2010 PACOP

Biochem:

17. which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?

a. thiamine

b. riboflavin

c. niacin

d. pantothenic acid

25. this is the genetic condition characterized by deficiency of the enzyme branched chain alpha-keto
acid dehydrogenase

a. maple syrup disease

b. hartnup disease

c. kwashiorkor

d. marasmus

27. this enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-PO4 to fructose-1,6-bisPO4

a. hexokinase

b. pyruvate kinase

c. PFK

d. glyceraldehyde PO4 dehydrogenase

40. wernicke-korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, can be
treated with which of the following?
a. Riboflavin

b. ascorbic acid

c. thiamine
 d. pantothenic acid

59. ketoses can be differentiated from aldose by this test

a. molischs test

b. benedicts test

c. seliwanoffs test

d. tollens test

60. which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. the difference between intake and output of nitrogenous compounds is known as nitrogen
balance

II. in a healthy adult, nitrogen balance is in equilibrium when intake equals output

III. positive nitrogen balance occurs when dietary intake is less than excretion of nitrogenous
compounds

IV. negative nitrogen balance results when there is too much protein intake

a. 3 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 1 to 4

79. what test can be used to differentiate galactose from lactose?

a. benedicts test

b. iodine test

c. barfoeds test

d. mucic acid test

80. alpha-naphthol reaction is also known as

a. molischs test

b. ninhydrin test

c. phenylhydrazine test

d. fehlings test
82. sweet taste of a compound is generally attributed to

a. presence of H ions

b. presence of OH ions

c. presence of cations and anions

d. presence of alkaloids

83. the rate of hydrolysis depends on

I. pressure

II. pH of the solution

III. temperature

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

88. serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid

a. tryptophan

b. threonine

c. tyrosine

d. alanine

91. which of the following is/are true about lysozyme?

I. it is generally known as the powerhouse of the cell

II. it helps in the removal of damaged cell

III. it contains a bactericidal agent such as lysozyme that kills bacteria before it damages the cell

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only

94. which of the following factors affects the solubility of solutes?

I. temperature
 II. pH

III. common ion effects

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III only

95. which of the following factors affect the protein binding drugs?

I. pregnancy

II. hypoalbuminemia

III. uremia

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II and III

96. some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may be used to
diagnose myocardial infarction?

I. gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

II. AST or SGOT

III. creatine phosphokinase

IV. lactate dehydrogenase

a. III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II and III
d. II, III and IV

105. the process in which the release of energy from energy rich molecules such as glucose and fatty
acid occurs in mitochondria is known as

a. oxidative decarboxylation

b. oxidative phosphorylation

c. oxidative deamination

d. oxidative dehydrogenation
115. which of the following should be classified as a disaccharide?

a. ribose

b. lactose

c. glycoprotein

d. glycosaminoglycans

128. this is also known as protein-calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic deficiency
of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein

a. marasmus

b. obesity

c. hemochromatosis

d. kwashiorkor

133. which of the following codons are generally known as stop or nonsense codons?

I. UAG II. UGA III. UAA

a. I only

b. I and II only

c. II and III only

d. I, II and III

147. which of the following ions is cotransported with glucose in the small intestines?

a. K

b. Na

c. Ca

d.Mg

152. which of the following is a good source of vitamin A?

a. cod liver oil

b. carrots

c. citrus fruits
 d. leafy vegetables

158. this test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine

a. ninhydrin test

b. anthrone test

c. schiffs test

d. millon-nasse test

170. dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which of the
following amino acids serve as precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?

a. tryptophan

b. threonine

c. tyrosine

d. alanine

171. this refers to the spatial arrangements of amino acid residues close to one another in the linear
sequence of a polypeptide chain?

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

173. deoxyribonucleic acid is a double stranded polynucleotide. The base content of DNA displays three
sets of equivalent pairs. Which of the following are equivalent base pairs?

