TOPICS FOR NLE JUNE-JULY 2012

Prepared by: Brian Yu

400+ FEEDBACKS
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING/
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
1.

Purpose of small volume enema

ANSWER: Used to clean the sigmoid and rectum

2.

How enema function

ANSWER: Causes distention of the bowel and stimulates
the defecation reflex

3.

During enema administration, direct rectal tip of enema

solution container to
ANSWER: Causes distention of the bowel and stimulates
the defecation reflex

4.

Once the client is in position the nurse visualizes the anus

and is ready to insert the rectal tip. She is doing the
procedure correctly when she directs the rectal tip to the:
ANSWER: umbilicus

5.

Principle behind obtaining informed consent before invasive

procedure
ANSWER: Autonomy

6.

Autonomy
ANSWER: respect for an individuals right to selfdetermination and freedom to choose and implement ones
own decision

be sure that all patients have consented to all

treatments and procedure

explain procedures to patients properly

7.

8.

9.

A staff nurse reports to the supervisor that a newly hired

nurse is falsifying data in the vital signs sheet for the
clients assigned to her. What action should the supervisor
do FIRST?
ANSWER: Take the clients vital signs and compare with
the data recorded by the new nurse
ANSWER: C
Priority management in patient with restraint
ANSWER: Release every 2 to 4 hours, Assess every 30
minutes or as needed
The parents understand safety precautions on children
when they state that they:
ANSWER: Will keep plastic bags and wraps are away from
reach of children
ANSWER: C

ANSWER: Decrease in temperature

17. A client with congestive heart failure is taking
hydrochlorothiazide once a day. While the client is taking
the medication, the nurse should encourage the client to eat
which of the following fruits:
ANSWER: banana
18. The nurse is administering a bronchodilator to a client with
severe upper respiratory tract infection. The client is
manifesting the desired effect of the bronchodilator when
the nurse assesses which of the following:
ANSWER: Effortless respiration
19. When the nurse conducts physical assessment of the
abdomen, auscultation should precede palpation to:
ANSWER: Prevent altering the frequency and character of
bowel sounds
20. Dimming lights of the room as request by the client, level of
Maslows hierarchy of needs met
ANSWER: Safety and Security
21. Inadequate nutrition
ANSWER: Emaciated and weak appearance
22. Desired effect of the bronchodilator in patient with severe
upper respiratory tract infection
ANSWER: effortless respiration
23. In abdominal assessment, auscultation should precede
palpation to:
ANSWER: Prevent altering the frequency and character of
bowel sounds
24. During palpation
ANSWER: use fingertips
25. After giving analgesic, what is the priority
ANSWER: reassess pain level after 30 minutes to 1 hour of
giving the drug
26. McCafferys guideline in pain management
ANSWER: "whatever the experiencing person says it is,
existing whenever and wherever the person say it does"
has become the prevailing conceptualization of pain for
clinicians over the past few decades
27. To maintain efficacy of nitroglycerine, store drug where
ANSWER: Keep sublingual tablets in amber glass bottle
28. Appropriate instruction to patient with Patient-Controlled
Analgesia
ANSWER: Push the button when you feel the pain is
starting.

10. Accidental poisoning is an important concern because

poisons cause serious injuries to children and the elderly.
As you conduct your safety awareness class for parents,
you find that you need to give more detailed instructions
when a parent says I will:
ANSWER: induce vomiting if my child swallows kerosene.

29. Possible sign of ruptured appendix

ANSWER: Pain subsides

11. Which of the following are required measures observed by

health care workers when in contact with blood and body
fluids?
ANSWER: Hand hygiene and gloves

31. Short discrete bubbling sounds over the lower region of

lungs
ANSWER: crackles

12. When communicating with Theresa, the nurse assumes the

face to face position to:
ANSWER: Express availability and desire to communicate
13. Communication zone for communication between nurse
and patient
ANSWER: Personal distance
14. While communicating with Theresa you use attentive
listening. This requires that the nurse:
ANSWER: Pays attention to both the content and feeling
tone of the client
15. The client complains of pain in the left chest down to the left
shoulder and left jaw. In your documentation for your
nurses notes, you will record this as:
ANSWER: Radiating pain
16. The changes in Mrs. De Veras vital signs that you would
expect when she complains of pain are the following
EXCEPT:

30. An effective intervention to prevent perforation of the

inflamed appendix
ANSWER: Keep patient on N PO

32. Continuous, high-pitched, squeaky musical sounds

adventitious breath sound
ANSWER: wheezing
33. Acromegaly, manifestation
ANSWER: Enlarged extremities due to skeletal thickness
and macroglossia (large tongue)
34. Transphenoidal hypophysectomy, incision site
ANSWER: under the upper lip
35. What to wear BEFORE scrubbing of hands in OR
ANSWER: head cap, mask, goggles
36. Skin preparation in OR, what and how to wear
ANSWER: sterile gloves open glove technique
37. Most painful site of the wrist during venipuncture
ANSWER: inner aspect of the WRIST
38. Cause of hypospadias

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

ANSWER: congenital (occurs during 3rd month of fetal

development)
39. Surgical operation needed to be postponed for a child with
hypospadias
ANSWER: Circumcision
40. Radioactive iodine uptake determines what
ANSWER: Absorption of the iodine isotope
41. Diet for hypothyroidism
ANSWER: low calorie, high fiber

