Signature and Name of Invigilator

PAPER-I

1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

00

1 4

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

Test Booklet Code

Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.

W-00

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

1.
2. - (60) ,
(50)


3. , -
-
, :
(i) - /
- /

(ii) -

/


-
-

(iii) - OMR
OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. - I - II OMR
OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.
13. ,

P.T.O.

Paper I
I
Note :

This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.

1.

(60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1.
Break-down in verbal communication
is described as
(A)
(A) Short circuit
(B)
(B) Contradiction
(C)
(C) Unevenness
(D)
(D) Entropy

2. The
Telephone
Model
of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory

2.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for

2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

3.

2013
?
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) publish
(B) secure
(C) decode
(D) change

4.

- _____
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

5. The grains that appear on a television

set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks
(B) green dots
(C) snow
(D) rain drops

5.

,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

6. In circular communication, the

encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise
(B) audience
(C) criticality
(D) feedback

6.

(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

W-00

7. In a post-office, stamps of three

different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 29

8. In certain coding method, the word

QUESTION
is
encoded
as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?

7.

` 7, ` 8 ` 10

?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29

8.

QUESTION DOMESTIC
,
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

(D) OMESISCM
9.

9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....

is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31

(B) 32

(C) 33

(D) 35
10.

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,

PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :

4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........

,
?
(A) 31

(B)

(C)

(D) 35

33

32

BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........

:

(A) TS

(B) ST

(A) TS

(B)

(C) RS

(D) SR

(C)

(D) SR

11.

11. A man started walking from his house

towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

W-00

RS

ST

6
5

3
9
?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
P.T.O.

(A) 32

(B) 36

50 99
2 7

?

(C) 40

(D) 38

(A) 32
(C) 40

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99

without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?

12.

13.

-

-



(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

13. If a large diamond is cut up into little

bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.
The argument put above may be
called as
(A) Analogical

(B) Deductive

(C) Statistical

(D) Causal

14. Given below are some characteristics

of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.

14.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to

follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.
15. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation
between
those
two
propositions is called

15.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

,
,
,
?
(A)

(B) contrary

(B)

(C) subcontrary

(C)

(D) subaltern

(D)

(A) contradictory

W-00

(B) 36
(D) 38

16. Given below are two premises and

four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

16.

-

- (
)
- :
:
(a)
(b)
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) -
:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii)

17. Given below is a diagram of three

circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.

17.

A, B C
A
, B
C
p, q, r, s.....


,

:
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
W-00

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
5

q s
s
s r
p, q s
P.T.O.


18 22


( )

Read the following table carefully. Based upon

this table answer questions from 18 to 22 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year

Govern-Private Tanks Tube

ment canals
canals

Other

Total

wells & sources

other
wells

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

3102
3326
2915
2880
4347
3657
4281
7453
7314

55173
57411
57109
55076
56672
53778
56618
58867
60196

18. Which of the following sources of

Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
20. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
22. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
W-00

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

18.

19.

20.

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

22.

3102 55173
3326 57411
2915 57109
2880 55076
4347 56672
3657 53778
4281 56618
7453 58867
7314 60196

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2005-06

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2002-03

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

1997-98 2005-06

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2002-03 2003-04

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2003-04

21.

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2004-05

23. The acronym FTP stands for

23.

... ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

24.

- /
/ ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

25.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

26.

?
(A) (RAM)
(B) (ROM)
(C) (CD ROM)
(D) (TCP)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
24. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(C) BMP

(D) GUI

25. The first web browser is

(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM

(D) TCP

27. Which one of the following is not the

same as the other three ?

27.

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
28. Identify the IP address from the
following :

28.

(A) 300 215 317 3

(A) 300 215 317 3

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(C) 202 50 20 148

(C) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

W-00

(D) 202 50 20 148

7

P.T.O.

29. The population of India is about 1.2

billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be

29.

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
30. Which of the following cities has been
worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?

(D) industrial effluents

540

(C)

5400

(D)

2400

(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D) :

(D) Beijing

(C) sewage effluents

(B)

31.

(C) Los Angeles

(B) run-off from agricultural forms

54

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(B) London

(A) run-off urban areas

(A)

30.

(A) Paris

31. The primary source of organic

pollution in fresh water bodies is

1.2

30


15 106 ,
-
?

32.

32. Lahar is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of
material

(A)

(B) strong winds

(B)

(C) strong water waves

(C)
(D)

(D) strong winds and water waves

W-00

33. In order to avoid catastrophic

consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C

33.

34. The National Disaster Management

Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence

34.

35. Match List I and List II and select

the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List I
List II
a. Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which
molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution
of water
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) 4
1
2
3
(B) 2
3
4
1
(C) 3
4
2
1
(D) 4
3
1
2

35.

36. Which one of the following green

house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

36.

W-00

?
(A) 1.5 C 2 C
(B) 2.0 C 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C 0.5 C

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
I II
:
I
II
a.
1.

b.
2.


c.
3.

d. 4.

:
a
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

b
1
3
4
3

c
2
4
2
1

d
3
1
1
2

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
P.T.O.

37. Consider the following statements and

select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv

37.

:
i.

ii.

iii.

iv.

:
(A) i ii
(B) i, ii iii
(C) ii iii
(D) i iv

38. Who among the following is the de

facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary

38.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

39. Education as a subject of legislation

figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers

39.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

40. Which of the following are Central

Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

40.

?
1.
2.
3. ...
4.

:
(A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4

W-00

10

41. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.

41.

(i) (ii)
:

: (i) ,


(ii) ,


:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C)
(D)

42. Which of the following universities

has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University

42.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

43. Which of the following statements are

correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The
President
occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

43.

?
1.

2.

3.


4. -


:
:
(A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

W-00

11

P.T.O.

44. Which one of the following is

considered a sign of motivated teaching ?

44.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

45.

?
(A)
(B) -
(C)
(D)

46.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

47.

- ,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

48.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum
students

attendance

of

the

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes
45. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium
for
Communication

Educational

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
48. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
W-00

12

49. Who
among
the
following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright

49.

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are

included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself

50.

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion

51.

52.

52. The research approach of Max Weber to

understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

53.

54. Identify the category of evaluation

that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative

54.

55. The research stream of immediate

application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

55.

W-00

13

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) .
(-)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) -


,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)




(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
P.T.O.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the State. The Indian States special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of Indias
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
W-00

14

 56 60 :
,
, ,
, , ,
,




-
,
- -

(
- ) 16


() ,
,
( )
56. ?
(A) -
(B) , ,
, -
(C)
(D)
57. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
58. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
59. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
W-00

15

P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

W-00

16

Signature and Name of Invigilator

PAPER-I

1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

00

1 4

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

Test Booklet Code

Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.

X-00

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

1.
2. - (60) ,
(50)


3. , -
-
, :
(i) - /
- /

(ii) -

/


-
-

(iii) - OMR
OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. - I - II OMR
OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.
13. ,

P.T.O.

Paper I
I
Note :

This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.

1.

(60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1. -
If a large diamond is cut up into little

bits, it will lose its value just as an
-
army is divided up into small units of

soldiers, it loses its strength.

The argument put above may be

called as
(A)
(B)
(A) Analogical
(B) Deductive
(C)

(D)
(C) Statistical
(D) Causal

2. Given below are some characteristics

of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to
follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.

2.

(A)

(B)

(C) :
(D)

3. If two propositions having the same

subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation
between
those
two
propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern

3.

,
,
,
?
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)

4. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99

without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 38

4.

50 99
2 7

?

X-00

(A) 32
(C) 40
2

(B) 36
(D) 38

5. Given below is a diagram of three

circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.

5.

A, B C
A
, B
C
p, q, r, s.....


,

:
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

6. Given below are two premises and

four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
X-00

6.

q s
s
s r
p, q s

-

- (
)
- :
:
(a)
(b)
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) -
:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii)
P.T.O.


7 11


( )

Read the following table carefully. Based upon

this table answer questions from 7 to 11 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year

Govern-Private Tanks Tube

ment canals
canals

Other

Total

wells & sources

other
wells

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

3102
3326
2915
2880
4347
3657
4281
7453
7314

55173
57411
57109
55076
56672
53778
56618
58867
60196

7. Find out the source of Irrigation that has

registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
8. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
9. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
10. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
11. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
X-00

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

7.

8.

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

10.

3102 55173
3326 57411
2915 57109
2880 55076
4347 56672
3657 53778
4281 56618
7453 58867
7314 60196

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2005-06

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2002-03

11.

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

2002-03 2003-04

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2003-04

9.

