) * (1101) = ______.
a)10101111 b) 11111010 c) 10001111 d) 11001100

7.3 and 7.4

171. In memory-mapped I/O ____________
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
b) The I/O devices have a seperate address space
c) The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
d) A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation

172. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is
a) Star BUS structure
b) Multiple BUS structure
c) Single BUS structure
d) Node to Node BUS structure

173. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a seperate 16 bit address space for the I/O devices?
a) False
b) True
174. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is
a) The former offers faster transfer of data
b) The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space
c) The devices have to deal with fewer address lines
d) No advantage as such

175. The system is notified of a read or write operation by

a) Appending an extra bit of the address
b) Enabling the read or write bits of the devices
c) Raising an appropriate interrupt signal
d) Sending a special signal along the BUS

176. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and the processor we use
a) Buffer spaces
b) Status flags
c) Interrupt signals
d) Exceptions

177. The method of accessing the I/O devices by repeatedly checking the status flags is
a) Program-controlled I/O
b) Memory-mapped I/O
c) I/O mapped
d) None of the mentioned

178. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends a
signal when it is ready is
a) Exceptions
b) Signal handling
c) Interrupts
d) DMA

179. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is

a) Interrupts
b) Memory mapping
c) Program-controlled I/O
d) DMA

180. The process where in the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as
a) Polling
b) Inspection
c) Reviewing
d) Echoing

181 The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by

a) The involvement of the processor for the operation
b) The method accessing the I/O devices
c) The amount of data transfer possible
d) None of the mentioned

182. The DMA transfers are performed by a control circuit called as

a) Device interface
b) DMA controller
c) Data controller
d) Overlooker

183. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses are given by the
a) Processor
b) Device drivers
c) DMA controllers
d) The program itself

184. After the complition of the DMA transfer the processor is notified by
a) Acknowledge signal
b) Interrupt signal
c) WMFC signal
d) None of the mentioned
185 The DMA controller has _______ registers
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1

186. When the R/W bit of the status register of the DMA controller is set to 1.
a) Read operation is performed
b) Write operation is performed
c) Read & Write operation is performed
d) None of the mentioned

187 The controller is connected to the ____

a) Processor BUS
b) System BUS
c) External BUS
d) None of the mentioned

188. Can a single DMA controller perform operations on two different disks simulteneously?
a) True
b) False

189 The techinique whereby the DMA controller steals the access cycles of the processor to
operate is called
a) Fast conning
b) Memory Con
c) Cycle stealing
d) Memory stealing

190 The technique where the controller is given complete access to main memory is
a) Cycle stealing
b) Memory stealing
c) Memory Con
d) Burst mode

191. The controller uses _____ to help with the transfers when handling network interfaces.
a) Input Buffer storage
b) Signal echancers
c) Bridge circuits
d) All of the mentioned

192. To overcome the conflict over the possession of the BUS we use ______
a) Optimizers
b) BUS arbitrators
c) Multiple BUS structure
d) None of the mentioned

193. The registers of the controller are ______

a) 64 bits
b) 24 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 16 bits

194. When process requests for a DMA transfer

a) Then the process is temporarily suspended
b) The process continues execution
c) Another process gets executed
d) process is temporarily suspended & Another process gets executed

195. The DMA transfer is initiated by _____

a) Processor
b) The process being executed
c) I/O devices
d) OS

196. To resolve the clash over the access of the system BUS we use ______
a) Multiple BUS
b) BUS arbitrator
c) Priority access
d) None of the mentioned
197. The device which is allowed to initiate data transfers on the BUS at any time is called
_____
a) BUS master
b) Processor
c) BUS arbitrator
d) Controller
198. ______ BUS arbitration appproach uses the involvement of the processor
a) Centralised arbitration
b) Distributed arbitration
c) Random arbitration
d) All of the mentioned