66. Rat bite, what to do first

ANSWER: Cleanse wound thoroughly
67. Critical nursing intervention for a patient with status
epilepticus
ANSWER: protecting airway
68. Effect of Diazepam in seizure
ANSWER: Relaxes peripheral muscles
69. Patient with head trauma, seizure happens when
ANSWER: Within the first few weeks postrauma

42. Post-thyroidectomy, assessment for possible laryngeal

nerve damage
ANSWER: Talk with the client and note change in voice

70. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine), adverse effect

ANSWER: Agranulocytosis and jaundice

43. Serum calcium level of 5.0 mg/dl, what to do

ANSWER: Assess for signs of tetany

71. Ants are crawling all over my body. (Akathisia), problem in

ANSWER: sensorium or orientation

44. Confirmatory diagnosis for hiatal hernia

ANSWER: barium swallow

72. Patient with multiple sclerosis with fluctuating physical

condition and generalized weakness, management
ANSWER: Space activities throughout the day

45. To prevent increase in gastric acid secretion

ANSWER: avoid cigarette smoking
46. Confirmatory test for cholelithiasis
ANSWER: UTZ
47. Morphine is contraindicated for cholelithaisis because:
ANSWER: Causes spasm of the Sphincter of Oddi
48. Bilateral tubal ligation, ask for informed consent to whom
ANSWER: BOTH husband and wife
49. Role of nurse in informed consent
ANSWER: witness
50. Characteristic (typology) of RBC in iron deficiency anemia
ANSWER: Microcytic and hypochromic
51. Vitamin B12 deficiency, S/Sx
ANSWER: Slight jaundice, fatigue, paresthesia, glossitis
52. Surgeon came into the OR suite swinging her hands
ANSWER: Oblige the assistant surgeon to scrub again
53. How to apply dressing after stithing of incisional site
ANSWER: Put the dressings, remove his gloves to apply
the tape
54. Processes of absorption of nutrients by SMALL intestine
ANSWER: diffusion and active transport
55. Psoriasis
ANSWER: A chronic inflammatory skin disorder, not
contagious
56. Psoriasis skin lesions
ANSWER: Well demarcated regions of erythematous
plaques that shed thick silvery white flakes
57. Herpes Zoster (shingles), precipitating factor
ANSWER: decrease immune system
58. Shock, position
ANSWER: modified trendelenburg
59. 2 characteristics of circulating blood volume in septic shock
ANSWER: (1) Vasodilation and (2) Maldistribution of
circulating blood volume
60. Water in the water seal bottle to fluctuate
ANSWER: patent chest tube
61. Chest tube is dislodged
ANSWER: Cover insertion site with petroleum gauze
62. sudden increase drainage in chest tube
ANSWER: Assess for signs of hemorrhage
63. Corticosteroids use, nursing diagnosis
ANSWER: Ineffective protection (risk for infection)
64. Hypoglycemia, manifestations
ANSWER: Cool, moist skin, Slurred speech, Tremors
65. Hyperresonance, determined by
ANSWER: percussion

73. Exacerbation of multiple sclerosis

ANSWER: diplopia and nystagmus
74. Patient Marina verbalized to the nurse that she is like her
mother
ANSWER: transference
75. Neurotransmitters that are decrease in depression
ANSWER: serotonin and norepinephrine
76. Therapeutic effect of Sertraline (Zoloft)
ANSWER: increases Serotonin
77. Crisis
ANSWER: Can no longer cope with usual problem-solving
skills
78. Crisis, characteristic
ANSWER: Opportunity of learning better ways of coping,
Presence of a threatening event, Failure of usual problemsolving mechanisms
79. Polyneuropathy, deficiency in vitamin
ANSWER: B
80. Prompt treatment of alcoholism, assess for
ANSWER: At most eight hours from the time the patient last
drank alcohol
81. I dont need help. Leave me alone. I am just fine.
ANSWER: denial
82. A immediate goal of crisis intervention
ANSWER: Resolve the problem
83. Duration of crisis
ANSWER: 4 to 6 weeks
84. Research: double blind approach
ANSWER: Neither the subject of those who administer the
treatment know how is in the experimental and control
group
85. Right to self-determination is reflected in
ANSWER: Informed consent obtained
86. Blind patent, nursing diagnosis
ANSWER: Risk for injury
87. Dementia, nursing diagnosis
ANSWER: Risk for injury
88. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate), effect
ANSWER: Excrete potassium through the intestinal tract
89. Before paracentesis
ANSWER: Have patient void
90. Increase of 1 kg in body weight is equivalent to
ANSWER: 1 LITER of fluid retention
91. Goal of HIV management
ANSWER: Improve the patients immune function
92. Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, cause

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

ANSWER: unknown
93. Plasmapharesis
ANSWER: Remove antibody-antigen complexes from
circulation
94. Palliative Care
ANSWER: Provides relief from pain and other distressing
symptoms
95. Demonstrate respect of clients autonomy
ANSWER: Facilitating and supporting clients choices
regarding treatment options
96. failed to attend to clients needs
AMSWER: negligence
97. leave me alone, I need rest, the nurse responds by
saying:
ANSWER: You sound upset.
98. A client suddenly shouts Why is this taking so long? I have
been waiting for several hours and nobody attends to us?
What should be the initial response of the nurse?
ANSWER: Talk to the client and determine her immediate
needs
99. Client says to the nurse, Im nervous. Is the doctor
competent in this kind of surgery? Are there clients with
similar surgery who survived the procedure? How should
the nurse best respond?
ANSWER: You seem concerned about the surgery.