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2004-05

1997-98 2005-06

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

12. Which one of the following is not a/an

image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(C) BMP

(D) GUI

13. The first web browser is

12.

- /
/ ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

13.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

14.

?
(A) (RAM)
(B) (ROM)
(C) (CD ROM)
(D) (TCP)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
14. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM

(D) TCP

15. Which one of the following is not the

same as the other three ?

15.

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
16. Identify the IP address from the
following :

16.

(A) 300 215 317 3

(A) 300 215 317 3

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(C) 202 50 20 148

(C) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

17. The acronym FTP stands for

17.

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
X-00

... ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
P.T.O.

18. Which of the following cities has been

worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?

18.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

19.

(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D) :

(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
19. The primary source of organic
pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents

20.

20. Lahar is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of
material

(A)

(B) strong winds

(B)

(C) strong water waves

(C)

(D) strong winds and water waves

(D)

21. The population of India is about 1.2

billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be

21.

1.2

30


15 106 ,
-
?
(A)

54

(B)

540

(C) 5400 million metric tons

(C)

5400

(D) 2400 million metric tons

(D)

2400

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons

X-00

22. The National Disaster Management

Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence

22.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

23. Match List I and List II and select

the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List I
List II
a. Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which
molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution
of water
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) 4
1
2
3
(B) 2
3
4
1
(C) 3
4
2
1
(D) 4
3
1
2

23.

I II
:
I
II
a.
1.

b.
2.


c.
3.

d. 4.

:

24. Which one of the following green

house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

24.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

25. In order to avoid catastrophic

consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C

25.

?
(A) 1.5 C 2 C
(B) 2.0 C 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C 0.5 C

X-00

a
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

b
1
3
4
3

c
2
4
2
1

d
3
1
1
2

P.T.O.

26. Who among the following is the de

facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary

26.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

27. Education as a subject of legislation

figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers

27.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

28. Which of the following are Central

Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

28.

?
1.
2.
3. ...
4.

:
(A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4

29. Consider the following statements and

select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv

29.

:
i.

ii.

iii.

iv.

:
(A) i ii
(B) i, ii iii
(C) ii iii
(D) i iv

X-00

30. Which of the following universities

has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University

30.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

31. Which of the following statements are

correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The
President
occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

31.

?
1.

2.

3.


4. -


:
:
(A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

32. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.
X-00

32.

(i) (ii)
:

: (i) ,


(ii) ,


:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C)
(D)

P.T.O.

33. Which one of the following is the best

method of teaching ?

33.

?
(A)
(B) -
(C)
(D)

34.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

35.

- ,
?

(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
34. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
35. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to

(A)

Educational

(B)

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(C)

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open

University

(D)

(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium
for
Communication

36. Classroom communication is normally

considered as

36.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

37.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
37. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum
students

attendance

of

the

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes
X-00

10

38. In a thesis, figures and tables are

included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself

38.

39. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion

39.

40. The research approach of Max Weber to

understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm

40.

41. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?

(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

41.

42. Identify the category of evaluation

that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative

42.

43. The research stream of immediate

application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

43.

44. Who
among
the
following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright

44.

X-00

(-)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
-

-


,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)




(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

11

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) .
P.T.O.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 45 to 49 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the State. The Indian States special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of Indias
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
45. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
46. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
47. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
48. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
49. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
X-00

12

 45 49 :
,
, ,
, , ,
,




-
,
- -

(
- ) 16


() ,
,
( )
45. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
47. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49. ?
(A) -
(B) , ,
, -
(C)
(D)
X-00

13

P.T.O.

50. The
Telephone
Model
of
Communication was first developed
in the area of

50.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

51.

2013
?
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

52.

- _____
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

53.

,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

54.

(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

55.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
51. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for
2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan

(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

52. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish

(B) secure

(C) decode

(D) change

53. The grains that appear on a television

set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks

(B) green dots

(C) snow

(D) rain drops

54. In circular communication, the

encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise

(B) audience

(C) criticality

(D) feedback

55. Break-down in verbal communication

is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
X-00

14

56. In certain coding method, the word

QUESTION
is
encoded
as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?

56.

QUESTION DOMESTIC
,
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

(D) OMESISCM

57. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....

is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31

(B) 32

(C) 33

(D) 35

57.

58. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,

PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :

58.

4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........

,
?
(A) 31

(B)

(C)

(D) 35

33

32

BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........

:

(A) TS

(B) ST

(A) TS

(B)

(C) RS

(D) SR

(C)

(D) SR

59. A man started walking from his house

towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

60. In a post-office, stamps of three

different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 29

X-00

15

RS

ST

59.

6
5

3
9
?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

60.

` 7, ` 8 ` 10

?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29
P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

X-00

16

Signature and Name of Invigilator

PAPER-I

1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

00

1 4

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

Test Booklet Code

Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.

Y-00

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

1.
2. - (60) ,
(50)


3. , -
-
, :
(i) - /
- /

(ii) -

/


-
-

(iii) - OMR
OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. - I - II OMR
OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.
13. ,

P.T.O.

Paper I
I
Note :

This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.

1.

(60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
1.
The primary source of organic

pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A)
(A) run-off urban areas
(B)
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) :
(C) sewage effluents
(D) :
(D) industrial effluents
2.
(A)

2. Lahar is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of
material

(B)
(C)
(D)

(B) strong winds

(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves

3. The population of India is about 1.2

billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons

3.

1.2

30


15 106 ,
-
?
(A) 54
(B) 540
(C) 5400
(D) 2400

4. Which of the following cities has been

worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing

4.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Y-00

 I II
:
I
II
1.
a.

b.
2.


c.
3.

d. 4.

:

5. Match List I and List II and select

the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List I
List II
a. Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which
molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution
of water
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) 4
1
2
3
(B) 2
3
4
1
(C) 3
4
2
1
(D) 4
3
1
2

5.

6. Which one of the following green

house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

6.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

7. In order to avoid catastrophic

consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C

7.

?
(A) 1.5 C 2 C
(B) 2.0 C 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C 0.5 C

8. The National Disaster Management

Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
Y-00

8.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

a
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

b
1
3
4
3

c
2
4
2
1

d
3
1
1
2

P.T.O.

9. Education as a subject of legislation

figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers

9.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

10. Which of the following are Central

Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

10.

?
1.
2.
3. ...
4.

:
(A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4

11. Consider the following statements and

select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv

11.

:
i.

ii.

iii.

iv.

:
(A) i ii
(B) i, ii iii
(C) ii iii
(D) i iv

12. Who among the following is the de

facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary

12.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Y-00

13. Which of the following statements are

correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The
President
occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13.

?
1.

2.

3.


4. -


:
:
(A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

14. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.

14.

(i) (ii)
:

: (i) ,


(ii) ,


:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C)
(D)

15. Which of the following universities

has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University

15.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Y-00

P.T.O.

16. Dyslexia is associated with

16.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

17.

- ,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

18.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

19.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

20.

?
(A)
(B) -
(C)
(D)

(A) mental disorder

(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
17. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium
for
Communication

Educational

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
18. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
19. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum
students

attendance

of

the

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes
20. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
Y-00

-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) -


,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

21. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion

21.

22. The research approach of Max Weber to

understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm

22.

23. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?

(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

23.

- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

24. Identify the category of evaluation

that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative

24.

25. The research stream of immediate

application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

25.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)

26. Who
among
the
following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright

26.

27. In a thesis, figures and tables are

included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself

27.

Y-00

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) .
(-)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
P.T.O.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 28 to 32 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the State. The Indian States special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of Indias
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
28. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
29. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
30. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
31. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
32. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
Y-00

 28 32 :
,
, ,
, , ,
,




-
,
- -

(
- ) 16


() ,
,
( )
28. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
29. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31. ?
(A) -
(B) , ,
, -
(C)
(D)
32. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Y-00

P.T.O.

33. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for

2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar

33.

2013
?
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

34.

- _____
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

35.

,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

36.

(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

37.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

38.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(B) Amir Khan

(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

34. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish

(B) secure

(C) decode

(D) change

35. The grains that appear on a television

set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks

(B) green dots

(C) snow

(D) rain drops

36. In circular communication, the

encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise

(B) audience

(C) criticality

(D) feedback

37. Break-down in verbal communication

is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
38. The
Telephone
Model
of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
Y-00

10

39. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....

is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31

(B) 32

(C) 33

(D) 35

39.

40. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,

PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS

(B) ST

(C) RS

(D) SR

40.

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

42. In a post-office, stamps of three

different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 29

(A) 31

(B)

(C)

(D) 35

33

43. In certain coding method, the word

QUESTION
is
encoded
as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?

