1. Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?

a. The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory

b. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved
standard departure.
c. To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the
approved procedure.
d. All answers are correct.
2. Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
a. Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to the flight instruments.
b. All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground reference.
c. Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.
d. All answers are correct.
3. When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
a. 180 knots IAS.
b. 250 knots IAS.
c. 140 knots IAS.
d. 200 knots IAS.
4. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information
concerning that flight including:
a. All instrument approaches at the destination airport.
b. An alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
c. The runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data.
d. All answers above are correct.
5. No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
a. And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
b. And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
c. Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
d. A and B are correct.
6. In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport can be found?
a. Airman’s Information Manual.
b. Airport/Facility Directory.
c. En Route Low Altitude Chart.
d. No answer is correct.
7. When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
a. Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot.
b. Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
c. When ATC advises, ‘Radar service terminated; resume own navigation.
d. When runway insight.
8. If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
a. Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
b. Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.
c. Permitted to level flight until approach lights insight.
d. Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
9. The position error of the ASI reaches its maximum value when:
a. Flying at high angle of attack.
b. Flying at low angle of attack.
c. Diving.
d. Climbing.
10. The pitot or static tube is always located a considerable distance from the propeller slip stream in order to
a. Prevent icing of the pitot tube.
b. To obtain undisturbed air pressure.
c. To obtain an area of negative pressure.
d. Equalize static and pitot pressure.
11. The force applied to the spin axis of the gyroscope and tend to change the direction of the spin axis, will:
a. Be transferred 90° against the direction of rotation.
b. Cause the gyro axis to shift in the direction of the force.
c. Cause the gyro axis to shift against the direction of the force.
d. Be transferred 90° in the direction of rotation.
12. The function of air jet of the Directional Gyro Indicator:
a. Is to correct for drift.
b. Is to correct for topple.
c. To drive the rotor and correct for topple.
d. To drive the rotor.
13. An altimeter which has accuracy especially at 0 – 2500 feet altitude is:
a. Barometric altimeter.
b. Servo driven altimeter.
c. Encoding altimeter.
d. Radio altimeter.
14. Which is incorrect statement according to Flight Operations Officer Rules
a. A flight operation officer shall not maintain complete familiarity with all features of operation on route.
b. A flight operation officer shall perform the duties assigned to him.
c. A flight operations officer shall avoid taking any action that would conflict with procedures establish by ATC.
d. A flight operation officer shall remain on duty until flight under his jurisdiction have been terminated.
15. The phraseology will be used by controllers to effect a frequency change
a. (aircraft identification) CHANGE FREQUENCY (facility name or location name and terminal function) (frequency).
b. (aircraft identification) MOVE (facility name or location name and terminal function) (frequency).
c. (aircraft identification) CONTACT (facility name or location name and terminal function) (frequency).
d. No answer is correct.
16. The following report should be made to ATC facilities without a specific ATC request
a. When approach has been missed.
b. The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point which cleared.
c. Change in the average true airspeed.
d. All answers are correct.
17. Time reported, when a position report is to be made passing VOR radio facility, shall be the time at
a. Which the indicator pointer makes a complete reversal.
b. Not necessary because ATC had been monitor on radar.
c. Which the first complete reversal of the “to/from” indicator is accomplish.
d. None all answer above are correct.
18. All aircraft’s instruments are calibrated using the standard as reference by Convention the aircraft industry accepted
the international standard atmosphere as a basic, which says:
a. A sea level pressure of 1013.25 mb, temperature of +15°F and for every 1000’ increase altitude it is reduced by
1.98°F until it remains stay at -56.5°F at 36.000’.
b. A sea level pressure of 1013.25” Hg, temperature of +15°F and a temperature lapse rate 1.98°C/1000’ until it
remains stay at -56.5°C at 36.000’.
c. A sea level pressure of 29.92” Hg, temperature at 25°C and a temperature lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000’ until it
remains stay at 56.5°C at 36.000’.
d. A sea level pressure of 29.92” Hg, temperature at 15°C and a temperature lapse rate of 1.98°C/1000’ until it
remains stay at 56.5°C at 36.000’.
19. To obtain TAS from IAS, certain error have to be corrected, there are:
a. Instrument error, position error, density error.
b. Instrument error, position error, acceleration error.
c. Density error, acceleration error, deceleration error.
d. Position error, turning error, lag error.
20. When flying from an area of higher temperature to one of lower temperature, the altimeter will:
a. Become erratic due to lowered temperature encountered.
b. Place the aircraft at an altitude lower than indicated.
c. Place the aircraft at an altitude higher than indicated.
d. Place the aircraft at same altitude as indicated.
21. Company operation manual consist, except
a. Duties and responsibilities of each crew member.
b. Method of determining minimum safe altitude.
c. Take off, En route, and landing weight limitation.
d. Systems of aircraft to be used.
22. Who is responsible of operational control of flight operation of airlines?-
a. An operator.
b. Director.
c. A Pilot in Command.
d. All answers are wrong.
23. An “off route” flight or flight which diverges from a designated air route due to
a. ATC.
b. Weather.
c. Navigational inaccuracy.
d. All answers are correct.
24. Minimum Sector Altitude provide minimum clearance of 1000 ft above all obstacle and terrain in an area
a. Sector of a circle 22 nm radius.
b. A sector of a circle of 60 nm radius.
c. A sector of a circle of 25 nm radius.
d. Between radio fix.
25. A mean of flying the aircraft on any heading required to keep the azimuth needle on 0° until the station has been
reached
a. Tracking with the radio aid.
b. Interception of predetermined magnetic bearing.
c. Homing with the radio aid.
d. All answer above incorrect.
26. What ways of indicating a distress condition
a. Transmitting the distress message on the emergency frequency 121.50.
b. Spoken “MAYDAY” three times on the air/ground frequency is use.