needs of the client, the nurse should have the wheel chair
ready by placing it at:
ANSWER: 45-degree angle to the bed
112. You noticed that a clients temperature has widely
fluctuated above the normal temperature. You will record
this type of fever in the clients chart as:
ANSWER: Remittent
113. temperature readings indicate that he has been having
fever but his body temperature would return to normal only
to recur the next day
ANSWER: Relapsing
114. While conducting rounds, the nurse notices a fire in a
clients room. Which of the following should be the
appropriate action of the nurse?
ANSWER: Evacuate the client from the room
115. To confirm pregnancy, the doctor will most likely:
ANSWER: Order an ultrasound examination
116. Madelaine complains that her early morning nausea and
vomiting really bothers her and prevents her from
completing her work. To decrease the discomfort and keep
her nourished, you advise her to:
ANSWER: Eat dry crackers or toast before getting up in the
morning
117. Last menstrual period (LMP) was March 15, 2010. Using
Nagels rule, her expected date of delivery (EDD) is:
ANSWER: December 22, 2010

100. An order to discontinue catheterization of the client was

implemented. She has complaints of difficulty in her first
attempt to urinate. The nurse explains that this is due to:
ANSWER: Attempt of the body to adjust to normal reflex
mechanism.

118. A pregnant she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes.

She asks, what are my chances of becoming a real
diabetic later in life? The best reply by the nurse would be:
ANSWER: Women diagnosed with gestational diabetes
have an increased risk of developing diabetes later in life.

101. removal of the inner cannula when he/she:

ANSWER: Unlocks inner cannula by turning counterclockwise and gently withdrawing in line with its curvature

119. A 17 weeks gestation a type 1 diabetic undergoes an

ultrasound examination. What information about the fetus at
this time in pregnancy will the results of this examination
provide?
ANSWER: Placental Maturity

102. clear liquid diet for a post-surgery client

ANSWER: Tea, cola drinks, gelatin
103. assists the client to identify and cope with stressful
emotional problems
ANSWER: Counselor
104. hospital director gives the nurse a position of authority
within a formal organization, she assumes the role of:
ANSWER: Manager
105. The nurse who uses his interpersonal skills to guide the
client in making decisions about his health care is acting the
role of:
ANSWER: Leader
106. Part of your teaching plan that helps address nutrition
problems in the community include all
ANSWER:
Aiming for ideal body weight in all age brackets
Building health nutrition related practices
Choosing food wisely focusing on food pyramid guide
107. The nurse observes that childhood obesity is more common
now. The frequent cause of this is the Filipino parents
belief that:
ANSWER: A fat child is healthy, a thin child is sickly
108. plan to do first for a client who is experiencing depression?
ANSWER: Assist the patient to express feelings, beliefs,
and values
109. While the nurse is assisting the client in her care, the client
starts to cry and strikes her. The behavior that the client is
manifesting best describes which of the following stages of
death and dying?
ANSWER: Anger
110. A client with injured left leg is sitting on the bed preparing to
transfer to a wheel chair. The nurse is assisting the client
and positions the wheelchair on the:
ANSWER: Clients right side
111. A client has difficulty walking and needs a wheel chair to
facilitate performance of daily activities. Anticipating the

120. a toddler loves to play at the park, and the nurse

encourages the mother to continue physical activities for
what reason
ANSWER: allowing the toddler to walk, run and hop
enhances the childs kinaesthesia
121. how to prevent early-childhood dental cavities
ANSWER: Make sure your childs diet is nutritious, and
limit snacks high in sugar.
122. In caring for a 3-year-old Nurse Sarah knows that she
needs to obtain the height of the child as part of routine
health screening. To obtain an accurate measurement, the
child must:
ANSWER: Remove his shoes and stand upright, with head
level
123. The 12 month old child with birth weight 8 lbs. Upon
assessment the child now weighs 18 lbs. in documenting
this result, the nurse knows that this weight is:
ANSWER: Below the expected weight
124. radiation safety
ANSWER: Shielding, distance, time
125. LEAST protection from radiation
ANSWER: Rubber gloves
126. On auscultation, Mitral Stenosis?
ANSWER: Low pitched, rumbling murmur occurring during
diastole
127. On auscultation, Aortic Stenosis?
ANSWER: Cresendo-decresendo systolic murmur
128. On auscultation, Mitral regurgitation?
ANSWER: Blowing high pitched systolic murmur
129. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents effects will
be interfered by vitamin folic acid?
ANSWER: methotrexate
130. Chronic Hepatitis B can transmitted by
ANSWER: Contaminated needle