(B) ST
(D) SR

41.

6
5

3
9
?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

42.

` 7, ` 8 ` 10

?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29

43.

QUESTION DOMESTIC
,
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM

(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM

(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

(D) OMESISCM

Y-00

32

BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........

:
(A) TS
(C) RS

41. A man started walking from his house

towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km

4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........

,
?

11

P.T.O.

44. Given below are some characteristics

of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.

44.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to

follow from its premises.

(A)

(B) The conclusion is based on causal

relation.

(B)

(C) The conclusion conclusively

follows from its premises.

(C)

(D) The conclusion is based on

observation and experiment.

(D)

45. If two propositions having the same

subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation
between
those
two
propositions is called

45.

,
,
,
?

(A) contradictory

(A)

(B) contrary

(B)

(C) subcontrary

(C)

(D) subaltern

(D)

46. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99

without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32

(B) 36

(C) 40

(D) 38

46.

(A) 32
(C) 40
47.

The argument put above may be

called as
(B) Deductive

(C) Statistical

(D) Causal

Y-00

(B) 36
(D) 38

-

-



(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

47. If a large diamond is cut up into little

bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.

(A) Analogical

50 99
2 7

?

12

48. Given below are two premises and

four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

48.

-

- (
)
- :
:
(a)
(b)
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) -
:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii)

49. Given below is a diagram of three

circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.

49.

A, B C
A
, B
C
p, q, r, s.....


,

:
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Y-00

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
13

q s
s
s r
p, q s
P.T.O.


50 54


( )

Read the following table carefully. Based upon

this table answer questions from 50 to 54 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year

Govern-Private Tanks Tube

ment canals
canals

Other

Total

wells & sources

other
wells

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

3102
3326
2915
2880
4347
3657
4281
7453
7314

55173
57411
57109
55076
56672
53778
56618
58867
60196

50. In which of the following years, Net

irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
51. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
52. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
53. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
54. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Y-00

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

50.

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

52.

3102 55173
3326 57411
2915 57109
2880 55076
4347 56672
3657 53778
4281 56618
7453 58867
7314 60196

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2005-06

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2002-03

14

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2003-04

51.

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2004-05

53.

1997-98 2005-06

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

54.

2002-03 2003-04

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

55. The first web browser is

55.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

56.

?
(A) (RAM)
(B) (ROM)
(C) (CD ROM)
(D) (TCP)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
56. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM

(D) TCP

57. Which one of the following is not the

same as the other three ?

57.

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
58. Identify the IP address from the
following :

58.

(A) 300 215 317 3

(A) 300 215 317 3

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(C) 202 50 20 148

(C) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

59. The acronym FTP stands for

59.

... ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

60.

- /
/ ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
60. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(C) BMP

(D) GUI

Y-00

15

P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

Y-00

16

Signature and Name of Invigilator

PAPER-I

1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________

Roll No.
(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

00

1 4

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

Test Booklet Code

Time : 1 1/4 hours]
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of
this page.
2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of
questions, out of which the candidate would be required to
answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate
attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions
attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal / polythene bag on the booklet. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal / without polythene bag
and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for
Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in
the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the original OMR Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are
however, allowed to carry original question booklet and
duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.

Z-00

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60

1.
2. - (60) ,
(50)


3. , -
-
, :
(i) - /
- /

(ii) -

/


-
-

(iii) - OMR
OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. - I - II OMR
OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.
13. ,

P.T.O.

Paper I
I
Note :

:
1.

This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.

(60) (2)
(50)
(50) (50)
Which of the following are Central
1.
Universities ?
?
1. Pondicherry University
1.
2. Vishwa Bharati
2.
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
3. ...
4. Kurukshetra University
4.
Select the correct answer from the

code given below :
:
Codes :
(A)
1, 2 3 (B) 1, 3 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

2. Consider the following statements and

select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv
3. Who among the following is the de
facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
4. Education as a subject of legislation
figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Z-00

2.

3.

4.

:
i.

ii.

iii.

iv.

:
(A) i ii
(B) i, ii iii
(C) ii iii
(D) i iv

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

5. Consider the statement which is

followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i)Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.

5.

(i) (ii)
:

: (i) ,


(ii) ,


:
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C)
(D)

6. Which of the following universities

has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University

6.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

7. Which of the following statements are

correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The
President
occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7.

?
1.

2.

3.


4. -


:
:
(A) 1, 2 4 (B) 1, 3 4
(C) 1, 2 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 4

Z-00

P.T.O.

8. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by

the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to

8.

- ,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

9.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

10.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

11.

?
(A)
(B) -
(C)
(D)

12.

:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium
for
Communication

Educational

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
9. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
10. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum
students

attendance

of

the

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes
11. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
12. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Z-00



,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
- ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)




(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

13. The research approach of Max Weber to

understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm

13.

14. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?

(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

14.

15. Identify the category of evaluation

that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement
(B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative
(D) Summative

15.

16. The research stream of immediate

application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

16.

:
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)

17. Who
among
the
following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright

17.

18. In a thesis, figures and tables are

included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself

18.

19. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion

19.

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) .
(-)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) -

Z-00

P.T.O.

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 20 to 24 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the State. The Indian States special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word State
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state sovereignty or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of Indias
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
20. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
21. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry
22. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
23. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
24. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
Z-00

 20 24 :
,
, ,
, , ,
,




-
,
- -

(
- ) 16


() ,
,
( )
20. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
21. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
22. ?
(A) -
(B) , ,
, -
(C)
(D)
23. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
24. ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Z-00

P.T.O.

25. Photographs are not easy to

(A) publish

(B) secure

(C) decode

(D) change

26. The grains that appear on a television

set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks

(B) green dots

(C) snow

(D) rain drops

27. In circular communication, the

encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise

(B) audience

(C) criticality

(D) feedback

28. Break-down in verbal communication

is described as

25.

- _____
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

26.

,
?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

27.

(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

28.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

29.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

30.

2013
?
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

(A) Short circuit

(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
29. The
Telephone
Model
of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
30. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for
2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan

(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar

Z-00

31. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,

PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS

(B) ST

(C) RS

(D) SR

31.

(A) TS
(C) RS

32. A man started walking from his house

towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

33. In a post-office, stamps of three

different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 29

BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........

:

34. In certain coding method, the word

QUESTION
is
encoded
as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?

32.

6
5

3
9
?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

33.

` 7, ` 8 ` 10

?
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29

34.

QUESTION DOMESTIC
,
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM

(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM

(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

(D) OMESISCM
35.

35. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....

is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31

(B) 32

(C) 33

(D) 35

Z-00

(B) ST
(D) SR

4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ........

,
?
(A) 31

(B)

(C)

(D) 35

33

32

P.T.O.

36. If two propositions having the same

subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation
between
those
two
propositions is called

36.

,
,
,
?
(A)

(B)

(C) subcontrary

(C)

(D) subaltern

(D)

(A) contradictory
(B) contrary

37.

37. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99

without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32

(B) 36

(C) 40

(D) 38

(A) 32
(C) 40

-

-



(A)
(B)
(C) (D)

The argument put above may be

called as
(B) Deductive

(C) Statistical

(D) Causal

39. Given below are some characteristics

of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.

39.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to

follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.
Z-00

(B) 36
(D) 38

38.

38. If a large diamond is cut up into little

bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.

(A) Analogical

50 99
2 7

?

10

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40. Given below is a diagram of three

circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.

40.

A, B C
A
, B
C
p, q, r, s.....


,

:
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
41. Given below are two premises and
four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Z-00

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41.

11

q s
s
s r
p, q s

-

- (
)
- :
:
(a)
(b)
:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) -
:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (iv) (D) (ii) (iii)
P.T.O.


42 46


( )

Read the following table carefully. Based upon

this table answer questions from 42 to 46 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a
country (Thousand Hectares)
Year

Govern-Private Tanks Tube

ment canals
canals

Other

Total

wells & sources

other
wells

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

3102
3326
2915
2880
4347
3657
4281
7453
7314

55173
57411
57109
55076
56672
53778
56618
58867
60196

42. Identify the source of Irrigation that

has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
43. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03
(D) 2004-05
44. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
45. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
46. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99
(B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04
(D) 2005-06
Z-00

1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04
2004-05
2005-06

42.

43.

17117
17093
16842
15748
15031
13863
14444
14696
15268

211
212
194
203
209
206
206
206
207

45.

46.