c. The activation of the appropriate SSR mode and code.
d. All answer above are correct.
27. The GRID MORA provide same obstruction clearance as does the MORA but with specific
a. Latitude and longitude rectangle.
b. Latitude.
c. Longitude.
d. All answers are incorrect.
28. PIC is responsible for
a. The operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time.
b. The safety of persons and cargo carried.
c. Conduct and safety of members of the crew.
d. All answers are correct.
29. The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on:
a. Visibility.
b. Pressure/density altitude.
c. Cabin altitude.
d. True altitude.
30. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:
a. Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
b. Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.
c. Will be change, depend on the surface temperature.
d. Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
31. When computing, weight, and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine, and
installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also include:
a. The unusable fuel, fuel operating fluids, and full oil.
b. All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
c. All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instrument that were installed by someone
other than the manufacturer.
d. Unusable baggage of crew, and unusable material of technical.
32. Which is true regarding, the presence of alcohol within the human body:
a. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
b. An increasing alcohol will make better in the vision of pilot.
c. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
d. Judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
33. Which is common symptom of hyperventilation:
a. Drowsiness.
b. Decreased breathing rate.
c. In fluently of breathing.
d. Euphoria-sense of well-being.
34. The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the “right stuff” can have an adverse effect on safety by:
a. A total disregard for any alternative course of action.
b. Disobey all the procedure that will make take a long time on ground.
c. Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, and may lead to a mishap.
d. Allowing events, or the situation, to control his or her actions.
35. Which of the following is the first step of the decide model for effective risk management and aeronautical decision
making:
a. Detect.
b. Identify.
c. Evaluate.
d. Do.
36. A body will exhibit gyroscope properties if it is:
a. A rest.
b. Rotating.
c. In motion.
d. Moving.
37. The source of pressure used to operate the Altimeter, Mach/Airspeed indicator and instantaneous vertical speed
indicator is:
a. Suction pump.
b. Pressure pump.
c. Alternator.
d. Pitot and static system.
38. Mach number is the ratio of:
a. True Airspeed/Speed of Sound.
b. Speed of Sound/True Airspeed.
c. Speed of Sound/Speed of Flight.
d. True Airspeed/Speed of Flight.
39. Which instrument does not connect into static system:
a. Vacuum gauge.
b. Altimeter.
c. Airspeed Indicator.
d. Vertical Speed Indicator.
40. The color marking in the instrument scale is used to:
a. Identify the type of instrument.
b. Make troubleshooting process easier.
c. Indicate operating limits that have to be followed.
d. Help the flight crew reading the instrument marking.
41. Operation of the airspeed indicator is based upon the principle:
a. Measurement of the expansion of the capsule due to change of barometric pressure.
b. Measurement of the rate of change barometric pressure through orifice.
c. Measurement of dynamic pressure by balancing the pitot pressure against the static pressure.
d. Bernoulli’s.
42. When a Torque is acted upon the axis of a spinning body such as gyroscope, the change in direction of the axis is knows
as:
a. Precession.
b. Swirl.
c. Hysteresis.
d. Rigidity.
43. Operational manual can be amended and revised partly
a. Only if necessary.
b. Yes.
c. No.
d. No, it should make new operational manual.
44. The position reports should include the following item:
a. Position.
b. Altitude or flight level.
c. ETA and name of next reporting point.
d. All answers above are correct.
45. To get good performance of radio communication, there are some technique below except
a. Speak in hurry conversational tone.
b. Listen before you transmit.
c. Think before keying your transmitter.
d. Be sure that you are within the performance range or your radio equipment and the ground station equipment.
46. On En route chart, this symbol indicate
a. The “on request” reporting point.
b. Nothing.
c. No action required.
d. The designated compulsory reporting point.
47. A corrected estimated at any time it becomes apparent that an estimate as previous submitted is in error in excess of
a. 5 minutes.
b. 4 minutes.
c. 3 minutes.
d. 2 minutes.
48. Airspeed indicator uses dynamic pressure for its operation, in which the pressure is calibrated into speed, assuming to
air density is ISA mean sea level density, the dynamic pressure is:
a. Varies inversely with density and square of speed.
b. Varies directly with density and inversely with speed.
c. Varies directly with density and square of speed.
d. Varies directly with speed and inversely with density.
49. Where is DME required under IFR?
a. In positive control airspace.
b. Above 18.000 feet MSL.
c. Below 10.000 feet MSL.
d. At or above 24.000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
50. The flight plan shall be approved and signed by:
a. Pilot in Command.
b. Flight Operation Officer.
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. Both A and B are wrong.
51. You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the
departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?
a. A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
b. A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine land rating.
c. A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land and instrument airplane rating.
d. No answer is correct.
52. What is assured a reliable navigation signal only within 22 NM of VOR facility:
a. MORA.
b. MEA.
c. MSA.
d. MOCA.
53. True altitude measured in feet above MSL at which an aircraft on designated air route will clear obstacle by a
satisfactory margin and without the need for visual reference
a. MEA.
b. MORA.
c. MOCA.
d. MSA.
54. The following information should be given in the urgency message, except
a. Name of station address.
b. Intentions of person in command.
c. Nature of urgency condition.
d. Any other useful information.
55. A Pilot shall not be flown below MORA or GRID MORA except
a. Adequate visual reference can be maintained.
b. He known well the area although in low visibility.
c. When radar vectoring is provided by an ATS unit.
d. Answer A and C are correct.
56. For operation facilities, An operator shall ensure for:
a. The safe operation of the aircraft.
b. The protection of passenger.
c. Both A and B are wrong.
d. Both A and B are correct.
57. On Jeppesen chart, MOCA is identified by letter
a. T
b. A
c. R
d. D
58. Which is incorrect statement according to radio communications phraseology and technique
a. Radio communication are not a critical link in ATC system.
b. Most important taught in pilot-controller communications is understanding.
c. Use good phraseology in communication.
d. Call to ATC facilities may be monitored and recorded for operational uses.
59. Code 7600 on the aircraft equipped with ATC transponder indicated
a. A radio communication failure.
b. An emergency should be selected.
