SECTION 1

Time 30 minutes
30 Questions

1. 2(8-7) 2(7-8)

x + y = 2
2. x y

3.
7
3
+
7
2
1


4. x 5

On Elm Street there are 6 houses on one side of the
street and 4 houses on the other. Each pair of houses on
Elm Street is connected by exactly one telephone line.

5. The total number of such 12
lines that connect houses
on opposite sides of Elm
Street


6. The area of triangular The area of triangular
region OPQ region ORS

7. (0.01)(0.07)(70) 0.49

x < y < z
8.
3
z y x + +
z

The three small rectangles have the same
dimensions

9.
RS
PS

2
1


In a certain city, 20F was the average (arithmetic
mean) of the low temperatures of xF, 25F, and
37F on three consecutive days.
10. x 0

m= 4x + 4y, x = -y
11.
y x
m
+
2
8



ABCD is a rectangle with diagonals AC and DB.
12 r + u + v r + u + v + w

n is a positive integer.
13. n
100
100
n


f(t) = kt for all t, where k is a constant, and
f(3) =
2
1

14. k f(1)

100x<y
1,000x < 2y
15. 1,100x y




16. Mr. Gifford wishes to put 372 eggs into cartons that
can hold 12 eggs each. If he has 50 empty cartons
and completely fills as many of them as possible
with the 327 eggs, how many of the cartons will
remain empty?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 28
(E) 31

17. Which of the following numbers is greatest?
(A) -0.225
(B) -0.0225
(C) -0.323
(D) -0.0325
(E) -0.3205

18. If a certain automobile gets between 20 and 24 miles
per gallon of gasoline, inclusive, what would be the
maximum amount of gasoline, in gallons, this
automobile would consume on a trip of 360 miles?
(A) 20.0
(B) 18.0
(C) 16.4
(D) 16.0
(E) 15.0

19. If y - x = 2 and y -z =3, which of the following best
represents the relative positions of x, y, and z on the
number line? (Note: The figures are drawn to scale.)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E)


20.Two beads are to be independently and randomly
selected, one from each of two bags. If
7
2
of the
beads in one bag and
7
3
of the beads in the other
bag are yellow, what is the probability that both
beads selected will be yellow?
(A)
3
2

(B)
7
5

(C)
7
6

(D)
49
4

(E)
49
6




Questions 21-23 refer to the graph below.




21. By what percent did the number of personal
computers sold by Compaq increase from 1992 to
1993?
(A) 50%
(B) 65%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
(E) 110%

22. In 1992, Packard Bell accounted for what percent of
the computers sold by the four companies listed?
(A) 6%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
(E) 14%

23. If the ratio of the number of personal computers sold
by IBM Compaq, and Tandy (not shown) in 1993
was 6 to 4 to1, respectively, approximately how
many personal computers were sold by Tandy in
1993?
(A) 350,000
(B) 400,000
(C) 450,000
(D) 500,000
(E) 550,000

Questions 24-25 refer to the following table.

24. For the categories given, which category accounts
for approximately
4
1
of the total number of
graduates expected for each off the years shown?
(A) High school diploma
(B) Associate degree
(C) Bachelor's degree
(D) Master's degree
(E) Doctoral degree

25. The number of associate degrees expected to be
granted in 2001 is most nearly what percent greater
than the number of associate degrees expected to be
granted in 1995?
(A) 2%
(B) 3%
(C) 5%
(D) 7%
(E) 9%


26. If the area of the shaded region of the square above
is 20, what is the perimeter of the square?
(A) 4 5
(B) 8 5
(C) 16 5
(D) 80
(E) 400





27. If x =
y
1
and y =
x 1
1
, them y =
(A) 2
(B)
2
1

(C) -
2
1

(D) -1
(E) -2

28. If 720 is the product of the consecutive integers
beginning with 2 and ending with n, what is the
value of n-1?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 11
(E) 23

29. When it was found that 150 more tickets for the
school play were sold than the seating capacity of
the auditorium. It was decided to have two
performances. if the total number of tickets sold was
equal to the total number who attended and if the
auditorium was
3
2
full for each of the two
performances, what is the seating capacity of the
auditorium?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 225
(D) 300
(E) 450


30. If n = pqr, where p, q, and r are three different
positive prime numbers, how many different
positive divisors does n have, including l and n?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
SECTION 2
Time 30 minutes
38 Questions