3102 55173
3326 57411
2915 57109
2880 55076
4347 56672
3657 53778
4281 56618
7453 58867
7314 60196

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2004-05

1997-98 2005-06

() ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2002-03 2003-04

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2003-04

12

32090
33988
34623
33796
34906
34250
35779
34785
35372

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

?
(A) 1998-99
(C) 2002-03

44.

2593
2792
2535
2449
2179
1802
1908
1727
2034

(B) 2000-01
(D) 2005-06

47. When a computer is booting, BIOS is

loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM

(D) TCP

48. Which one of the following is not the

same as the other three ?

47.

?
(A) (RAM)
(B) (ROM)
(C) (CD ROM)
(D) (TCP)

48.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

49.

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
49. Identify the IP address from the
following :
(A) 300 215 317 3

(A) 300 215 317 3

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(B) 302 215@ 417 5

(C) 202 50 20 148

(C) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

(D) 202 50 20 148

50. The acronym FTP stands for

50.

... ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

51.

- /
/ ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

52.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
51. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(C) BMP

(D) GUI

52. The first web browser is

(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
Z-00

13

P.T.O.

53.

53. Lahar is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of
material

(A)

(B) strong winds

(B)

(C) strong water waves

(C)
(D)

(D) strong winds and water waves

54. The population of India is about 1.2

billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 106 kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be

54.

1.2

30


15 106 ,
-
?
(A)

54

(B)

540

(C)

5400

(D)

2400

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
55. Which of the following cities has been
worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?

55.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

56.

(A)
(B)
(C) :
(D) :

(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
56. The primary source of organic
pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
Z-00

14

57. Which one of the following green

house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

57.

58. In order to avoid catastrophic

consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 C to 2 C
(B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C to 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C

58.

59. The National Disaster Management

Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence

59.

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60. I II
:
I
II
1.
a.

b.
2.


c.
3.

d. 4.

:

60. Match List I and List II and select

the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List I
List II
a. Flood
1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced
by the passage of
vibratory waves
through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through
which
molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and
uneven distribution
of water
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) 4
1
2
3
(B) 2
3
4
1
(C) 3
4
2
1
(D) 4
3
1
2
Z-00

?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)




?
(A) 1.5 C 2 C
(B) 2.0 C 3.5 C
(C) 0.5 C 1.0 C
(D) 0.25 C 0.5 C

a
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
15

b
1
3
4
3

c
2
4
2
1

d
3
1
1
2
P.T.O.

Space For Rough Work

Z-00

16

PAPER-II
ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.

2. (Signature) __________________________

(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

88

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

1 4

Time : 1 /4 hours]

[Maximum Marks : 100

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12

Instructions for the Candidates

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

1.
2. -
3. , -
-
, :
(i) -
-

(ii) -

/


-

-

(iii) OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. I OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. - OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of

this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
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(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
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Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Paper I Booklet only. If you mark
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will
not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

J-88-14

P.T.O.

ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Paper II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1.

For the circuit shown in figure, the

terminal voltage Vab is given by :

5.

What bandwidth is needed for an FM

signal that has a peak deviation of
3 KHz and handles audio signals
from 200 Hz to 5 KHz ?
(A) 6 KHz

(A) 5 V
(C) 2.5 V
2.

3.

(B) 6 V
(D) 3 V

(B)

16 KHz

(C)

10 KHz

(D) 9.6 KHz

6.

The earth has a conductivity of

102 mho/m, r = 10, r = 2, f = 10
GHz, the earth behaves like a
(A) Good conductor
(B) Moderate conductor
(C) Good dielectric
(D) Bad dielectric

7.

The carrier velocity in a silicon p-i-n

photodiode with 25 m depletion
layer width is 3 104 m/s. The
maximum response time for the pin
diode is given by :
(A) 52 ns
(B) 2.5 ns
(C) 62 ns
(D) 5.2 ns

In which of the following base

system, 132 is not a valid number ?
(A) Base 16

(B)

(C)

(D) Base 2

Base 8

Base 10

What is the relation between k and T

such that a unity feedback control
system whose open loop transfer
function below is stable :
k
G(s) = s[s(s + 10) + T]
(A) 0 < k < 10T
(B)

0 > k > 10T

(C)

0<k<T

(D) 0 < k > T

4.

For a JFET, above the pinch-off

voltage, as the drain voltage
increases, the
(A) the drain current remains
constant.
(B) the drain current decreases.
(C) the drain current increases
linearly.
(D) the drain current varies
parabolically.

Paper-II

8.

Microprocessor development had

happened because of LSI. What is
LSI ?
(A) Large Scale Integral
(B)

Large Signal Integration

(C)

Large Scale Integration

(D) Long Signal Integration

2

J-88-14

9.

10.

11.

12.

Stdio.h header file contains

functions related to
(A) prototypes for the standard
input/output library functions.
(B) prototypes for the standard
input and standard output
functions.
(C) prototypes for the functions
that perform input from files.
(D) prototypes for functions that
perform input from strings in
memory and outputs to strings
in memory.

1.

T),

S11, S22, S33 and S44 are nonzero.

2.

All junctions are reciprocal i.e.

Sjk = Skj

3.

S11, S22, S33 and S44 are zero.

4.

S13 = S23, S14 = S24, S43 = 0

and S34 = 0

Which one of the following is true ?

The threshold voltage of a MOSFET

can be lowered by
1.
using a thinner gate oxide
2.
reducing
the
carrier
concentration in the substrate
3.
increasing
the
carrier
concentration in the substrate
Of these statements :
(A) 3 alone is correct.
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 2 alone is correct

(A) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

(B)

1 and 2 are correct.

(C)

2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

13.

An angular position to be measured

using a transducer. Which of the
following types of transducers can be
used for this purpose ?
1.
Circular potentiometer
2.
LVDT
3.
E-pick off
4.
Synchro
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

J-88-14

In a hybrid TEE (Magic

following statements are given :

In
optical
fibers,
statements are given :

following

1.

1550 nm is zero dispersion

wavelength

2.

1330 nm is zero dispersion

wavelength

3.

At 1330 nm, attenuation is

minimum

4.

At 1550 nm, attenuation is

minimum

Which one of the following is correct ?

(A) 1 and 4 are true.
(B)

1 and 3 are true.

(C)

2 and 4 are true.

(D) 1, 2 and 3 are true.

3

Paper-II

14.

16.

1.

Armstrong

A linear two-terminal network can be

replaced by an equivalent circuit
consisting of a current source in
parallel with resistor RN, where RN is

2.

Foster-Sealy Discriminator

the ratio of

3.

Balanced Modulator

1.

4.

Reactance Modulator

Closed circuit voltage to short

circuit current at the terminal
pair.

2.

Open circuit voltage to open

circuit current at the terminal
pair.

3.

Open circuit voltage to short

circuit current at the terminal
pair.

4.

Closed circuit voltage to open

circuit current at the terminal
pair.

Which of the following techniques

are used to generate frequency
modulated signal :

Which one of the following is true ?

(A) 1 and 2
(B)

1, 2 and 3

(C)

1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

15.

Which of the following statements

are true regarding the operation of JK
flip-flop ?
1.

(A) 1 and 4

When K input is low and J

input is high, the Q output of
the flip flop is reset.

2.

When K input is high and J

input is low, the output Q of
the flip flop is set.

3.

When both the inputs K and J

are low, the output Q does not
change.

4.

When both the inputs K and J

are high it is possible to set or
reset the flip-flop (ie) the
output toggle on next positive
clock edge.

(B)

only 2

(C)

3 only

(D) only 3 and 4

17.

The
following
signals
microprocessors are intercepts :
1.

TRAP

2.

INTA

3.

IO/ M

Which one of the following is true ?

4.

RESET IN

(A) 1 and 2

(A) 1 and 3

(B)

3 and 4

(B)

1 and 4

(C)

1, 2 and 3

(C)

2 and 3

(D) All of the above

Paper-II

of

(D) 3 and 4
4

J-88-14

18.

19.

1.

Low level programming

2.

High level programming

3.

Assembly level programming

4.

Machine level programming

(A) 1 and 4

(B)

(C)

(D) 3 and 4

1 and 2

A linear two
replaced by
consisting of
series with a
the ratio of
1.

2 and 3

Consider the following Excimer

Lasers used for photolithography and
surgery purposes :
1.

Ar2 Excimer laser

2.

ArF Excimer laser

3.

XeCl Excimer laser

4.

XeF Excimer laser

The correct sequence of the

descending order of wavelength of
operation is

terminal circuit can be

an equivalent circuit
a voltage source Vt in
resistor Rt where Rt is

22.

open circuit voltage to the short

circuit current at the terminal
pair.