c. A squawk number from ATC prior before takeoff.
d. A VFR squawk number.
60. Heading 060 shall be spoken
a. Heading zero six zero.
b. Heading six zero.
c. Heading sixty.
d. No answer above are correct.
61. It takes how long for the alcohol from one drink to completely leave the body
a. 1 hour.
b. 2 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 4 hours.
62. An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
a. To understand how to make decision in short time.
b. Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.
c. Understanding the drive to have the “right stuff”.
d. Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
63. What does good cockpit stress management begin with
a. Knowing what causes stress.
b. Push the limit of the body for pressed the stress.
c. Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
d. Good life stress management.
64. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR
flight over non-mountainous terrain?
a. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
b. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of course.
c. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.
d. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
65. What responsibility does the pilot in command of and IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
a. Report VFR conditions to ATC so that an amended clearance may be issued.
b. Use VFR operating procedures.
c. To see and avoid other traffic.
d. Continue use IFR operating procedures.
66. To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 months you need
a. Six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category
of aircraft.
b. Six hours in the same category of aircraft.
c. Six hours in the same category of aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions.
d. Six hours flight.
67. Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet CASR Part 91
requirements for a particular instrument flight?
a. Owner.
b. Operator.
c. Pilot-in-command.
d. Engineer.
68. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is
prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of
a. 500 ft above the highest obstacle.
b. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle.
c. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle.
d. 1500 ft above the highest obstacle.
69. What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
a. You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
b. You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR
conditions.
c. You must have the airport in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
d. You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in
VFR conditions.
70. Which is true regarding STAR’s?
a. STAR’s are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic.
b. STAR’s are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
c. STAR’s are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion.
d. STAR’s are used because certain airports didn’t have any arrival procedures.
71. Pilot are urged to use only the latest of aeronautical chart in planning and conducting flight operation
a. Yes.
b. No, because there is no significant change information in old aeronautical chart.
c. It depends on the operator.
d. No answer above are correct.
72. Complete blockage of pitot tube in flight will cause
a. The ASI reads zero.
b. The ASI stuck more or less to the reading to the moment blockage.
c. The ASI to under read.
d. The ASI to over read.
73. Subsonic speed would represented by
a. Mach number less than 1.0.
b. Mach number more than 1.0.
c. Mach number between 0.75 to 1.2.
d. Flying above 10.000 ft.
74. As observed from the cockpit the horizon bar of gyro horizon when climbing and turn to the left is
a. Titled to the right and descent.
b. Titled to the right and rises.
c. Titled to the left and rise.
d. Titles to the left and descent.
75. The following system is used for erection system in gyro horizon indicator
a. Ball type erection system.
b. Torque motor and levelling switch erection system.
c. Pendulous vane erection system.
d. A, B, and C.
76. Electric gyro horizon using torque motor and levelling switch for its erection system has torque motors those are
a. Roll torque motor at roll axis and pitch torque motor at pitch axis.
b. Roll torque motor at pitch axis and pitch torque motor at roll axis.
c. Roll torque motor and pitch torque motor at pitch axis.
d. Roll torque motor and pitch torque motor at roll axis.
77. If the subscale of an altimeter is set to 1013.25 mb it is indicated the
a. Density height.
b. True altitude.
c. Absolute altitude.
d. Pressure altitude.
78. Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
a. Lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
b. Rising of flaps increases the stall speed.
c. Lowering flaps will increase cruising speed.
d. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.
79. What does the angle of attack of a wing directly control?
a. Angle of incidence of the wing.
b. Amount of airflow above and below the wing.
c. Pressure movement on the wing.
d. Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.
80. The A of A at which stalls remains constant regardless of
a. Dynamic pressure and varies to the bank angle.
b. Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, of pitch attitude.
c. Dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.
d. Weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.
81. To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should
a. Maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.
b. Increase the bank and increase airspeed.
c. Maintain airspeed and decrease bank.
d. Increase the bank and decrease airspeed.
82. Calibrated airspeed is best described as indicated airspeed corrected for
a. Installation and instrument error.
b. Instrument error.
c. Non-standard temperature.
d. Standard altitude and temperature.
83. What is the definition of MEA?
a. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational
signal coverage.
b. The lowest published attitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal
coverage, two way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
c. An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two way
radio communication, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME.
d. The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 1000 ft above all objects
located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 25 NM radius centered on a radio aid to navigation.
84. If the main source located in the pressure head becomes inoperative
a. An alternate pitot source may be selected.
b. An alternate static source may be selected.
c. A serve pneumatic system may be used.
d. An alternate suction system may be selected.
85. What is the electrical power source for the Captain’s EFIS
a. Generator bus 1.
b. AC Transfer bus 1.
c. AC Transfer bus 2.
d. AC standby bus.
86. The static slot is being block before take off
a. The ASI will read normal during take off, but will gradually under read as the aircraft gains altitude.
b. The ASI will read normal during take off, but will gradually over read as the aircraft gains altitude.
c. The ASI will not function at all.
d. The ASI will give erratic reading.
87. Turn and bank indicator is part of
a. Miscellaneous instrument.
b. Flight instrument.
c. Engine instrument.
d. Navigation instrument.
88. A pilot’s recent IFR experience expires on July 1st of this year. What is the latest date of the pilot can meet the IFR
experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
a. December 31st, this year.
b. June 30th, next year.
c. July 31st, this year.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
89. What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a
1.500 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing.
a. And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
b. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
d. And fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
90. What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight above 10.000 feet in an unpressurized aircraft?
a. The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more
than 30 minutes.
b. The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more
than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.
c. The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided
supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15.000 feet.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
91. While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be
taken?
a. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
b. Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
c. Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.
d. Ignore ATC instruction.
92. What instruments are included in pitot static system
a. Altimeter, ASI, VSI, DGI.
b. Altimeter, ASI, VSI, Mach Number.
c. Altimeter, ASI, Rate of Climb Indicator, Mach Meter.
d. Mach Meter, Rate of Turn Indicator, ASI, Altimeter.
93. On Jeppesen chart, MORA is identified by letter
a. T.
b. A.
c. R.
d. C.
94. The distress communication is indicated by word
a. “MAYDAY”.
b. “PAN”.
c. “SAY AGAIN”.
d. “EMERGENCY”.
95. The urgency communication is indicated by word
a. “MAYDAY”.
b. “PAN”.
c. “SAY AGAIN”.
d. “EMERGENCY”.
96. Aircraft Operational Manual shall be carried in each aircraft
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. No, flight crew have known systems and procedures of the aircraft.
d. It depends.
97. Is it necessary to make initial contact to ATC or a given facility for every flight?
a. Yes.
b. No, ATC know us from clearance we made.
c. No.
d. It depends.
98. What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator?
a. Turn coordinator is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum driven.
b. Turn coordinator indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination.
c. Turn coordinator indicates bank angle from gyro; turn and slip indicator rate of turn electrically.
d. Turn coordinator indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination, the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of
turn and coordination.
99. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to
a. Decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
b. Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density.
c. Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
d. Increasing the fuel flow to compensate for decreasing air density.
100. The most probable reason and engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is
a. Carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
b. A magneto ground wire is contact with the engine casing.
c. Short cut from magneto to electrical system.
d. A broken magneto ground wire.
101. Which is true regarding flight operations in class A airspace?
a. Aircraft must be equipped with TCAS and autopilot.
b. Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
c. Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
d. Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
102. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
a. Nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
b. Other aircraft showed bigger just in front of us.
c. Other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
d. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
103. To avoid possible wake turbulence from large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your take off, at which point on
the runway should you plan to become airborne?
a. Past the point where the jet touched down.
b. At the end of the runway,
c. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
d. Approximately 500 ft prior to the point where the jet touched down.
104. An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in
command under IFR, unless the pilot
a. Completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by DGCA-
designated examiner.
b. Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved DGCA examiner,
instrument instructor, or DGCA inspector.
c. Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument
approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
105. Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots
a. CASR Part 61.
b. CASR Part 91.
c. KM No. 1 Year 2004.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
106. What is a way point when used for an IFR flight?
a. A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.
b. A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.
c. A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.
d. An ATC instruction.
107. A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least
a. An associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class.
b. A First-Class Medical Certificate.
c. An instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.
d. 100 hours of night flight.
108. For Non-pressurized Aircraft, when plan flight time above 14.000 feet shall carry sufficient stored oxygen to supply
a. All flight crew.
b. 10% of passenger.
c. All passenger.
d. A and C are correct.
109. A MOCA is calculated for a specified corridor by adding
a. 1000 ft to the highest terrain elevation or obstruction up to and including 6000 ft.
b. 1000 ft to the highest terrain elevation or obstruction exceeding 6000 ft.
c. 2000 ft the highest terrain or obstruction exceeding 6000 ft.
d. A and C are correct.
110. Moisture is added to parcel of air by
a. Condensation and evaporation.
b. Sublimation and condensation.
c. Evaporation and condensation.
d. Evaporation and sublimation.
111. Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
a. Friction of the air tends to counterbalance the Coriolis force.
b. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
c. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows
d. Friction of the air with the earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
112. With regard to wind flow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are?
a. Close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker.
b. Not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
c. Not close together, the pressure gradient force is lower and wind velocities are weaker.
d. Close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
113. When is true with respect to high or low-pressure system?
a. High-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
b. Low pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.
c. High pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
d. Low pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
114. What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas?
a. Coriolis force.
b. Surface friction.
c. Pressure gradient force.
d. Bernoulli force.
115. Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
a. Cirrus clouds.
b. Stratocumulus.
c. Nimbostratus clouds.
d. Towering cumulus clouds.
116. Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
a. Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
b. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
c. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
d. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.
117. From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dewpoint spread be determined
at a specified altitude
a. Stability Charts.
b. Winds Aloft forecasts.
c. Metabular Forecast Charts.
d. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts.
118. No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums
prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
a. Three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.
b. Six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
c. Six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or
passed an instrument proficiency check.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
119. After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency
check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
a. 6 month.
b. 90 days.
c. 12 months.
d. 30 days.
120. If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12.500 ft MSL, but no more than 14.000 ft MSL, for a period of 2 hours
20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
a. 2 hours 20 minutes.
b. 1 hour 20 minutes.
c. 1 hour 50 minutes.
d. 2 hours.
121. If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
a. On 29.92 inches Hg.
b. On the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
c. To the airport elevation.
d. According to the ATC instruction.
122. During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered. The pilot should
a. Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
b. Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
c. Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
d. All answer above are incorrect.
123. What is the minimum visibility and ceiling required for a pilot to receive a “land and hold short” clearance
a. 3 statute miles and 1.000 ft.
b. 3 nautical miles and 1000 ft.
c. 3 statute miles and 1.500 ft.
d. 3 nautical miles and 1.500 ft.
124. The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on
a. Visibility.
b. Pressure/density altitude.
c. Cabin altitude.
d. True altitude.
125. To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
a. Zero altitude.
b. The current altimeter setting.
c. 29.92”Hg and altimeter indication noted.
d. Field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
126. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed
a. Will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster.
b. Will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged.
c. Will be change, depend on the surface temperature.
d. Should be increased to compensate for the thinner air.
127. What effect does an uphill runway slop have on takeoff performance
a. Decrease takeoff speed.
b. Increases takeoff speed.
c. Increases takeoff distance.
d. Decreases takeoff distance.
128. When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine, and
installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes
a. The unusable fuel, full operating fluid, and full oil.
b. All usable fuel, full oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage.
c. All usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instrument that were installed by someone
other than the manufacturer.
d. Unusable baggage of crew and unusable maternal of technical.
129. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions
a. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream.
b. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
c. Insufficient oxygen to the bloodstream.
d. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
130. What single reference contains information regarding a volcanic eruption, that is occurring or expected to occur
a. Local Weather Report.
b. In-Flight Weather Advisories.
c. Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF).
d. Weather Depiction Chart.
131. In-Flight Aviation Weather Advisories include what type of information
a. Forecasts for potentially hazardous flying conditions for en route aircraft.
b. Possibility weather at the VFR route.
c. State and geographic areas with reported ceilings and visibilities below VFR minimums.
d. IFR conditions, turbulence, and icing within a valid period for the listed states.
132. What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination
a. Rapid variation in wind speed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls.
b. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30° or more.
c. Wind shear possibility and thunderstorm rain.
d. Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more at least minute.
133. An aircraft 60 NM from a VOR station has a CDI indications of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline
deviation of approximately
a. 1 mi.
b. 2 mi.
c. 4 mi.
d. 6 mi.
134. Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver
a. Flying heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS.
b. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located.
c. Falling to change the OBS from the selected in bound course to the outbound course after passing the station.
d. Setting frequency on the right VOR which opposite bearing on the reciprocal OBS.
135. While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned
a. Neutral at all times.
b. Backward from directional of heading aircraft.
c. Toward the direction from which the wind is blowing.
d. Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.
136. Proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, a moment of touchdown
a. Directional of wind is the same with directional of aircraft.
b. Direction of motion of the airplane its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway.
c. Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
d. Downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift.
137. Minimum altitude for use A/P for approaches
a. 500 ft.
b. 50 ft.
c. 100 ft.
d. At MDA.
138. The jet stream is wind speed must be greater than
a. 60 knots.
b. 65 knots.
c. 70 knots.
d. 75 knots.
139. Aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of his or her aircraft should call to ATC
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b. PAN, PAN, PAN.
c. URGENT, URGENT, URGENT.
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
140. Aircraft is threatened by immediate danger and request immediate assistance should call to ATC
a. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b. PAN, PAN, PAN.
c. URGENT, URGENT, URGENT.
d. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
141. Stabilized approaches during IFR condition must be done at
a. 2000 ft.
b. 1500 ft.
c. 1000 ft.
d. 500 ft.
142. Minimum altitude for approaches CAT II
a. 100 ft.
b. 150 ft.
c. 200 ft.
d. 250 ft.
143. What the ICAO holding speed FL 200 to FL 240
a. 210 knots.
b. 230 knots.
c. 240 knots.
d. 265 knots.
144. Maximum speed for visual maneuvering (circling) A/C CAT C
a. 205 knots.
b. 135 knots.
c. 180 knots.
d. 160 knots.
145. Why we use derated thrust on take off
a. For passenger comfort.
b. For noise abatement.
c. For increase the engine life time.
d. All answer above are correct.
146. What the most critical segment on take off
a. 1st segment.
b. 2nd segment.
c. 3rd segment.
d. 4th segment.
147. The range of VOR transmit frequency in
a. 110 to 118 MHz.
b. 112 to 118 MHz.
c. 108 to 118 MHz.
d. 109 to 118 MHz.
148. The transponder setting for unlawful interference
a. 7700.
b. 7600.