I. A = T II. C = G III. A+ G = T + C IV. A + G is not always = to T + C

a. III only

b. I and II

c. I, II and III

d. I, II and IV

176. fruity odor of urine is indicative of acetone bodies, a diagnostic value in case of acidosis in

a. diabetes insipidus
 b. porphyria

c. cretinism

d. diabetes mellitus

177. these are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA
replication

a. enhancer

b. operon

c. okazaki fragments

d. primer

183. this hormone may sometimes be useful in the reversal of cardiac effects of beta-blocker overdose
because of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart

a.insulin

b. somatostatin

c. somatomedin

d. glucagon

195. glutamine is a ___________ amino acid

a. neutral

b. basic

c. acidic

d. racemic

201. these are alcohols containing CPPP nucleus

b. waxes

c. sterols

d. phospholipids

203. these are organelles that contain the enzymes for pyruvate oxidation, citric acid cycle, beta-
oxidation of fatty acids, oxidative phosphorylation and ETC
 a. golgi apparatus

b. lysosomes

c. nucleus

d. mitochondria

213. the isoelectric pH is the pH midway between pK values on either side of the isoelectric process.
Which of the following equations gives an accurate estimate of isoelectric pH?

a. pI = pK1 = pK2

b. pI = (pK1 + pK2)/2

c. pI = (pK1 + pK2) x 2

d. pI = pK1 > pK2

218. how many hydrogen bonds re formed between cytosine and guanine

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. none

225. how many ATPs are produced in the conversion of one mole of FADH2 to FAD?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 12

229. trimethoprim and methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The use of the aforementioned
drugs predisposes a person to develop:

a. nausea and vomiting

b. dermatitis

c. normocytic anemia

d. megaloblastic anemia
231. using the equation of pI, calculate the pI (isoelectric pH) of alanine. pK1 (R-COOH) = 2.35 ; pK2 (R-
NH3+) = 9.69

a. 6.02

b. 12.04

c. 24.08

d. 5.0

243. ascorbic acid, glucuronides and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would these substances
affect Benedicts test result?

a. they may give false-negative results

b. they may give false-positive results

c. they would not affect the result

d. the would enhance the sensitivity of the test

245. which of the following act synergistically with vitamin E?

a. Se

b. Co

c. Fe

d. Mn

246. histamine, a chemical messenger, mediates llergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric acid
secretion and neurotransmission of the brain. Which of the following amino acids, which when
decarboxylated, yields histamine?

a. tyrosine

b. histidine

c. tryptophan

d. any of the above

247. among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of the skin and hair?

a. keratin

b. collagen
 c. elastin

d. fibronectin

259. what important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?

a. histamine

b. acetylcholine

c. norepinephrine

d. serotonin

261. this results from the oxidation of heme protein in haemoglobin resulting to an icreased oxygen
affinity, and therefore failure to adequately deliver oxygen to the tissues

a. thalassemia

b. methemoglobinemia

c. sulfhemoglobinemia

d.sickle cell anemia

265. this immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. It is
found in body secretions such as tears, colostrums, saliva, sweat and small intestines.

a. IgD

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgE

Pharmaceutical Chemistry: 7, 30, 49, 69, 84, 87, 97, 108, 150, 152,

Pharmacognosy: 37, 66, 110, 119, 125, 133, 147, 150, 197, 284
 2005 PACOP
Micro part: 30, 47, 74, 78, 87, 123, 127, 176, 209, 236, 299

QA-QC part: 2, 7, 26, 42, 49, 133, 141, 145, 166, 170, 172, 184, 206, 212, 252, 292

Manuf part: 16, 26, 32, 33, 50, 63, 66, 74, 75, 83, 124, 128, 133, 135, 143, 146, 208, 220, 234, 236, 268,

Juris part: 1, 9, 159, 190, 278, 286, 287

PhyPharm part: 15, 95, 287

PharmChem part: 4, 13, 14, 16, 31, 33, 40, 44, 50, 51, 52, 54, 56, 57, 65, 76, 77, 80, 238, 332

Dosage forms part: 72, 184, 226, 229, 242, 298

[im very sorry I dont have the time to type everything so just
please take note of the questions that were asked in the previous
board exams. Kindly look them up na lang ha? thanks! ~sir louie