(A) 2, 3, 1, 4

(B)

(C)

(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

1, 3, 2, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

Arrange the following communication

systems in increasing order of their
available commercial bandwidth :
1.

Satellite Communication System

2.

Amplitude Modulated System

2.

short circuit current to the short

circuit voltage at the terminal.

3.

Frequency Modulated System

3.

Open circuit voltage to the

open circuit current at the
terminal pair.

4.

Two-line transmission system

Correct sequence is

4.

20.

21.

C programming language can be

considered as

the independent sources are

turned off.

(A) 1 and 4

(B)

(C)

(D) 2 and 3

3 and 4

2 and 4

23.

(A) 4, 2, 3, 1

(B)

(C)

(D) 1, 3, 2, 4

4, 3, 2, 1

Priority of the interrupts in the order

from the highest to least priority
1.

RST 7.5

2.

RST 5.5

(A) Positive temperature coefficient

of resistance

3.

RESET IN

4.

RST 6.5

(B)

Zero temperature coefficient of

resistance

The correct sequence is

Negative temperature coefficient

of resistance

(B)

3, 1, 4 and 2

(C)

2, 4, 1 and 3

Semi conductors have

(C)

(A) 1, 4, 2 and 3

(D) Resistance does not change

with temperature
J-88-14

1, 2, 3, 4

(D) 3, 2, 4 and 1
5

Paper-II

24.

25.

26.

Sequence of operators according to

the priority
1.
/
2.
+
3.
*
4.

The correct sequence is

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 3, 4, 1 and 2
(D) 3, 1, 2 and 4

27.

b.
c.

ii.
iii.

D
J+
t
0

iv.

d.
( B)
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) iv
i
ii
iii
(B) iii
i
ii
iv
(C) iii
ii
i
iv
(D) i
ii
iii
iv
Paper-II

b. Flip-Flop

ii. Combinational
circuit

c. Shift
Register

iii. Memory

d. Parallel
Adder

iv. Sequential
logic

Codes :
a

(A)

iii

iv

ii

(B)

iv

ii

iii

(C)

ii

iv

iii

(D)

iii

ii

iv

28.

Match List I with List II and

select the correct answer using codes
given below :
List I
List II

i.
v
a.
H
B

List II

a. Multiplexer i. Selects one of

many inputs to
a single output

What is the correct sequence of the

following step in the fabrication of a
monolithic, bipolar junction transistor ?
1.
Emitter diffusion
2.
Base diffusion
3.
Buried layer formation
4.
Epi-layer formation
Select the correct sequence using the
codes given below :
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

List I

List I

List II

a. Shot Noise

i. Resistance

b. Johnson
Noise

ii. Diode

c. Current
Noise

iii. P-N junction

d. Partition
Noise

iv. Triode

Codes :
a

ii

iv

iii

(B) iii

iv

ii

(C) iv

ii

iii

(D) ii

iii

iv

(A)

J-88-14

29.

List I

List II

a. 1550 nm

i. 100 GHz

b. 0.8 nm

ii. Visible light

c. 400-700 nm

iii. Ultra violet

d. 200 nm

iv. 193 T Hz

31.

30.

(A) iv

ii

iii

(B) iv

ii

iii

(C)

ii

iii

iv

(D) iv

iii

ii

List I

List II

(Structure/

(Reasons)

c. Counter
Ramp

iii. Maximum
conversion
Time = N
bits

d. Dual Slope

iv. Uses a DAC

in its feedback path

Codes :

i. Reverse bias
a. n-channel
JFET is better
increases along
the channel
than p-channel
JFET

(A) ii

iii

iv

(B)

iii

iv

ii

(C) ii

iv

iii

(D)

iv

iii

ii

32.

ii. High electric

field near the
drain
and
directed
towards source

c. Channel is not iii. Low leakage

current at the
completely
closed at
gate terminal
pinch-off
d. Input
impedance is
high

i. Integrating
type

b. Successive
ii. Fastest
approximation
converter

Characteristics)

b. Channel is
wedge shaped

List II

a. Flash
converter

Codes :
a

List I

iv. Better
frequency
performance
since n >> p

List I

List II

(Devices)

(Characteristics)

a. BJT

i. Voltage
controlled
negative
resistance

b. MOSFET

ii. High
gain

c. Tunnel
diode

iii. Voltage
regulation

current

d. Zener diode iv. High

input
impedance
Codes :

Codes :
a

(A) iv

ii

iii

(B) iv

ii

iii

(C) iii

ii

iv

(D) ii
J-88-14

iv

iii

i
7

(A) ii

iv

iii

(B)

iv

ii

iii

(C) ii

iii

iv

(D)

iii

ii

iv

Paper-II

33.

List I
a. Gauss meter

i.

b. Logic
ii.
analyser
c. Pirani gauge iii.

d. Rotameter
Codes :
a
(A) i
(B) ii
(C) i
(D) iv
34.

b
iv
iii
ii
iii

List I
a. AC

i.

b. SP

ii.

c. HL

iii.

d. PC

iv.

Codes :
a
(A) ii
(B) iii
(C) iv
(D) ii
Paper-II

b
iii
i
i
iv

iv.

c
iii
i
iii
i

List II
Pressure
measurement
Flow
measurement
Trouble
shooting
of
digital
electronic
circuits
Magnetic flux
density

35.

d
ii
iv
iv
ii

List II
Contains the data of
stored
from
registers
used for storing
address
of
the
external memory
Contains
the
address
of
the
instructions which
has to be executed
after completion of
execution of present
instruction.
Primary register to
perform arithmetic
and
logical
operations
c
iv
ii
ii
iii

List I

List II

a. Super
position
theorem

i. Ratio
of
excitation to
response is
constant
when
the
positions of
excitation
and response
are
interchanged

b. Thevenins
theorem

ii. Applicable
to
linear
systems

c. Reciprocity
theorem

iii. Source
represented
by
its
Thevenins
equivalent
circuits

d. Maximum
power
transfer
theorem

iv. Reduce some

portion
of
circuit to an
equivalent
source and a
single
element

Codes :

d
i
iv
iii
i
8

(A) iii

iv

ii

(B) ii

iv

iii

(C) iv

iii

ii

(D) ii

iv

iii
J-88-14

37.

Directions : Q. Nos. 36 to 45 : The

Assertion (A) : An EDFA is usually

following items consists of two statements,

pumped at 980 nm wavelength,

one labelled the Assertion (A) and the

which means that Erbium ions

at ground level absorb energy.

other labelled the Reason (R). You are to

Reason (R)

examine these two statements carefully and

: This

absorbed

energy is transferred to high

decide if the Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

frequency signals to boost up.

are individually true and if so, whether the

reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answer to these

38.

Assertion (A) : D-flip-flops

are

used as buffer register.

items using the codes given below and

mark your answer accordingly.

Reason (R)

: Flip-flops are free

from race-around condition.

Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
39.

the correct explanation of (A).

(B)

Hurwitz

criterion gives both absolute as

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is

well as relative stability using

not correct explanation of (A).

(C)

Assertion (A) : Routh

characteristic equation.

(A) is true, but (R) is false.

Reason (R)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

: For a system to be

stable all roots of characteristic

equation must lie in left half of
s-plane.

36.

Assertion (A) : Brewster angle is

the angle of incidence at which
40.

there is no reflection.
Reason (R)

: For

Assertion (A) : Considering

two

p-n-p and n-p-n transistors of

parallel

identical construction as far as

polarisation, Brewster angle is

shape, size and doping are

given by following expression :

concerned, the n-p-n transistor

will have a better frequency

Er
Ei =

J-88-14

cos i +
cos i

r2
sin2i
r1
r2
+ sin2i
r1

response.
Reason (R)

: The

electron

mobility is higher than that of

the hole mobility.
9

Paper-II

41.

44.

Assertion (A) : If a semiconductor

is placed in a transverse
magnetic field B and an electric
field E is applied across its
other two faces, then it would
produce an electric current I
in the direction perpendicular
to both B and E.
Reason (R)

It means the contents of

memory address 08 H are
moved to be contents of A.
Reason (R)

: Hall coefficient is
45.

conductor.

Assertion (A) : A
monostable
multivibrator can be used to
alter the pulse width of a
repetitive pulse train.
Reason (R) : Monostable
multivibrator has a
stable state.

43.