1. Though ---- to some degree, telling a small lie
sometimes enables one to avoid ---- another's
feelings.
(A) necessary.. mollifying
(B) regrettable.. harming
(C) unfortunate.. exaggerating
(D) attractive.. considering
(E) difficult.. resisting

2. Perhaps because scientists have been so intrigued by
dogs' superior senses of smell and hearing, researchers
have long ---- their eyesight, assuming that they
inhabit a drab, black-and-white world, devoid of
color.
(A) studied
(B) coveted
(C) appreciated
(D) resented
(E) underestimated

3. Despite a string of dismal earnings reports, the
two-year-old strategy to return the company to
profitability is beginning to ----.
(A) falter
(B) disappoint
(C) compete
(D) work
(E) circulate

4. The President reached a decision only after lengthy
------, painstakingly weighing the ----opinions
expressed by cabinet members.
(A) deliberation.. divergent
(B) confrontation.. unanimous
(C) relegation.. consistent
(D) speculation.. conciliatory
(E) canvassing.. arbitrary

5. Although just barely ---- as a writer of lucid prose,
Jones was an extremely ---- editor who worked
superbly with other writers in helping them improve
the clarity of their writing.


(A) deficient.. muddling
(B) proficient.. contentious
(C) adequate.. capable
(D) appalling.. competent
(E) engaging.. inept

6. The accusations we bring against others should be
---- ourselves; they should not ---- complacency
and easy judgments on our part concerning our own
moral conduct.
(A) definitions of.. produce
(B) instructions to.. equate
(C) denigrations of.. exclude
(D) warnings to.. justify
(E) parodies of.. satirize

7. Although the meanings of words may necessarily be
liable to change, it does not follow that the lexicog-
rapher is therefore unable to render spelling, in a
great measure, ----.
(A) arbitrary
(B) superfluous
(C) interesting
(D) flexible
(E) constant

8. ELEGIAC: SORROW::
(A) polemical: resolution
(B) fictional: humor
(C) devotional: reverence
(D) didactic: inspiration
(E) literary: emotion

9. ROSTRUM: ORATOR::
(A) stage: audience
(B) bench: judge
(C) shelf: clerk
(D) municipality: citizen
(E) crosswalk: pedestrian

10. MISUNDERSTOOD: CLARIFY
(A) fanatical: espouse
(B) popular: renounce
(C) fantastic: shock
(D) erroneous: retract
(E) conspicuous: flaunt

11. REFINERY: PETROLEUM::
(A) mill: grain
(B) mine: ore
(C) warehouse: merchandise
(D) generator: electricity
(E) forest: lumber

12. TEDIOUS: ENERGY::
(A) avaricious: satisfaction
(B) fractious: irritation
(C) disturbing: composure
(D) improbable: ambition
(E) informed: intelligence

13. GRACEFUL: MOVEMENT::
(A) euphonious: sound
(B) forbidding: countenance
(C) ephemeral: duration
(D) melodramatic: emotion
(E) vibrant: color

14. BRAVURA: PERFORMANCE::
(A) extravagant: expenditure
(B) elaborate: oration
(C) foreseeable: outcome
(D) thorough: analysis
(E) resplendent: appearance

15. BADGER: BOTHER::
(A) persecute: injure
(B) haunt: remember
(C) belabor: mention
(D) quibble: argue
(E) censure: evaluate

16. CONGRUENT: DIMENSIONS::
(A) convenient: time
(B) coordinate: axis
(C) conglomerate: parts
(D) coincident: chance
(E) coeval: age

It is possible for students to obtain advanced degrees in
English while knowing little or nothing about traditional
scholarly methods. The consequences of this neglect of