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

131. therapeutic range of lithium

ANSWER: 0.5 to 1.5 mEq/L
132. When the body responds to stress, epinephrine is released
producing which physiological response?
ANSWER: A more forceful heart beat
133. terminate SVT through stimulation of which of the following
cranial nerves?
ANSWER: Cranial nerve X
134. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome?
ANSWER: Hypersensitivity reaction
135. Which of the following symbols are used to document
arterial oxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximeter?
ANSWER: SpO2 (SaO2)
136. The ICU nurse orientee observed the following arterial
blood gases results in one of the patients record: ph-7.46;
paO2-97mmHg; paCO2-40mmHg and HCO3-30meq/L.
Which of the following is the interpretation of these results?
ANSWER: Metabolic alkalosis
137. Epinephrine
ANSWER: Bronchodilating effects
138. Based on the suspected diagnosis, the nurse would expect
that the gnawing epigastric pain will DECREASE with which
of the following activities of the client?
ANSWER: Eating a bland diet
139. The stool examination result of clients with peptic ulcer is
POSITIVE for:
ANSWER: blood
140. Intussusception, manifestation
ANSWER: Crampy and intermittent severe abdominal pain
141. intussusception
ANSWER: Telescoping of bowel into the adjacent segment
142. primary indication of the NGT in intussusception
ANSWER: decompresssion
143. Which of the following food enhance absorption of iron?
ANSWER: Citrus fruits
144. The client was prescribed ferrous Sulfate as iron
supplement. For better absorption, the nurse would instruct
the client to take this supplement.
ANSWER: 1 hour before
145. The scrub nurse aids the assistant surgeon apply the sterile
drape. The scrub nurse understands that once the drapes
are positioned over the prepped incision site, the drapes
must not be:
ANSWER: Moved
146. During the interview, nurse found out that the client takes
Prophythiouracil (Prophyl-Thracil) daily. Which of the
following is the specific action of this drug?
ANSWER: Blocks thyroid hormone production
147. Along with other treatments. Metformin HCL (Glucophage)
was prescribed. The nurse should monitor for which
potential serious side effect of the drug?
ANSWER: Lactic acidosis
148. Colchicine is prescribed during the acute attack phase.
Nurse Karmela is aware that the action of the drug is to:
ANSWER: Interfere with the inflammation response of uric
acid crystals in the joints.
149. Hydrochlorothiazide (Hytaz) 12.5mg 1 tablet orally once
daily has been prescribed for the client. The specific action
of this thiazide diuretic is to:
ANSWER: Promote excretion of sodium and chloride be
decreasing absorption in the distal tubule.
150. From the results of the laboratory test prescribed by the
physician, which of the following will the nurse consider as
an indication of impaired renal function? Elevated levels of:
ANSWER: Creatinine
151. Which of the following examination would the nurse expect
to be ordered?
ANSWER: Synovial fluid analysis

152. The client is 24-hour urine collection for uric acid

determination. To have a reliable result, the nurse
anticipates which diet prescribed prior to the examination?
ANSWER: Low-purine diet
153. Which activity indicates that a client is fully aware of his/her
impending surgery?
ANSWER: Voluntarily signs the consent for surgery
154. For client who cannot totally give up smoking, nurses
should instruct client to cease smoking at least how many
weeks before surgery?
ANSWER: 1
155. Health instructions like encourage the client to move after
surgery should also be understood and reinforced to the
significant others. The goal of the instruction includes the
following EXCEPT:
ANSWER: Comply with Institutional policy
156. The purpose of pre-anesthetic medication is one vital
information given by the nurse prior to any surgery. Clients
should be made to understand that this medication will:
ANSWER: Facilitate induction of anesthesia
157. Virgilio has been taking Atenolol (Tenormin) 50 mg orally
once daily. The nurse understands thatr the specific action
is to block:
ANSWER: Beta receptor stimulation of the heart
158. Stools of breastfed babies
ANSWER: Breastfed infants usually have soft stools the
bottle-fed infants.
159. The nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube on a toddler.
Which of the following restraints would be most appropriate
for the nurse to use with this child during the procedure?
ANSWER: elbow
160. When assessing a client with Menieres disease, the nurse
expects the client to experience:
ANSWER: ringing of the ears
161. The nurses focus of care on clients with hearing and
balance problems is:
ANSWER: safety and promotion of independence
162. The onset of crisis is triggered by a:
ANSWER: sudden precipitating event
163. A client is in a skeletal traction, the nurse understands that
this procedure involves pulling force:
ANSWER: Directly through pins inserted into the bone
164. High in purine
ANSWER: Organ meats, wine and mussels
165. Shooting in ER, first to do by the nurse
ANSWER: hide
166. Hypotension, compensatory mechanism of the body
ANSWER: Activation of Renin-Angiotensin
167. Scrub nurse, role played for patient under anesthesia
ANSWER: Client advocate (the nurse fights for the rights of
the patient)
168. Scrub nurse
ANSWER: Guardian of asepsis
169. Surgeon
ANSWER: Captain of the ship (makes major decision)
170. Circulating nurse, function
ANSWER: Validates informed consent
171. Circulating nurse, first thing to be done upon entrance of
patient in OR
ANSWER: Greet the patient and CHECK the IDENTITY
172. Surgery done without consent
ANSWER: Battery
173. Role of nurse in obtaining informed consent
ANSWER: Witness
174. Role of head nurse in OR
ANSWER: Scheduling of patients for surgery

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

175. Anterior Pituitary Gland, hormones

ANSWER:
Prolactin/ Lactotropic
TSH
Growth Hormone (Somatostatin)
GnRH: FSH and LH
MSH
ACTH

200. Cervical cancer, risk factors

ANSWER:
Multiple sex partners, early sexual experience, HPV

176. Posterior Pituitary Gland

ANSWER:
Oxytocin
ADH

202. Breast cancer, S/Sx

ANSWER:
Dimple or mass at RUQ o the breast (tail of Spence)