: The

Read the passage and answer the questions

46 to 50 that follows based on your
understanding of passage :

single

An antenna is generally a metallic object,

often a wire or collection of wires, used to
convert high frequency current into
electromagnetic waves and vice-versa.
Antenna serve either or both of the
following two functions, generation or the
collection of electromagnetic energy. In a
transmitting system, a radio-frequency
signal is developed, amplified, modulated
and applied to the antenna. The R-F
currents flowing through the antenna
produce electromagnetic waves which
radiate into the atmosphere. In a receiving
system, electromagnetic waves cutting
through the antenna induce alternating
currents for use by the receiver.

assumption

made for the above statement is

that there are no independent
sources and non-zero initial
conditions within the linear
port network.
Paper-II

Assertion (A) : To avoid repetition

of code and bulky programs
functionally related statements
are isolated into a function.
Reason (R) : Function definition
defines the body of the function.

Assertion (A) : In a two port

network, with 4 terminals four
types of parameters like
impedance, admittance, hybrid
and
transmission
are
considered and they are related
to each other.
Reason (R)

: MV 1 A, 82 H

It means that the contents of

memory address 82 H are
moved to be contents of A
immediately.

proportional to the mobility of

the charge carriers in the semi

42.

Assertion (A) : MOV A, 08 H

10

J-88-14

46.

Efficient operation also requires that the

receiving antenna be of the same
polarization as the transmitting antenna.
Polarization is the direction of the electric
field and is therefore, the same as the
antennas physical configuration. Thus
vertical antenna will transmit vertical
polarized light, any antenna having a
physical length that is one-half wavelength
of the applied frequency is called a Hertz
antenna. Hertz antenna are predominantly
used with frequencies above 2 MHz.
Usually, at frequencies below 2 MHz, a
Marconi type of antenna is used. The
Marconi antenna is usually a quarter-wave
grounded antenna or any odd multiple of a
quarter wavelength.

(D) good front-to-back ratio

The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of a drivers

element and two or more parasitic
elements. Yagi-Uda has two parasitic
elements, a reflector and a director. This
Yagi-Uda antenna provides about 7 dB of
power gain with respect to a halfwavelength dipole reference. More
complex antennas may be circularly
polarized both vertically and horizontally
polarized waves are radiated with equal
power in both. If the powers are unequal
the antenna is said to be elliptically
polarized.

47.

The discone antenna is

(A) a useful direction finding
antenna
(B) used as a radar receiving
antenna
(C) circularly polarized like other
circular antennas
(D) useful as a UHF receiving
antenna

48.

Which of the following antennas is

best exerted from a waveguide ?
(A) Biconical
(B) Folded dipole
(C) Horn
(D) Discone

49.

A horn is an ideal antenna for terminating a

waveguide and may be conical, rectangular
or sectorial. Wide band antennas either
when the transmissions are wide band or
when working of narrow channels over a
wide frequency range is the major
application. Helical antenna, which
consists of a loosely wound helix backed
up by a metal ground plane. Loop antennas
are often used for direction finding. Loops
have many shapes and generally consists of
a single turn of wire. Discone is a ground
plane antenna evolved from the vertical
dipole and having a very similar radiation
pattern.
J-88-14

A helical antenna is used for satellite

tracking because of its
(A) circular polarization
(B) elliptical polarization
(C) broad band width

Which is a non-resonant antenna ?

(A) Marconi
(B) Rhombic
(C) Yagi-Uda
(D) Discone

50.

An antenna is polarized in the plane

of the field perpendicular to
(A) Electric field
(B) Magnetic field
(C)

Both Electric and Magnetic

field
(D) Field parallel to both electric
and magnetic field
11

Paper-II

Space For Rough Work

Paper-II

12

J-88-14

PAPER-III
ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator
1. (Signature) __________________________

OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................

(To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name) ____________________________
Roll No.

2. (Signature) __________________________

(In figures as per admission card)

(Name) ____________________________

88

Roll No.________________________________
(In words)

1 4

Time : 2 1/2 hours]

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12
Instructions for the Candidates

[Maximum Marks : 150

Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of

this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested
to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open
booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
the correct response against each item.
Example :
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any
place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means such as change of response by scratching or using
white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and Original
OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the
Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original
question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.

J-88-14

1.
2. -
3. , -
-
, :
(i) -
-

(ii) -

/


-

-

(iii) OMR -

4. (A), (B), (C) (D)


:
(C)
5. OMR
OMR
,

6.
7. (Rough Work)
8. OMR ,
,
, ,
,


9. - OMR


- OMR

10. /
11. ()

12.

P.T.O.

ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Paper III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each.
All questions are compulsory.
7.
An LVDT has the following data :
1.
A triangular pulse is given at the
input
= 6.3 V, Output = 5.2 V,
input of an integrator circuit, the
range
= 0.5 cm. The value of
output will be of the form
output voltage, when it is at 0.45 cm
(A) Square wave
from the centre is given by
(B) Triangular wave
(A) 4.68 V
(B) 0.468 V
(C) 4.68 mV
(D) 46.8 mV
(C) Parabolic

(D) Impulse
8.
The Boolean expression AB + ABC
2.

3.

IC LM 380 is a
(A) Voltage regulator
(B) Rectifier
(C) Power audio amplifier
(D) Schmitt trigger

4.

The directivity of an antenna is

30 and it operates at a frequency of
100 MHz. The value of maximum
effective aperture is given by
(A) 2.148 m2
(B) 21.48 m2
(C) 214.8 m2
(D) 0.2148 m2

5.

6.

+ (A + B + C) simplifies to

(A) AB + BC
(B) AB + BC

(C) AB + BC
(D) AB + BC

In an RC phase shift oscillator the

frequency of oscillation is given by
0.65
0.065
(A) RC
(B)
RC
6.5
1
(C) RC
(D)
2 RC

9.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
10.

A coaxial cable has characteristic

impedance of Z0 = 75 and a
capacitance of 70 PF/m. The
inductance of the coaxial per metre
length is given by
(A) 3.937 H/m (B) 39.37 H/m
(C) 0.3937 H/m (D) 393.7 H/m

11.

The value of radiation resistance of a

Hertizian dipole of length 80 is given by

(A) 0.493
(B) 0.219
(C) 12.3
(D) 0.123

Paper-III

In the circuit shown below, the

output Y1 and Y2 for the given initial
condition Y1 = Y2 = 1 and after four
input pulses will be

Y1 = 1, Y2 = 1
Y1 = 1, Y2 = 0
Y1 = 0, Y2 = 1
Y1 = 0, Y2 = 0

Number of flip-flops needed to

construct a shift register capable of
storing decimal numbers upto 32 are
(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 3
A carrier is frequency modulated with a
sinusoidal signal of KHz resulting in a
maximum frequency deviation of
5 KHz. Modulation index and
bandwidth of the modulating signal is
respectively is given as
(A) mf = 1, BW = 10 KHz
(B) mf = 2, BW = 12 KHz
(C) mf = 2.5, BW = 14 KHz
(D) mf = 1.7, BW = 14 KHz
J-88-14

12.

Frequency in UHF range propagated

by means of
(A) Ground wave
(B) Space wave
(C) Sky wave
(D) Surface wave

13.

According to Hartleys law

(A) The
maximum
rate
of
information depends on the
channel bandwidth
(B) The
maximum
rate
of
information depends on the
depth of modulation
(C) Redundancy is essential
(D) Only binary codes can be used

14.

15.

The error detector element in a

control system gives
(A) The sum of the reference signal
and the feedback signal
(B) The sum of the reference signal
and the error signal
(C) The difference of the reference
signal and the feedback signal
(D) The difference of the reference
signal and the output signal

16.

The most important application of

tunnel diode is
(A) as rectifier
(B) as switching device in digital
circuits
(C) as voltage controlled device
(D) as oscillator

17.

The value of Numerical Aperture in

case of optical fiber is
(A) > 1
(B) < 1
(C) = 1
(D) = 0

18.

The threshold voltage of an n-channel

MOSFET can be increased by
(A) increasing the channel doping
concentration
(B) reducing the channel doping
concentration
(C) reducing the gate oxide
thickness
(D) reducing the channel length

19.

Which semi conductor device acts

like a diode and two resistors ?
(A) Triac
(B) SCR
(C) Diac
(D) UJT

20.

After firing an SCR, if the gate pulse

is removed, the SCR current
(A) remains the same
(B) reduces to zero
(C) enter into conduction mode
(D) rises a little and then falls to zero

21.

The core of an optical fiber has

(A) a lower index of refraction than
the cladding
(B) a lower index of refraction than
air
(C) a higher index of refraction
than the cladding
(D) refractive index equal to air

22.

The core diameter of single mode

fiber is in the order of
(A) 100 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 1
(D) 1 nm

From the location of the roots of

S-plane, determine the stability of the
system :

(A) (i) stable, (ii) unstable,

(iii) sustained oscillation
(B) (i) stable, (ii) sustained
oscillation (iii) unstable
(C) (i)
unstable,
(ii)
stable
(iii) sustained oscillation
(D) (i)
sustained
oscillation,
(ii) unstable (iii) stable
J-88-14

Paper-III

23.