traditional scholarship are particularly unfortunate for the
(5) study of women writers. If the canonthe list of authors
whose works are most widely taughtis ever to include
more women, scholars must be well trained in historical
scholarship and textual editing. Scholars who do not know
how to read early manuscripts, locate rare books, establish
(10)a sequence of editions, and so on are bereft of crucial tools
for revising the canon.
To address such concerns, an experimental version of
the traditional scholarly methods course was designed to
raise students' consciousness about the usefulness of
(15)traditional learning for any modern critic or theorist. To
minimize the artificial aspects of the conventional course,
the usual procedure of assigning a large number of small
problems drawn from the entire range of historical periods
was abandoned, though this procedure has the obvious
(20)advantage of at least superficially familiarizing students
with a wide range of reference sources. Instead students
were engaged in a collective effort to do original work on
a neglected eighteenth-century writer, Elizabeth Griffith, to
give them an authentic experience of literary scholarship
(25)and to inspire them to take responsibility for the quality of
their own work.
Griffith's work presented a number of advantages for
this particular pedagogical purpose. First, the body of
extant scholarship on Griffith was so tiny that it could all
(30)be read in a day; thus students spent little time and effort
mastering the literature and had a clear field for their own
discoveries. Griffith's play The Platonic Wife exists in three
versions, enough to provide illustrations of editorial issues
but not too many for beginning students to manage. In addi-
(35)tion, because Griffith was successful in the eighteenth cen-
tury, as her continued productivity and favorable reviews
demonstrate, her exclusion from the canon and virtual dis-
appearance from literary history also helped raise issues
concerning the current canon.
(40) The range of Griffith's work meant that each student
could become the world's leading authority on a particular
Griffith text. For example, a student studying Griffith's
Wife in the Right obtained a first edition of the play and
studied it for some weeks. This student was suitably
(45)shocked and outraged to find its title transformed into A
Wife in the Night in Watt's Bibliotheca Britannica. Such
experiences, inevitable and common in working on a writer
to whom so little attention has been paid, serve to vaccinate
the student ---I hope for a lifetimeagainst credulous use
of reference sources.

17.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) revealing a commonly ignored deficiency
(B) proposing a return to traditional terminology
(C) describing an attempt to correct a shortcoming
(D) assessing the success of a new pedagogical
approach
(E) predicting a change in a traditional teaching
strategy

18.It can be inferred that the author of the passage expects
that the experience of the student mentioned as having
studied Wife in the Right would have which of the fol-
lowing effects?
(A) It would lead the student to disregard information
found in the Bibliotheca Britannica.
(B) It would teach the student to question the accuracy
of certain kinds of information sources when
studying neglected authors.
(C) It would teach the student to avoid the use of refer-
ence sources in studying neglected authors.
(D) It would help the student to understand the impor-
tance of first editions in establishing the author-
ship of plays.
(E) It would enhance the student's appreciation of the
works of authors not included in the canon.

19. The author of the passage suggests that which of the
following is a disadvantage of the strategy employed in
the experimental scholarly methods course?
(A) Students were not given an opportunity to study
women writers outside the canon.
(B) Students' original work would not be appreciated
by recognized scholars.
(C) Little scholarly work has been done on the work
of Elizabeth Griffith.
(D) Most of the students in the course had had little
opportunity to study eighteenth-century literature.
(E) Students were not given an opportunity to encoun-
ter certain sources of information that could
prove useful in their future studies.

20. Which of the following best states the "particular
pedagogical purpose" mentioned in line 28?
(A) To assist scholars in revising the canon of authors


(B) To minimize the trivial aspects of the traditional
scholarly methods course
(C) To provide students with information about
Griffith's work
(D) To encourage scholarly rigor in students' own
research
(E) To reestablish Griffith's reputation as an author

21. Which of the following best describes the function of
the last paragraph in relation to the passage as a
whole?
(A) It summarizes the benefits that students can derive
from the experimental scholarly methods course.
(B) It provides additional reasons why Griffith's work
raises issues having to do with the canon of
authors.
(C) It provides an illustration of the immediate nature
of the experiences students can derive from the
experimental scholarly methods course.
(D) It contrasts the experience of a student in the
experimental scholarly methods course with the
experience of a student in the traditional course
(E) It provides information that emphasizes the suita-
bility of Griffith's work for inclusion in the
canon of authors.

22. It can be inferred that which of the following is most
likely to be among the "issues" mentioned in line 38?
(A) Why has the work of Griffith, a woman writer
who was popular in her own century, been
excluded from the canon?
(B) In what ways did Griffith's work reflect the polit-
ical climate of the eighteenth century?
(C) How was Griffith's work received by literary
critics during the eighteenth century?
(D) How did the error in the title of Griffith's play
come to be made?
(E) How did critical reception of Griffith's work
affect the quantity and quality of that work?