177. Hypophysectomy, post-op position

ANSWER: Fowlers

203. Stage III Breast Cancer

ANSWER: Surgery and Chemotherapy

178. Transphenoidal Hypophysectomy, watch out for bleeding

ANSWER: Nose

204. Korotkoff sounds

ANSWER:
1- loud tapping
2- whoosing sound
3- crisp tapping
4- muffled sound
5- silence

179. Potassium, acceptable rate

ANSWER:
10 to 15 mEq/ hr
Give with NSS
180. Maximum drug given subcutaneously
ANSWER:
1 ml pedia
2 ml adult
181. Maximum drug given intramuscularly
ANSWER: 3 ml
182. SQ, drug administration, obese
ANSWER: 90 degrees and taut the skin
183. SQ, drug administration, skinny
ANSWER: 45 degrees and pinch the skin
184. ID, drug administration
ANSWER:
Parallel to skin, 10 to 15 degree
Bevel up

201. Breast cancer, risk factors

ANSWER:
Nulliparity, high fat diet/obesity,
early menarche, late menopause

205. BP of 104/100/90
ANSWER: Korotkoff sound phases I/IV/V
(systolic/ muffling/ disappearance)
206. Auscultate pulse, use
ANSWER: Bell of stethoscope
(diaphragm for obese patients)
207. Inflate cuff more after palpable systolic BP around
ANSWER: 30 mmHg
208. Deflate cuff, rate
ANSWER: 2 to 3 mmHg/ beat
209. Correct about VS taking
ANSWER: wait at last 30 minutes after exercise, eating or
smoking

185. 1L NSS to be given in 24 hours, rate per hour

ANSWER: 41 ml/ hr
186. D5W, classification
ANSWER: Isotonic fluid but hypotonic in function

210. Sequence of chest physiotherapy (CPT)

ANSWER:
1 postural drainage
2 percuss
3 vibrate
4 let the patient cough

187. Heparin lock

ANSWER:
S.A.S.H. method (Saline, Antibiotic, Saline, Heparin)

211. Death certificate, signing

ANSWER: physician/ municipal health officer

188. Infiltration
ANSWER: Stop and warm compress

212. Suctioning, oropharyngeal/ nasopharyngeal

ANSWER: Interval: 20 to 30 seconds

189. Dehiscence
ANSWER: Stop and cold compress

213. Suctioning, tracheal

ANSWER: Interval: 2 to 3 minutes

190. Billroth 1
ANSWER: Gastroduodenostomy

214. Suctioning, entire procedure

ANSWER: 5 minutes

191. Billroth 2
ANSWER: Gastrojejunostomy

215. Suctioning, per attempt

ANSWER: 5 to 10 seconds

192. Complication of Billroth 1 and 2

ANSWER: dumping syndrome and pernicious anemia

216. Withdrawal of NGT

ANSWER: Inhale hold breath pinch the catheter
withdraw

193. Confirmatory test for cancer

ANSWER: Biopsy

217. During liver biopsy, instruction

ANSWER: Inhale exhale hold breath

194. Preferred treatment of cancer for pedia

ANSWER: Chemotherapy
195. Preferred treatment of cancer for adult
ANSWER: Surgery
196. Cruciferous vegetables (anti-cancer)
ANSWER:
Cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, Kohlrabi
197. Prostate cancer, risk factors
ANSWER: Age above 40

218. Sleep disturbance

ANSWER: Quality of sleep > Quantity of sleep
219. Kidney transplant patient taking immunosuppressant may
still experience rejection, what is the possible sign
ANSWER: Increase serum creatinine
220. Dialysis, not affected by the treatment
ANSWER: Hemoglobin
221. Iron deficiency anemia
ANSWER: Spoon shaped fingernail (koilonychia)

198. Bladder cancer, risk factors

ANSWER: Smoking, hair dye

222. Post-pneumonectomy, position

ANSWER: Supine or to the affected side

199. Lung cancer, risk factors

ANSWER: Smoking, asbestosis, radon gas

223. Post-mastectomy, position

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

ANSWER: Elevate arms (liberty position)

250. Ventricular tachycardia, characteristic
ANSWER: Bizarre QRS complex, regular rhythm

224. Post-laminectomy, position

ANSWER: Supine position

251. Ventricular fibrillation, characteristic

ANSWER: Chaotic pattern, no rhythm, no P wave, no QRS
complex

225. Post-laryngectomy, expect

ANSWER: Absence of voice
226. Rich in iron
ANSWER: Clams, leafy greens, enriched cereals, and liver
227. Rich in calcium
ANSWER: Orange, yogurt, spinach
228. Hepatitis A and E
ANSWER: Fecal-oral

252. Parkinson disease, S/Sx:

ANSWER:
Tremors (resting and pill rolling)
Rigidity (cogwheel)
Akinesia or Bradykinesia
Mask like appearance
253. Menieres disease, S/Sx:
ANSWER: Vertigo, Hearing loss (sensorineural), Tinnitus

229. Hepatitis B, C and D

ANSWER: Blood, sexual intercourse, needle prick
230. Hepatic encephalopathy, diet
ANSWER: Low protein diet (protein increases ammonia)
231. Hepatic encephalopathy, laboratory findings:
ANSWER:
a. Increase serum ammonia
b. Increase bilirubin level in blood
232. Non absorbable suture (silk, nylon, vicryl, cotton, daron)
ANSWER: Commonly used in SKIN
233. Absorbable sutures (chromic gut, plain gut)
ANSWER: Commonly used in internal organs