Laplace transform of eat sin wt is

w
w
(A)
(B)
2
2
(s + a) + w
(s a)2 + w2
w
w
(C)
(D)
2
2
(s a) w
(s + a)2 w2

24.

Fourier transform or Fourier integral

of a function f(t) is given by

27.

To read a integer variable, find the

correct format given below :
Int m;
(A) scanf (\n %d, m);
(B) scanf (\n %s, m);
(C) scanf (\n %c, m);
(D) scanf (\n %d, & m);

28.

D7 D6 D5 D4 D3 D2 D1 D0
In 8255 programmable peripheral
interface device, if the port A and
port B are to be set in a hand shake
mode along with port C, what are the
bits in the 8 bit control word to be set
as 0 1 0.
(A) D6, D5 and D2
(B) D5, D4 and D1
(C) D6, D3 and D2
(D) D5, D2 and D1

29.

The number system for the machine

code of the microprocessor 8085 is
(A) BCD
(B) Octal
(C) Binary
(D) Hexadecimal

30.

Which of the options in a

multipurpose instruction used to
implement the interrupt of 8085 and
serial data input ?
(A) SOD
(B) SIM
(C) EJ
(D) RST 7.5

31.

A thermistor is used to measure the

temperature. Following characteristics
are given
1.
They
exhibit
positive
temperature coefficient and
poor sensitivity.
2.
They
exhibit
negative
temperature coefficient for
resistance.
3.
Their resistance decreases with
the increase in temperature.
4.
They are made of oxides of
semi conductors.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 & 4 only
(B) 1 & 3 only
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
J-88-14

.
(A) .f(t) est dt

(B)

.
.f(t) ejwt dt

(C)

.
.f(t) e+jwt dt

(D)

.
.f(t) ejwt dt

25.

26.

Find the output of the program

# include <iostream.h>
set_val (int, int);
void main( )
{ int a = 20, b = 10;
set_val (a++, b++);
printf (\n %d %d, a, b);
}
set_val (int x, int y)
{
x = x + y;
y = y x;
x = x y;
}
(A) 10 and 20
(B) 11 and 21
(C) 20 and 40
(D) 21 and 41
The function isalnum( ) returns a
non-zero value if the character is
alphanumeric and zero otherwise.
What is header file to be used in the
main program ?
(A) stdio.h
(B) io.h
(C) ctype.h
(D) string.h

Paper-III

32.

33.

34.

In an FET, following characteristics

are given :
1.
JFET is called as variable
current resistor.
2.
JFET is called Voltage variable
resistor.

VGS

3.
gd = gd0 1
V , where,
P

gd0 is value of drain to source

conductance for zero bias.

VGS2
4.
gd = gd0 1 +

VP
Which one of the following is true ?
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
For a steady magnetic fields, which
of the following is true :
1.
The tangential component of
magnetic field is continuous
across any boundary except the
surface of perfect conductor.
2.
The tangential component of
magnetic flux density is
continuous across any boundary.
3.
The normal component of
magnetic flux density is
continuous across any boundary.
4.
The normal component of
electric field is continuous across
the boundary.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Given below are three types of converters :
(i) Successive approximation type
(ii) Weighted-resistor type
(iii) R-2R converters
(iv) Multiplexer
Which of these types are D to A
converters ?
(A) Only (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (iii) and (iv)

J-88-14

35.

Consider the following :

(i) Pulse position modulation
(ii) Pulse Code modulation
(iii) Pulse Width modulation
(iv) Delta Modulation
The output of which of these in not digital ?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

36.

Consider the following statements :

A multiplexer :
1.
selects one of the several inputs
and transmits it to a single
output.
2.
routes the data from a single
input to one of many outputs.
3.
converts parallel data into
serial data.
4.
is a combinational circuit.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

37.

Consider the following statements :

Losses in optical fibers are caused by
1.
Impurities in the fibre material
2.
Microbending
3.
Splicing
4.
Step index profile
Of these statements :
(A) 1, 3 & 4 are correct.
(B) 2, 3 & 4 are correct.
(C) 1, 2 & 3 are correct.
(D) 1, 2 & 4 are correct.

38.

Consider the following statements :

If an electric field is applied to an ntype semiconductor bar, the electrons
and holes more in opposite directions
due to their opposite charges. The net
current is
1.
due to both electrons and holes
with electrons as majority
carriers.
2.
the sum of electron and hole
currents.
3.
the difference between electron
and hole current.
Which of these statements is/are
correct ?
(A) 1 alone
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 alone
Paper-III

39.

The state space approach is best

suited technique for a complex
system. It comprises of
(i) Many inputs
(ii) Many outputs
(iii) With no initial conditions
(iv) Reduces the complexity of
mathematical expressions
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

40.

Both 8155 and 8255 programmable

peripheral interface ICS have the
following common features :
(i) Programmable I/Os
(ii) Either port A or Port B can be
set as either input or output
ports.
(iii) One 14-bit down counter
(iv) AD0 AD7 are multiplexed
address/datalines.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

41.

42.

Consider the following ICs :

1.
LM 78 05
2.
LM 78 15
3.
LM 78 12
The correct sequence of the output
noise voltage (at 25 C and for an
operating frequency range of 10 Hz
f 100 KHz) in decreasing order is
given by
(A) 2, 1, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 3, 1, 2

The correct sequence of components

in any transmission system is
(i) Modulation
(ii) Base band Multiplexing
(iii) Up converter
(iv) IF amplifier
Codes :
(A) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

44.

The step, ramp and parabolic

input signals can respectively
expressed as
A
A
(A) R(S) = S ; R(S) = 2
S
2A
R(S) = 3
S
A
(B) R(S) = A; R(S) =
S
A
R(S) = 2
S
(C)
(D)

45.

Consider the following bands/waves :

1.
L band
2.
C band
3.
Ku band
4.
Ka band
Arrange
them
in
increasing
frequency order, the correct sequence
of the ascending order in terms of
frequency is
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1

Paper-III

43.

test
be
and

and

R(S) = AS; R(S) = AS2 and

R(S) = 2AS3
2A
R(S) = A; R(S) = S and
A
R(S) = 3
S

Arrange in ascending order based on

power dissipation the following logic
families :
(i) ECL
(ii) TTL
(iii) CMOS
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii)
(D) (iii), (i), (ii)
J-88-14

46.

47.

48.

Consider the following rectifier

circuits :
1.
Half-wave rectifier without
filter
2.
Full-wave rectifier without
filter
3.
Full-wave rectifier with series
inductance filter
4.
Full-wave
rectifier
with
capacitance filter
The sequence of these rectifier
circuits in decreasing order of the
ripple factor is
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
The correct sequence of sub-systems
of Klystron amplifiers as they appear
in the direction of flow of electron
beam is
(A) Buncher
cavity,
Cathode,
Collector, Catcher cavity
(B) Buncher
cavity,
Cathode,
Catcher cavity, Collector
(C) Cathode,
Buncher
cavity,
Catcher cavity, collector
(D) Cathode,
Buncher
cavity,
collector, Catcher cavity
In a closed loop automatic control
system, the sequence of operations is
as follows :
(i) Controlling unit
(ii) Correcting unit
(iii) Impact on the process
(iv) Measurement
of
process
parameters
(A) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)

J-88-14

49.

Find the correct list, which is the

reverse (at all levels) of the given list :
[[4, 7, 8], 2, 9, [19, 6], 20, 3]
(i) 3, 20
(ii) 9, 2
(iii) [6, 19]
(iv) [8, 7, 4]
(A) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (i)
(B) (i), (iv), (iii) & (ii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

50.

Each instruction in an assembly

program has the following fields :
(i) Lable field
(ii) Operand field
(iii) Comment field
(iv) Mnemonic field
Please write the proper sequence of
fields :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(B) (i), (iv), (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii), (i), (iv) & (ii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii) & (i)

51.

Match the following lists :

List I
List II
a. Voltage series i. Trans
feedback
resistance
amplifier
b. Current series ii. Current
feedback
shunt
feed
back
c. Current
iii. Transamplifier
conductance
d. Voltage shunt iv. Voltage
feedback
amplifier
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) iv
i
iii
ii
(B) iv
ii
i
iii
(C) iv
iii
ii
i
(D) iii
ii
i
iv
Paper-III

52.

53.

54.

55.