c. 7500.
d. 1200.
149. The ILS LOC work in the
a. 108 to 112 MHz
b. 110 to 112 MHz.
c. 109 to 112 MHz.
d. 112 to 112 MHz.
150. What is order priority for all aircraft on an aerodrome
a. Take off.
b. Landing.
c. Taxing.
d. Towing.
151. Abbreviation for minimum rate climb profile
a. V1.
b. V2.
c. Vx.
d. Vy.
152. Abbreviation for maximum angle climb profile
a. V1.
b. V2.
c. Vx.
d. Vy.
153. What is the standard international of pressure altitude or pressure height
a. 29.92 InHg.
b. 1013.25 InHg.
c. 1303 mb.
d. 29.92 mb.
154. What are the main influence on air density
a. Altitude.
b. Pressure.
c. Temperature.
d. B & C are correct.
155. According CASR 121 Part 91.17, “That no person may operate or attempt to act as crew member of civil aircraft after
consuming alcohol within”
a. 8 hours.
b. 9 hours.
c. 10 hours.
d. 12 hours.
156. What are the force acting on an aircraft in flight
a. Speed, drag, thrust, weight.
b. Thrust, lift, drag, altitude.
c. Drag, thrust, lift, weight.
d. Brake, thrust, weight, lift.
157. What kind of drag will give advantage
a. Skin drag.
b. Induce drag.
c. Parasite drag.
d. Skin friction drag.
158. Stabilize approaching during VFR condition must be come at
a. 2000 ft.
b. 1500 ft.
c. 1000 ft.
d. 500 ft.
159. When the aircraft flying into colder temperature what it will be
a. The aircraft in flying above actual altitude.
b. The aircraft in flying below actual altitude.
c. The aircraft in flying on actual altitude.
d. A & B are correct.
160. What do you have to be concern during aircraft stall
a. Speed.
b. Altitude.
c. Bank angle.
d. Power.
161. What is Bernoulli principle
a. Pressure increase & speed increase.
b. Speed increase & pressure decrease.
c. Pressure decrease & pressure increase.
d. Speed decrease & pressure decrease.
162. Deviation is the difference between the direction of magnetic north & compass
a. Magnetic deviation.
b. Compass direction.
c. Compass deviation.
d. North deviation.
163. What are the ICAO ISA condition at sea level
a. -15°C.
b. +13°C.
c. -20°C.
d. +15°C.
164. Radio altimeter provide an accurate height measurement from
a. 30 ft to 2500 ft AGL.
b. 0 ft to 2500 ft AGL.
c. 10 ft to 2500 ft AGL.
d. 50 ft to 2500 ft AGL.
165. If pressure altitude increase VMCG speed will be
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain same.
d. All answer above are wrong.
166. MEL. CAT C 15 valid for
a. 10 days.
b. 12 days.
c. 1 days.
d. 7 days.
167. The ICAO max. flight time hours in any calendar month for two pilot
a. 100 hours.
b. 105 hours.
c. 110 hours.
d. 115 hours.
168. The ICAO max. flight time hours in any 7 consecutive days for two pilot crews
a. 30 hours.
b. 35 hours.
c. 25 hours.
d. 40 hours.
169. Lift formula is L=1/2pV2SCL
170. ISA stand for International Standard Atmosphere
171. They are 4 value defined by ISA, they are (answer with its value)
a. A sea level pressure of 1013.25 mb.
b. Temperature of +15°F.
c. For every 1000’ increase altitude it is reduced by 1.98°F until it remains stay at -56.5°F at 36.000’.
d. A density of 1.2250 kg/m3.
172. Mention 3 aircraft principle moving axis with its related flight control
a. Normal axis, rudder.
b. Lateral axis, elevator.
c. Longitudinal axis, ailerons.
173. Mention and describe 4 geometry of the airfoil
a. The leading edge is the point at the front of the airfoil that has maximum curvature (minimum radius).
b. The trailing edge is defined similarly as the point of minimum curvature at the rear of the airfoil
c. The chord line is the straight line connecting leading and trailing edges. The chord length, or simply chord, is the
length of the chord line. That is the reference dimension of the airfoil section.
d. The mean camber line or mean line is the locus of points midway between the upper and lower surfaces. Its shape
depends on the thickness distribution along the chord.
174. Precision approach is an instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as
determined by the category of operation
175. Non-precision approach is an instrument approach and landing which utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize
vertical guidance.
176. Straight-in approach is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a
procedure turn. Not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in landing minimums.
177. Circling approach is a maneuver initiated by the pilot to align the aircraft with a runway for landing when a straight-in
landing from an instrument approach is not possible or desirable.
178. MDA stand for Minimum Descent Altitude.
179. MDA is a specified altitude in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made
without the required visual reference.
180. MDH stand for Minimum Descent Height.
181. MDH is a specified height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made
without the required visual reference.
182. DA stand for Decision Altitude.
183. DA is a specified altitude in the Precision Approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed
approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
184. DH stand for Decision Height.
185. DH is a specified height in the Precision Approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must
be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
186. MAPt stand for Missed Approach Point.
187. Explain about 5 Approach segments
a. Arrival segment, transition from the en route phase to the approach phase. The arrival segment starts at the
latest en route point and ends at the initial approach fix (IAF).
b. Initial approach segment, the segment of an instrument approach procedure between the initial approach fix and
the intermediate fix. Begins at the initial approach fix (IAF) and ends at the intermediate fix (IF).
c. Intermediate approach segment, procedure between the intermediate fix and the final approach fix, or between
the end of reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure and the final approach fix or point as
appropriate. This is the segment during which the aircraft speed and configuration should be adjusted to prepare
the aircraft for final approach. For this reason the descent gradient is kept as shallow as possible.
d. Final approach segment, in which alignment and descent for landing are made. Normally, final approach may be
made to a runway for a straight-in landing, or to an aerodrome for a visual maneuver (circling).
e. Missed approach segment, the segment must be followed if the approach cannot be continued. In this segment,
the pilot is faced with the demanding task of changing the aircraft configuration, attitude and altitude.
188. Mention 9 criteria of Stabilized Approach
a. The aircraft is on the correct flight path.
b. Only small changes in heading/pitch are necessary to maintain the correct flight path.
c. The airspeed is not more than VREF + 20kts indicated speed and not less than VREF.
d. The aircraft is in the correct landing configuration.
e. Sink rate is no greater than 1000 feet/minute; if an approach requires a sink rate greater than 1000 feet/minute a
special briefing should be conducted.
f. Power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration and is not below the minimum power for the approach
as defined by the operating manual.
g. All briefings and checklists have been conducted.
h. Specific types of approach are stabilized.
i. Unique approach conditions or abnormal conditions requiring a deviation from the above elements of a stabilized
approach require a special briefing.