254. Menieres disease, priority

ANSWER: Safety (Nursing Diagnosis: Risk for Injury)
255. Menieres disease, diet
ANSWER: Low sodium, restrict fluid
256. Legal Blind, visual acuity
ANSWER: 20/ 200
257. DM patient, before extraneous activity, AVOID
ANSWER: Insulin injection
258. Insulin, when to decrease dose
ANSWER: During breastfeeding

234. 1st successful heart transplant

ANSWER: Cape Town, South Africa

259. 100ml of NSS to be given at 10ml/ hour starting at 10 am,

when will it end
ANSWER: 8pm

235. 1st successful bone marrow and kidney transplant

ANSWER: USA

260. Cholecystitis, pain location

ANSWER: RUQ radiating to midsternal, shoulders and back

236. Coumadin (Warfarin), foods to avoid

ANSWER: Green leafy vegetables (contains Vitamin K)

261. Cholecystitis, laboratory data

ANSWER:
Increase bilirubin
Increase alkaline phosphatase
Increase WBC

237. Anticoagulants (Coumadin, Heparin), how does it work

ANSWER: It inhibit synthesis of Vitamin K dependent
clotting factors

262. Obstructed bile flow

ANSWER: increase bilirubin

238. Heparin-induced side effect

ANSWER: Thrombocytopenia
239. Burn in chest, arms, face
ANSWER: Priority patient because it may cause inhalation
burn and airway edema
240. Electrical burn, immediate management
ANSWER: Turn off the electrical source
241. Patient is burning, priority management
ANSWER: STOP, DROP and ROLL
242. Burns, 2 parameters to measure
ANSWER:
1 extent percentage
2 severity degree

263. Pericarditis, characteristic of breathing

ANSWER: Rapid and shallow
264. Pericarditis, pain location
ANSWER: Substernal
265. pH 7.30
CO2 28
HCO3 12
ANSWER: Metabolic acidosis, Partially compensated
266. Long bone fracture, check
ANSWER: RR (possible fat embolism)

243. Fire in hospital, management (in sequence)

ANSWER:
1 protect client
2 activate the alarm
3 confine the fire
4 extinguish the fire
244. Burns, 2nd degree (superficial partial thickness burn)
ANSWER: Blisters (vesicles), painful
245. Burns, 3rd degree (deep partial thickness burn)
ANSWER: Red to gray, local edema, wet, painless
246. Burns, 4th degree (full thickness burn)
ANSWER: Charred, dry, leathery, painless
247. MRI, avoid
ANSWER: Pacemaker, jewelry, metallic objects

267. Rheumatoid arthritis and Osteoarthritis

ANSWER: RA pain occurs during immobility whereas OA
pain happens because of mobility
268. Patient prone to chocking or aspiration, priority
management
ANSWER: Position the patient in upright
269. Otic medication administration
ANSWER:
Up and back (out) adults
Down and back (out) pedia
270. Patient prone to infection
ANSWER:
Removal of spleen
ICU patients
Steroids (Kidney transplant patient, Cushings disease)
HIV

248. CT scan, before

ANSWER: check for allergy to iodine

271. Phytochemicals, examples

ANSWER: lycopene in tomatoes, isoflavones in soy and
flavanoids in fruits.

249. Cardiac catheterization, after

ANSWER: Check for distal pulses and possible bleeding

272. Antioxidants and phytochemicals, benefits

ANSWER: Anti-cancer

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

273. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN), most appropriate

ANSWER: Sterile technique
274. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN), type of dressing to be use
ANSWER: Air occlusive and transparent dressing
275. TPN solution is emptied but no follow up doctors order,
what will you give
ANSWER: hypertonic solution
D10 W pedia
D50W adult
276. Liver cirrhosis, health teaching
ANSWER: Good nutrition, avoid infection and abstain from
alcohol

298. Purpose of neomycin in peri-ops

ANSWER: To kill bacteria in the gut
299. Heparin/Insulin is measured as
ANSWER: Units/ml
300. 1 grain is equal to
ANSWER: 60 mg
301. 1 tsp is equal to
ANSWER: 5 ml
302. Appendicitis report ASAP
ANSWER: Rigid abdomen, indicates peritonitis

277. Bronchoconstriction, appropriate nursing diagnosis

ANSWER: Ineffective airway clearance

303. Colorectal cancer, screening:

ANSWER:
a. Rectal exam (DRE) correct answer
b. Biopsy confirmatory test

278. Crackles, appropriate nursing diagnosis

ANSWER: Impaired breathing pattern

304. Best way to measure fluid retention

ANSWER: Weight

279. Respiratory acidosis, appropriate nursing diagnosis

ANSWER: Impaired gas exchange

305. Best way to measure body fat

ANSWER: Skin fold thickness

280. Infusion pump, alarm on when

ANSWER:
Empty/ near empty IV fluid
Sudden twisting or movement
Tension on the tubing/ occlusion
Sudden change on the solution

306. Nursing audit

ANSWER: Review of records

281. Pulse oximeter, purpose

ANSWER: measures oxygen saturation and pulse

308. Structure evaluation

ANSWER: physical setting

282. To reduce tenacity of secretions

ANSWER: Increase fluid intake

309. Process evaluation

ANSWER: how the nursing care is given

283. Stimulant of breathing

ANSWER: Carbon dioxide

310. Outcome evaluation

ANSWER: output of nursing care given (demonstrable
changes)