Match the following lists :

List I
List II
a. Ferrite devices i. < 1
b. Dominant
ii. > 1
mode
c. Reflection
iii. Circulators
coefficient
d. VSWR
iv. Waveguide
The correct sequence is :
a
b
c
d
(A) iv
iii
ii
i
(B) i
ii
iii
iv
(C) ii
i
iii
iv
(D) iii
iv
i
ii

List I

List II

a. 7400

i. Quad-2 input AND

gate

b. 7402

ii. Quad-2 input OR

gate

c. 7408

iii. Quad-2
NAND gate

d. 7403

iv. Quad-2 input NOR

gate

input

Codes :

Match the following lists of various

thermocouples & sensitivity:
List I
List II
a. Copper
i. 3-20 v/C
constantan
b. Chromel/
ii. 5-12 v/C
Alumel
c. Tungsten
/ iii. 15-60 v/C
Tungsten 26%
Rhenium
d. Platinum
/ iv. 40-55 v/C
Platinum 10%
Rhodium
The correct match is :
a
b
c
d
(A) ii
i
iii
iv
(B) iii
iv
i
ii
(C) iv
i
iii
ii
(D) i
ii
iii
iv

ii

iv

iii

(B) iii

iv

ii

(C) iv

iii

ii

(D)

ii

iii

iv

(A)

56.

Match the following :

List I

List II

a. LASER

i. Emits
monochromatic
light
of
low
intensity

b. Solar cell ii. Consumes

electrical
power
due to the incident
light

Match the following lists :

List I
List II
a. PCM
i. Slope overload
distortion
b. DM
ii. Constant carrier
frequency
c. AM
iii. Encoding
d. TDM
iv. Commutator
The correct match is :
a
b
c
d
(A) i
ii
iii
iv
(B) iii
ii
iv
i
(C) ii
iv
i
iii
(D) iii
i
ii
iv

Paper-III

Match the following :

c. Photo
diode

iii. Delivers power to

load

d. LED

iv. Emits
monochromatic
light
of
high
intensity

Codes :
a

ii

iii

iv

(B) ii

iii

iv

(C) iv

iii

ii

(D)

iii

ii

iv

(A)

J-88-14

57.

58.

59.

Match the following :

List I
List II
(Biasing of
(Functions)
BJT)
a. E-B junction i. Very low gain
forward bias
amplifier
and
C-B
junction
reverse bias
b. Both E-B and ii. Saturation
C-B junctions
condition
forward bias
c. E-B junction iii. High
gain
reverse bias
amplifier
and
C-B
junction
forward bias
d. Both E-B and iv. Cut-off
C-B junctions
condition
reverse bias
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) ii
iii
i
iv
(B) iii
ii
i
iv
(C) iii
ii
iv
i
(D) ii
iii
iv
i

a. Stable

i. 4

b. Unstable

ii. 2

c. Stable in limited iii. 1

sense
or
marginally
stable
d. Asymptotic
iv. 3
Codes :
a
(A) ii
(B) ii
(C) iii
(D) iii
60.

The mnemonic of 8085 processor

indicate :
List I
List II
a. RLC
i. Rotate Accumulator
Right through carry
b. RRC
ii. Rotate Accumulator
Left through carry
c. RAR
iii. Rotate Accumulator
Left
d. RAL
iv. Rotate Accumulator
Right
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) iii
iv
i
ii
(B) ii
i
iv
iii
(C) iii
iv
ii
i
(D) ii
i
iii
iv

J-88-14

The stability of the system for

different locations of poles and
zeroes :

b
i
iii
ii
i

c
iv
i
i
ii

d
iii
iv
iv
iv

Match the following :

List I
List II
(Pin
(Applications)
terminals)
a. SID, SOD i. Wait state
b. READY
ii. Serial
data
transfer
c. TRAP
iii. Address
Latch
Control
d. ALE
iv. Interrupt
Codes :
a
b
c
d
(A) ii
i
iv
iii
(B) iv
i
ii
iii
(C) iv
iii
ii
i
(D) ii
iv
i
iii
Paper-III

Directions : Q. Nos 61 to 70 : The

following items consist of two statements,
one labelled the Assertion (A) and the
other labelled the Reason (R). You are to
examine these two statements carefully and
decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason
(R) are individually true and if so, whether
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Select your answers to these
items using the codes given below and
mark your answer accordingly.

64.

Assertion (A) : In
amplitude
modulation
technique
the
modulation index should be
close to 1.
Reason (R) : The power carried
by message signal in the side
bands increases with increase
in modulation index.

65.

Assertion (A) : In logic circuit,

positive logic is represented by
logic 0 voltage level is lower
than logic 1 voltage level.
Reason (R) : Excess 3 code is
known as self complementary
code.

66.

Assertion (A) : A self-biased circuit

has a better stability than a
fixed bias circuit.
Reason (R) : It provides negative
feed back by the use of an
additional resistor between the
base and ground.

67.

Assertion (A) : Optical fibers have

broader bandwidth compared to
conventional copper cables.
Reason (R) : Low power LASER
beams are considered to be
very powerful as compared to
high power ordinary light
beams.

68.

Assertion (A) : A demultiplexer can

be used as a decoder.
Reason (R) : A demultiplexer is
built by using AND gates only.

69.

Assertion (A) : In serial communication

system, when the transmission of
data goes in both ways, it is called
full-duplex system. Now if two
micro processors are connected in
full duplex mode, the amount of
data transmitted will be double to
the amount of data in half-duplex
mode connection.
Reason (R) : When
the
transmission of data goes in
one way, it is called halfduplex system and when the
data moves in both ways, it is
called full duplex system.

Assertion (A) :
Reason (R) :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
61.

Assertion (A) : TWTA is a narrow

band device and has a helical
structure and it is used as
amplifier and oscillator.
Reason (R) : In
TWT,
the
electron beam travels through a
slow-wave structure and speed
1
of electron beam is
of the
10
velocity of light.

62.

Assertion (A) : An Op-Amp is a

direct coupled high gain
amplifier.
Reason (R) : It consists of one or
more differential amplifiers and
usually followed by a level
translator and push pull stage.

63.

Assertion (A) : To have a high

sensitivity, a low value of
gauge factor is desirable.
Reason (R) : Semi-conductor
strain gauges are made up of Si
and Ge and show piezoresistive effect.

Paper-III

10

J-88-14

70.

Assertion (A) : In control systems,

steady state response in the
final
requirement
for
calculating the efficiency of the
system.
Reason (R) : The
transient
response is also critical for the
determination of the steady
state response.

71.

One of the reasons why vacuum

tubes eventually fail at microwave
frequencies in that their
(A) transit time becomes too short
(B) shunt capacitive reactance
becomes too large
(C) series
inductive reactance
becomes too small
(D) noise figure increases

72.

The Multicavity Klystron

(A) is not low-level amplifier
because of noise
(B) has a high repeller voltage to
ensure a rapid transit time.
(C) is not suitable for pulsed
operation
(D) needs a long transit time
through the buncher cavity to
ensure current modulation

73.

The primary of the helix in a

travelling wave tube is to
(A) prevent the electron beam from
spreading in the long tube
(B) reduce the axial velocity of the
RF field
(C) ensure broadband operation
(D) reduce the noise figure

74.

One of the following is unlikely to be

used as a pulsed device. It is the
(A) TWT
(B) CFA
(C) BWO
(D) Multicavity Klystron

75.

Indicate the false statement. Klystron

amplifiers may use intermediate
cavities to
(A) prevent the oscillations that
occur in two cavity Klystrons
(B) increase the bandwidth of the
device
(C) improve the power gain
(D) increase the efficiency of the
Klystron

Read the paragraph and answer the

question 71 to 75 :
Microwave tubes are used as microwave
amplifiers and oscillators. Three general
type of microwave tubes in which third
type tubes are important because in these
tubes there is an interaction between an
electron and an RF field is continuous. The
Travelling Wave Tube (TWT) is the prime
example of this interaction. It is an
amplifier, whose oscillator counter part is
called Backward Wave Oscillator (BWO).
The second sub-group consists of tubes in
which a magnetic field ensures a constant
electron beam RF field interaction, and
this is complemented by the Cross-Field
Amplifier (CFA). Multicavity Klystron is
used as high and very high power
amplifiers in the UHF and microwave
ranges. The frequency range covered is
from about 250 MHz to over 95 GHz. The
reflex-Klystron is a low power microwave
oscillator. It is assumed that oscillations are
started by switching transients. For
oscillations to be maintained the transient
time in the repeller space cycle is given as
3

T = n + 4 where n is an integer, each

value of n is said to correspond to different

reflex klystron mode. Reflex Klystrons
with integral cavities are available in the
frequency range 4 to 200 GHz.
J-88-14

11

Paper-III

Space For Rough Work

Paper-III

12

J-88-14