189. QDM is the starting point, aircraft to the station and magnetic.
190. QDR is the station to the aircraft and magnetic.
191. Tracking is to follow the path (radio track/radial).
192. Intercepting is to change/intercept the path (radio track/radial).
193. Homing is technique used with radio aid to fly to station.
194. Holding is a maneuver designed to delay an aircraft already in flight while keeping it within a specified airspace.
195. Approach is an act or instance of approaching a runway to land.
196. DME stand for Distance Measuring Equipment.
197. NDB stand for Non Directional Beacon.
198. Frequency range for NDB is 190 kHz to 535 kHz.
199. VOR stand for VHF Omni-directional Range.
200. Frequency range for VOR is 108.0 MHz to 117.95 MHz
201. PAPI stand for Precision Approach Path Indicator.
202. VASI stand for Visual Approach Slope Indicator.
203. Mention and describe pointed part of this flight instrument
The TO-FROM indicator. This arrow will point up, or towards the
daircraft, when flying TO the VOR station. The arrow reverses
direction, points downward, when flying away FROM the VOR
CDI, or Course Deviation Indicator. This needle swings left or right
indicating the direction to turn to return to course.

The Omni Bearing Selector, or OBS knob, used to manually rotate

the course card.

204. Mention 6 basic flight instrument Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator, Directional Gyro Indicator, Indicated Airspeed,
Turn and Bank Indicator, Artificial Horizon.
205. Explanation the working principal of VSI is as the aircraft climbs, the diaphragm contracts and the pressure drops faster
than the case pressure can escape through the restrictor, resulting in climb indications; the reverse is true during
descent. If level flight is resumed, pressure equalizes in the case and diaphragm within six to nine seconds and the
pointer returns to zero rate of climb.
206. Explanation the working principal of ASI is measure the difference between static pressure (usually from a sensor not
in the airstream) and dynamic pressure (called the stagnation pressure received from an aircraft's pitot tube -- which is
in the airstream). When the aircraft is not moving, the pressures are equal (and the airspeed is zero).
207. Mention two flight instrument that used vacuum system Artificial Horizon & Directional Gyro Indicator.
208. DME is a transponder-based radio navigation technology that measures slant range distance by timing the propagation
delay of VHF or UHF radio signals.
209. GPS stand for Global Positioning System.
210. RADAR stand for Radio Detecting and Ranging.
211. RBI stand for Relative Bearing Indicator.
212. RMI stand for Radio Magnetic Indicator.
213. HSI stand Horizontal Situation Indicator.
214. CANPA stand for Constant Angle Non-Precision Approach.
215. VDP stand for Visual Descent Point.
216. MEA is the altitude for an en route segment that provides adequate reception of relevant navigation facilities and ATS
communications, complies with the airspace structure and provides the required obstacle clearance.
217. MOCA is the lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route
segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable
navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR.
218. MORA is values clear all reference points by 1000' in areas where the highest reference points are 5000' MSL or lower.
Route MORA values clear all reference points by 2000' in areas where the highest reference points are 5001' feet MSL
or higher.
219. Grid MORA is provides terrain and man-made structure clearance within the section outlined by latitude and longitude
lines. The Grid MORA value clears all terrain and man-made structures by 1000ft in areas where the highest elevations
are 5000ft MSL or lower and by 2000ft in areas where the highest elevations are 5001ft MSL or higher.
220. MHA is the lowest altitude prescribed for a holding pattern that assures navigational signal coverage, communications,
and meets obstacle clearance requirements.
221. MSA is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (= 1000ft) above all
objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (=25 NM) radius centered on a radio
navigation aid.
222. Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitudes.
223. Transition level is the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
224. Mention three types of aircraft’s fuselage
a. Truss or framework type
b. Monocoque Construction
c. Semi-Monocoque Construction
225. Angle of attack is the angle between the chord of an airfoil and the direction of the surrounding undisturbed flow of
gas or liquid.
226. Angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line of the wing where the wing is mounted to the fuselage, and a
reference axis along the fuselage (often the direction of minimum drag, or where applicable, the longitudinal axis).
227. Wing Span is the distance from one wingtip to the other wingtip.
228. Based on wing location to fuselage, wing type of Cessna 172 is high wing.
229. Hypoxia is deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues
230. Hyperventilation is a condition in which you suddenly start to breathe very quickly.
231. Mention 3 primary flight controls control yoke, rudder pedals, and throttle controls.
232. Heading is a direction or bearing of the aircraft.
233. Track is actual path traveled over ground.
234. Course is intended path of travel that have been calculated taking into consideration winds, variation and declination.
235. Drift is the angle between the aircraft heading and the aircraft track.
236. Wind correction angle is the angle between the course (CRS) and the heading (HDG) that is required for the aircraft to
track that course when there is wind.
237. True north is the direction along the earth's surface towards the geographic North Pole.
238. Magnetic north is the direction in which the north end of a compass needle or other freely suspended magnet will
point in response to the earth's magnetic field.
239. Variation is the angle on the horizontal plane between magnetic north and true north.
240. Deviation is compass error caused by magnetized iron within an aircraft.
241. Indicated airspeed is the airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator on an aircraft, driven by the pitot-static
system.
242. Calibrated airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position error.
243. Equivalent airspeed is the airspeed at sea level in ISA at which the dynamic pressure is the same as the dynamic
pressure at the true airspeed and altitude at which the aircraft is flying.
244. True airspeed is the speed of the aircraft relative to the air mass in which it is flying.
245. Ground airspeed is an aircraft's speed relative to the ground.
246. Speed which indicated at airspeed indicator is Indicated airspeed
247. Knots means a unit of speed equal to one nautical mile (1.852 km) per hour, approximately 1.151 mph.
248. 1 statute miles (SM) equal 1.60934 km.
249. 1 nautical miles (NM) equal 1.852 km.
250. 1 feet equal 0.3048 m
251. Equator is an imaginary line drawn around the earth equally distant from both poles, dividing the earth into northern
and southern hemispheres and constituting the parallel of latitude 0°.
252. Meridian is an imaginary line forming a great circle that passes through the Earth's North and South geographic poles.
253. In an hour, an aircraft flying on ground speed of 120 knots can reach 222.24 nm.
254. ADF stand for Automatic Direction Finder.
255. SID stand for Standard Instrument Departure.
256. STAR stand for Standard Terminal Arrival.
257. FAF stand for Final Approach Fix.
258. Mention 4 flight instruments Altimeter, Vertical Speed Indicator, Directional Gyro Indicator, and Indicated Airspeed.
259. Mention 4 navigation instruments Non Directional Beacon, VHF Omnidirectional Range, Distance Measurement
Equipment, and Global Positioning System.
260. Mention 4 engine instruments Oil Pressure, Oil Temperature, Cylinder Head Temperature and Exhaust Gas
Temperature.
261. Mention 3 flight instruments using pitot-static system Indicated Airspeed, Vertical Speed Indicator, and Directional
Gyro Indicator.
262. Mention 2 flight instruments using vacuum system Directional Gyro Indicator and Artificial Horizon
263. Mach number is the ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium.
264. Indicated altitude is altitude indicated on the altimeter in your airplane.
265. True altitude is the actual elevation above mean sea level.
266. Absolute altitude is the height of the aircraft above the terrain over which it is flying.
267. Pressure altitude is the altitude above or below the standard 29.92″ Hg standard datum plane.
268. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature.
269. Radio altimeter is an airborne electronic device capable of measuring the height of the aircraft above terrain
immediately below the aircraft.
270. Encoding altimeter is the aircraft altitude to the radar of the attached radar beacon system.
271. 1007 mb is equal to 29.73669 InHg.
272. Known ground speed is 100 knots, bank to make rate one turn is approximately 15°.
273. Type of VSI which has no lag is called Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator.
274. If pitot tube clogged but static vent open, ASI will be under read.
275. If pitot tube open but static vent clogged, ASI will be over read.
276. If pitot tube and static vent are clogged, ASI will be freeze and no longer operate.
277. If static vent clogged, altimeter will be freeze on whatever altitude at which the blockage occurred
278. If static vent clogged, VSI will be show zero climb or descent.
279. There are 7 layers in the atmosphere, mention in order from the surface
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere
e. Exosphere
f. Ionosphere
g. Magnetosphere
280. Explanation of QNH is the altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
281. Explanation of QFE is atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
282. Explanation of QNE is barometric pressure used for standard altimeter.
283. We know that low level clouds stretched from surface to 6.500 ft, mention some type of low level clouds cumulus,
cumulonimbus, stratocumulus and stratus.
284. We know that medium level clouds stretched from surface to 6.500 ft to 23.000 ft, mention some type of medium
level clouds altostratus and altocumulus.
285. We know that high level clouds stretched from surface to 23.000 ft to 45.000 ft, mention some type of high level
clouds cirrus, cirrocumulus and cirrostratus.
286. Cloud ceiling is the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6 000 metres (20
000 feet) covering more than half the sky.
287. RVR stand for Runway Visual Range.
288. Explanation of RVR is the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the center line of a runway can see the runway
surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its center line.
289. Explain sky cover cloud code and their value SKC = sky clear; FEW = 1 to 2 oktas; SCT = 3 to 4 oktas; BKN = 5 to 7 oktas;
OVC = 8 oktas; NSC = nil significant cloud; CAVOK = ceiling and visibility okay.
290. Refer to wind charts below, its wind velocity and direction is 090°/65kts.