23. It can be inferred that the author of the passage con-
siders traditional scholarly methods courses to be
(A) irrelevant to the work of most students
(B) inconsequential because of their narrow focus
(C) unconcerned about the accuracy of reference
sources
(D) too superficial to establish important facts about
authors
(E) too wide-ranging to approximate genuine scholarly
activity

Experiments show that insects can function as pollinators
of cycads, rare, palmlike tropical plants. Furthermore, cycads
removed from their native habitatsand therefore from
insects native to those habitatsare usually infertile. Nev-
(5) ertheless, anecdotal reports of wind pollination in cycads
cannot be ignored. The structure of cycads male cones is
quite consistent with the wind dispersal of pollen, clouds
of which are released from some of the larger cones. The
male cone of Cycas circinalis, for example, sheds almost
(10)100 cubic centimeters of pollen, most of which is probably
dispersed by wind. Still, many male cycad cones are com-
paratively small and thus produce far less pollen. Further-
more, the structure of most female cycad cones seems incon-
sistent with direct pollination by wind. Only in the Cycas
(15)genus are the females' ovules accessible to airborne pollen,
since only in this genus are the ovules surrounded by a
loose aggregation of megasporophylls rather than by a tight
cone.

24.According to the passage, the size of a male cycad
cone directly influences which of the following?
(A) The arrangement of the male cone's structural
elements
(B) The mechanism by which pollen is released from
the male cone.
(C) The degree to which the ovules of female cycads
are accessible to airborne pollen
(D) The male cone's attractiveness to potential insect
pollinators
(E) The amount of pollen produced by the male cone

25. The passage suggests that which of the following is
true of the structure of cycad cones?
(A) The structure of cycad cones provides conclusive
evidence in favor of one particular explanation
of cycad pollination.
(B) The structure of cycad cones provides evidence
concerning what triggers the first step in the
pollination process.
(C) An irresolvable discrepancy exists between what
the structure of most male cycad cones suggests


about cycad pollination and what the structure of
most female cones suggests about that process.
(D) The structure of male cycad cones rules out a
possible mechanism for cycad pollination that is
suggested by the structure of most female cycad
cones.
(E) The structure of male cycad cones is consistent
with a certain means of cycad pollination, but
that means is inconsistent with the structure of
most female cycad cones.

26. The evidence in favor of insect pollination of cycads
presented in lines 2-4 would be more convincing if
which of the following were also true?
(A) Only a small variety of cycad species can be
successfully transplanted.
(B) Cycads can sometimes be pollinated by means
other than wind or insects.
(C) Insects indigenous to regions to which cycads are
transplanted sometimes feed on cycads.
(D) Winds in the areas to which cycads are usually
transplanted are similar to winds in cycads'
native habitats.
(E) The transplantation of cycads from one region to
another usually involves the accidental removal
and introduction of insects as well.

27. The passage suggests that which of the following is
true of scientific investigations of cycad pollination?
(A) They have not yet produced any systematic evi-
dence of wind pollination in cycads.
(B) They have so far confirmed anecdotal reports con-
cerning the wind pollination of cycads.
(C) They have, until recently, produced little evidence
in favor of insect pollination in cycads.
(D) They have primarily been carried out using cycads
transplanted from their native habitats.
(E) They have usually concentrated on describing the
physical characteristics of the cycad reproductive
system.

28. PROCRASTINATION:
(A) diligence
(B) complacence
(C) reasonableness
(D) allegiance
(E) rehabilitation

29. CIRCUITY
(A) straightforwardness
(B) inventiveness
(C) authenticity
(D) insightfulness
(E) practicality

30. CONCLUDE:
(A) foster
(B) frequent
(C) emanate from
(D) empower to
(E) embark on

31. RITE:
(A) coherent interpretation
(B) improvised act
(C) deductive approach
(D) casual observation
(E) unnecessary addition

32. BLATANT:
(A) indecisive
(B) perceptive
(C) unobtrusive
(D) involuntary
(E) spontaneous

33. PONTIFICATE:
(A) request rudely
(B) glance furtively
(C) behave predictably
(D) work efficiently
(E) speak modestly

34. POSIT:
(A) deceive
(B) begrudge
(C) deny
(D) consent
(E) reinforce





35. FETTER:
(A) justify
(B) comfort
(C) intrude
(D) liberate
(E) optimize

36. SYNERGIC:
(A) natural in origin
(B) fragile in structure
(C) untainted
(D) inessential
(E) antagonistic

37. DEPRIVATION:
(A) sanity
(B) awareness
(C) surfeit
(D) fecundity
(E) health

38. CORPOREAL:
(A) unreliable
(B) unscientific
(C) indistinguishable
(D) inanimate
(E) immaterial
SECTION 3
Time 30 minutes
25 Questions

1. Armtech, a temporary-employment agency, previously
gave its employees 2.5 paid vacation days after each
700 hours worked. Armtech's new policy is to give
its employees 5.0 paid vacation days after each 1,200
hours worked. Therefore, this new policy is more
generous to Armtech employees in giving them more
vacation days per hour worked than the old policy did.