307. Quality assurance

ANSWER: ensuring and evaluating that the nursing care
rendered is within the minimum standards of care (REACTIVE)

284. Metered dose inhaler, correct teaching

ANSWER:
Disperse drug with inhalation
Do not place inside the mouth the tip of the inhaler, provide
1 to 2 inches apart from the lips
Provide mouthwash after drug administration
285. Evaluation of Tissue perfusion
ANSWER: Monitor hourly urine output
286. Foods that retain fluids in the body
ANSWER: Salty foods (dried fish), cola, pickles
287. Foods that causes diuresis
ANSWER: Tea, coffee
288. To prevent atelectasis:
ANSWER: Ambulate as soon as possible

312. Hyperparathyroidism, main problem

ANSWER:
Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
313. Hypoparathyroidism, main problem
ANSWER:
Decreased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
314. Increased ICP, position
ANSWER: Fowlers position
315. Increased ICP (Cushings response)
ANSWER:
Increased BP, Increased MAP
Decreased RR, Decreased PR
Widening pulse pressure

289. Fifth vital sign:

ANSWER: Pain
290. SEVERE pain medication:
ANSWER: Morphine
291. Pain assessment used in pediatric clients
ANSWER: Faces scale
292. Colonic Cancer
ANSWER: CEA- Carcino Embryonic Antigen
293. Ascites, measure
ANSWER: abdominal girth
294. Eye pain after cataract surgery
ANSWER: Call the MD
295. Myasthenia Gravis, initial manifestation
ANSWER: Ptosis (drooping, sinking or falling down of an
organ or part, particularly the drooping of the upper eyelid)
296. AV fistula how long does it mature?
ANSWER: 3-4 weeks
297. AV fistula with no bruit/thrill
ANSWER: Obstruction/clot

311. Total quality management

ANSWER: focus on identifying real and potential problem
(PROACTIVE)

316. Reason for elevating patient with increase ICP

ANSWER:
To promote venous drainage
317. Shock
ANSWER:
Decreased BP, Decreased MAP
Increased RR, Increased PR
Narrowing pulse pressure
318. Digoxin (Lanoxin), effects
ANSWER:
Increased force of contraction,
increased cardiac output, increased tissue perfusion
increased urine output
decreased electrical impulse
decreased heart rate, decreased workload
increased myocardial oxygenation
319. Decreased tissue perfusion in kidney, effect
ANSWER: Stimulates erythropoietin causing bone marrow
stimulation leading to polycythemia

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

320. Most common nosocomial infection:

ANSWER: UTI

348. GCS score, highest

ANSWER: 15

321. Best management for UTI

ANSWER: increased water intake

349. GCS score, coma

ANSWER: 7 and below

322. Stridor and wheezing, first drug to be given

ANSWER: bronchodilator

350. GCS, the higher the score

ANSWER: the deeper the level of consciousness

323. Pruritus
ANSWER: oatmeal bath colloidal bath

351. Manifestation of ICP

ANSWER: Bradycardia

324. Tinea Capitis hair loss is:

ANSWER: temporary

352. Pernicious anemia CORRECT UNDERSTANDING:

ANSWER: Vitamin B12 for life IM

325. Pediculosis Capitis:

ANSWER:
Treat all household members
Lindane is not given in children (can cause seizure in
children)

353. Urine output per hour

ANSWER: 30 60 ml

326. Gastric Cancer s/sx:

ANSWER: Weight Loss

354. What substance is produced by the kidneys that assists in

blood pressure control
ANSWER: Renin
355. A patient has had a sudden 5-kg weight gain. How much
fluid has been retained?
ANSWER: 5L

327. Lung Cancer s/sx:

ANSWER: dry hacking cough

356. The functional unit of the kidney is called a(n)

ANSWER: Nephron

328. Herpes zoster:

ANSWER: give antiviral
329. Patient with Luccid (clear thoughts) then unarousable:
ANSWER: hematoma cerebral

357. What is oliguria?

ANSWER:
c. Oliguria is a urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours.

330. Most reliable sign of cardiac arrest:

ANSWER: absence of pulse

358. Anuria is a urine output of

ANSWER: 50 to 100 mL/24 hours

331. High Risk for bleeding:

ANSWER: Patient with thrombocytopenia

359. most reliable pain indicator

ANSWER: Subjective complaint of patient; DIAPHORESIS

332. Non-plaster cast a.k.a. synthetic cast gets wet:

ANSWER: Hair blower on a cool setting for itchiness

360. Analgesics
ANSWER: Before formation of prostaglandin

333. Assessing brachial plexus injury in Newborn

ANSWER: Assess moro reflex

361. Position cord prolapse

ANSWER: Trendelenurg/ knee chest

334. Collecting urine specimen for C&S sterile procedure

ANSWER: 5 to 10ml

362. Acute Renal Failure:

ANSWER: decrease urine output

335. Routine urinalysis

ANSWER: 30 to 50 ml

363. Creatinine clearance

ANSWER: 24 hour urine collection

336. Abdominal: post-op: sleeping intestines:

ANSWER: paralytic ileus

364. Most common post op complication

ANSWER: Hemorrhage

337. Residual volume of urine

ANSWER: 50-100 ml

365. Most common triggering factor of asthma

ANSWER: Dust mites

338. Spina Bifida lack of:

ANSWER: folic acid

366. Most common type of liver cirrhosis

ANSWER: Laennecs (due to alcohol)