199 The circuit used for the request line is a _________

a) Open-collector
b) EX-OR circuit
c) Open-drain
d) Nand circuit

200 The Centralised BUS arbitration is similar to ______ interrupt circuit

a) Priority
b) Parallel
c) Single
d) Daisy chai

7.1 and 7.2

201.The module connects to the rest of the computer via
A) Control Lines B) Address Lines
C) Signal Lines D) All of these
202.How many types of register are in I/O module
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4
203.Data transferred to and from the module are buffered in
A) Buffer Register B) Status Register
C) Address Register D) Data Register
204._________ may function as control Register
A) Buffer Register B) Status Register
C) Address Register D) Data Register
205.Commands to the I/O module are issued via
A) Control Lines B) Address Lines
C) Signal Lines D) All of these
206.Primitive I/O modules is
A) I/O controller B) I/O processor
C) I/O channel D) All of these
207.Part of I/O module that interacts with Processor
A) I/O logic B) Status Register
C) Control Lines D) Interfaces
208.The most common means of computer/user interaction is _________ arrangement
A) keyboard B) monitor
C) keyboard/monitor D) none
209.The basic unit of exchange is the_________
A) character B) word
C) bit D) byte
210.The most commonly used text code is the________
A) International Reference Character (IRC) B) International Reference Alphabet
(IRA)
C) International Reference Number (IRN) D) none
211.Characters are of two types: _________
A) printable B) control
C) readable D) printable and control
212.When the user depresses a key, this generates __________
A) electronic signal B) digital signal
C)both A&B D) none
213.The transducer at the device ________ the code and sends signals to the output device
A) translates B) interprets
C) compiles D) converts
214.The I/O function that coordinate the flow of traffic between internal resources and external
devices is
A) Control and timing B) Processor communication
C) Device communication D) Both A & B
215.If the device is ready to transmit, the processor requests the transfer of data, by means of a
command to
A) I/O module B) Hard Disk
C) Peripheral Device D) None
216.An I/O module for a disk drive accept the following commands
A) READ SECTOR B) WRITES SECCTOR
C) SEE track D) None
217.Common status signals
A)BUSY B) READY
C) Both A & B D) None
218.The data are buffered in the I/O module and then sent to the peripheral device at its
A) data rate B) Slower data rate
C) Grater data rate D) Both B & C
219.Mechanical and Electrical malfunction reported by the device
A)Out of paper B) bad disk sector
C) paper jam D) All

220.The …………. is used to exchange control, status, and data between the I/O module and the
external device.

A) BUS B) I/O MUDULES

C) LINK D) BOTH A&B

221.An external device connected to an I/O module is often referred to as a……….

(A)PERIPHERAL DEVICE (B) DEVICE

(C) LINK (D) NONE

222.An external device suitable for communicating with the computer user is called……

(A) Human Readable B) Machine Readable

(B) Communication D) None

223.An external device suitable for communicating with equipment is called ……..

(A)Human Readable (B) Machine Readable

(C) Communication (D) Link

224.An external device suitable for communicating with remote devices is called ……

(A)Human Readable (B) Machine Readable

(C) Communication (D) Link

225.Video display terminals (VDTs) and printers ARE examples of ……..

(A) External Device (B) Communication

(B) (C)Machine Readable (D) Human readable Devi

226An essential task of an I/O module is --------

a) data buffering b) device communication c) error detection d)none

227.An I/O module is often responsible for --------- and for subsequently reporting errors to
the processor
a) data buffering b) device communication c) error detection d)none

228 I/O command that is used to activate a peripheral and tell it what to do.
a) Control b) Test c)Read d)write
 229. I/O command that is causes the I/O module to obtain an item of data from the peripheral
and place it in an internal buffer
a) Control b) Test c)Read d)write

230 I/O command that is causes the I/O module to take an item of data (byte or word) from
the data bus and subsequently transmit that data item to the peripheral.
a) Control b) Test c)Read d)write

The most straightforward approach to the problem is to provide ------ between the processor
and the I/O modules

a)multiple interrupt lines b)software poll c)both a & b d)none