291. Explanation of METAR is aerodrome routine meteorological reports.

ATPL

1. What is the definition of HIGH SEAS?

A) Sea areas where there is more than one state bordering the sea
B) Sea state 6 or above
C) Sea areas outside of territorial waters of any state
D) Sea areas more than 12 nm from the closest shore

2. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates

A) A) needle to the right, ball to left
B) needle to the left, ball to right
C) needle to the right, ball to right
D) needle to the left, ball to left

3. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: (Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does
not take into account its rotor spin axis)

A)1 degree of freedom

B)0 degree of freedom
C) 2 degrees of freedom
D) 3 degrees of freedom

4. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is
known as:

A) instrument error
B) hysteresis effect
C) position pressure error
D) barometric error

5. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:

A) mach number of the aircraft

B) time passed at a given altitude
C) aircraft altitude
D) static temperature

6.Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of
approximately:

A) 3000
B) 2000
C) 1000
D) 5000

7. The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce

A) high pressure and large flow

B) high pressure and small flow
C) small pressure and large flow
D) small pressure and small flow
8. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:

A) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

B) gradually indicate zero
C) under-read
D) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

9. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:

A) an artificial horizon
B) a directional gyro
C) a turn indicator
D) a gyro-magnetic compass

10. During an acceleration phase at constant altitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon
results in the horizon bar indicating a:

A) constant attitude
B) nose-down attitude
C) nose-up attitude
D) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

11. two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by
an automatic erecting system

A) DGI
B) artificial horizon
C)turn indicator
D)RIMC

12. What is the tropopause?

A) The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere.
B) Upper boundary to C.A.T.
C) Where temperature increases with height.
D) The layer between the troposphere and stratosphere.

13. The international standard lapse rate has a value of:

A – 1.98C/1000ft
B – 2C/1000 ft
C – 0.65C/1000ft
D – 1C/1000ft

14.On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the
quoted scale is correct:
A) along the two standard parallels
B) in the area between the standard parallels
C) along the parallel of origin
 15. On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or
south poles?

a) Lamberts conformal
b) Direct Mercator
c) Transverse Mercator
d) Polar stereographic

16. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the
ground because:

A) the pulse recurrence rates are varied

B) DME transmits twin pulses
C) they are not on the receiver frequency
D) DME uses the UHF band

17. Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
A) 978 - 1213 MHz.
B) 10.2 - 13.6 kHz.
C) 90 - 110 kHz.
D) 1750 - 1950 kHz.

18. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

A) a beam rotating at 20 Hz
B) bi-local circular
C) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
D) omnidirectional

19. Step of four stroke cycle

A) Intake, Power, Compress, Exhaust
B)Power, Exhaust,Intake, Compress
C)Compress,Power,Exhaust,Intake
D)Exhaust,Intake,Power,Compress
20. the revolution of crankshaft on four stroke cycle
A) 4
B) 2
C)8
D)6
21. Elevons are
A) control surfaces that combine the functions of the elevator (used for pitch control)
and the aileron (used for roll control)
B) a device which increase the wing area so the lift is increase
C) an electrical device and can work when the engine has stopped
D) A leading edge device that causes some of the high energy air to flow over the upper surface of the
wing