339. Arthralgia is
ANSWER: with pain and no swelling

367. The worst of all fears among clients undergoing surgery is:
ANSWER: Fear of unknown

340. Arthritis is
ANSWER: with pain and swelling

368. HYPERCALCEMIA,S/SX:
ANSWER: muscle weakness

341. PRESBYOPIA
ANSWER: Decrease accommodative ability of the lens that
occurs with aging

369. Theophylline toxicity

ANSWER: Tachycardia and nausea and vomiting
370. In OR, who validates/verifies consent:
ANSWER: Ciculator

342. HYPEROPIA
ANSWER: Farsightedness

371. Sellick maneuver

ANSWER: application of pressure in the cricoid cartilage

343. MYOPIA
ANSWER: Nearsightedness

345. Meningeal irritation s/s:

ANSWER: nuchal rigidity, photophobia,
kernings sign, brudzinskis sign

372. Discharges
Serous
Sanguineous
Seroanguineous
Purulent
Purosanguineous
wound)

346. Breast exams

ANSWER: 5-7 days after onset of mens

373. OSTEOMYELITIS
ANSWER: Immobilize

347. GCS score of a patient who is moaning and mumbling

ANSWER: 2

374. Milwaukee brace

ANSWER: wear it for 23 hours and 1 hour intended for
bathing

344. SIADH s/s:

ANSWER: (dilutional) hyponatremia

Clear
Red (open wounds)
Pinkish (surgical incision)
Pus
Pus and blood (new infected

TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468

375. Plaster of Paris

ANSWER: 24 to 72 hours

397. Peptic ulcer disease, cause

ANSWER: H. pylori, NSAIDs smoking, alcohol

376. synthetic/ fiber glass

ANSWER: 20 minutes

398. Sign of gastric ulcer perforation

ANSWER: rigid, board-like abdomen

377. Patient has weak side, where to place the wheelchair

during transfer?
a. Unaffected/ STRONG SIDE
b. Affected

399. Grafts used in CABG

ANSWER:
Saphaneous vein
Internal mammary artery
Radial artery

378. Transfer from surgical bed to wheelchair, position of the

wheelchair?
a. Foot of the bed
b. Facing the client
c. Middle of the bed
d. Parallel to the bed
379. First to check if patient has 1000 mL blood loss:
a. VS
b. Soaked dressing
c. Pain
380. Patient on NPO complains of thirst, how to alleviate?
a. Wet cotton put on lips
b. Gargle but dont swallow
c. Sip water
381. Promote safety to a patient in a bed without siderails
ANSWER:
lower the bed
382. Most common type of goiter is related to deficiency of
ANSWER: Iodine
383. Earliest sign of skin reaction to radiation therapy is
ANSWER: Erythema
384. Waste disposal like biological wastes disposal should be
coordinated to
ANSWER: DILG, MMDA
385. 3 TYPES OF JAUNDICE
ANSWER:
1. Hepatic jaundice inability of the liver to conjugated
unconjugated bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin)
2. Obstructive jaundice due to cholelithiasis
3. Hepatic jaundice due to RBC hemolysis
386. Last step in research process
ANSWER: utilization of the research into practice
387. Incident report, not included
ANSWER: derogatory comments of patient
388. Final step in nursing process
ANSWER: putting research evidence into nursing practice
389. Correct understanding about sampling technique
ANSWER: the greater the sample size, the more accurate
will be the estimate of the true population mean

400. Pain during coughing exercises

ANSWER: splint using cough pillow
401. Antacids
ANSWER: neutralize gastric acidity
402. Ezomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)
ANSWER: Proton pump inhibitor
403. Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: OVERSECRETION of glucocorticoids
404. 3 elements of fire
ANSWER:
Oxygen (open windows
Combustible material (leaking gas stove)
Friction (disposable drapes)
405. Furosemide, excrete what electrolytes in urine
ANSWER: sodium, potassium and calcium
406. Renal stones
ANSWER:
Flank pain/ costovertebral pain
Strain urine
407. Swelling of leg due to congestion
ANSWER: elevate leg
408. Phantom limb pain caused by
ANSWER: severing peripheral nerves
409. Laboratory result in patient with pericarditis
ANSWER: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
410. OHA (Metformin) and NSAIDS or ASA
ANSWER: hypoglycemia
411. Insertion of foley catheter
ANSWER: sterile technique
412. White pulp of spleen
ANSWER: lymphocyte production
413. Kidney function, indicator
ANSWER: creatinine clearance
414. increased hematocrit
ANSWER: polycythemia, dehydration

390. Client with hearing impairment

ANSWER: speak slowly in front of the patient
391. Patient is teary eyed and stops talking
ANSWER: remain silent, sit with the client
392. fight free radicals
ANSWER: antioxidants and phytochemicals
393. Signs of dysphagia
ANSWER:
Coughing while eating
Delayed swallowing
Abnormal movements of tongue and mouth
Uncoordinated speech
394. Positioning patient into lithotomy position
ANSWER: place both legs slowly and simultaneously on
well-padded stirrups
395. Document outlining selected medical treatment to be done
to a patient when he/ she losses his/ her ability to decide
ANSWER: advance directives
396. Chest pain in patient with pneumonia is due to
ANSWER: pleuritic friction rub
TOP TOPICS FOR JUNE-JULY 2012 NURSE LICENSURE EXAMINATION Prepared by: Brian Yu, 09175262468