Which of the following is an assumption on which
the argument depends
(A) Most current Armtech employees approve of the
company's new vacation policy.
(B) A few Armtech employees leave the company
before having worked 700 hours.
(C) Most Armtech employees were not aware that
the company planned to change its vacation
policy until after it had already done so.
(D) A significant portion of Armtech employees stay
with the company long enough to work for
1,200 hours.
(E) Armtech's new vacation policy closely matches
the vacation policies of competing temporary
employment agencies.

2 The global population of frogs has declined in recent
years while the amount of ultraviolet radiation reaching
the Earth has increased. Since the genetic material in
frog eggs is harmed when exposed to ultraviolet radi-
ation, and since the eggs themselves are not protected
by shells or leathery coverings but are gelatinous, the
frog population decline is probably due, at least in
part, to the ultraviolet radiation increase.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest
support for the argument
(A) Even in those regions where there has been no
significant increase in ultraviolet radiation, only
a small proportion of the frog eggs that are laid
ever hatch.
(B) In areas where there has been the least decline
in frog populations, populations of species of
insects that frogs eat have decreased.


(C) The eggs of frog species whose populations are
declining tend to have higher concentrations of
damaging pesticides than do the eggs of frog
species whose populations have not declined.
(D) In many places where turtles, which lay eggs
with tough, leathery coverings, share habitats
with frogs, turtle populations are also in decline.
(E) Populations of frog species that hide their eggs
beneath rocks or under sand have declined
considerably less than have populations of frog
species that do not cover their eggs.

Questions 3-8

A doctor is scheduling one appointment each with five
patientsJ, K, L, M, and N. The five appointments will
be consecutive and are numbered 1 through 5, from
earliest to latest. The doctor must schedule at least four of
the patients for appointments preferred by those patients
and cannot schedule any patient for an appointment unac-
ceptable to that patient. The following is a complete list
of what the patients prefer and, if they do not receive
their preferences, will accept

J prefers an appointment earlier than appointment 3, but
will accept any appointment.
K prefers appointment 2, but will accept any appoint-
ment except appointment 1.
L prefers appointment 1, but will accept appointment 5.
M prefers and will accept only an appointment later
than appointment 3.
N prefers and will accept only appointment 3.

3.Which of the following lists the patients in an order
in which their scheduled appointments can occur,
from appointment 1 through appointment 5
(A) J, K, N, L, M
(B) J, M, N, K, L
(C) K, J, N, M, L
(D) L, J, K, N, M
(E) L, J, N, M, K

4.If J is scheduled for appointment 2, which of the
following can be true
(A) K is scheduled for appointment 3.
(B) K is scheduled for appointment 4.
(C) L is scheduled for appointment 4.
(D) L is scheduled for appointment 5.
(E) M is scheduled for appointment 1.

5.If L is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the
following must be true
(A) J is scheduled for appointment 1.
(B) J is scheduled for appointment 2.
(C) J is scheduled for appointment 4.
(D) K is scheduled for appointment 4.
(E) N is scheduled for appointment 5.

6.Which of the following is a complete and accurate
list of patients any one of whom can be the patient
scheduled for appointment 2
(A) K
(B) J, K
(C) J, M
(D) J, K, L
(E) K, L, M

7.If M is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the
following can be true of the scheduling
(A) J's appointment is appointment 1.
(B) N's appointment is appointment 1.
(C) J's appointment is earlier than K's appointment.
(D) K's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.
(E) N's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.

8.If K's appointment is scheduled for a time later than
N's appointment, which of the following must be true
(A) J is scheduled for appointment 4.
(B) K is scheduled for appointment 5.
(C) L is scheduled for appointment 1.
(D) M is scheduled for appointment 4.
(E) N is scheduled for appointment 2.



Questions 9-10 are based on the following graph.

In January of 1990 a certain country enacted a strict new law to deter people from drunken driving. The law imposes
mandatory jail sentences for anyone convicted of drunken driving.

9.Which of the following, if true about the years 1990
through 1992, most helps to explain the data illus-
trated in the graph
(A) Most of the people arrested for and convicted of
drunken driving were repeat offenders.
(B) Many of the people arrested for and convicted of
drunken driving participated in alcohol-education
programs in order to reduce their jail sentences.
(C) Juries in drunken driving cases became increas-
ingly reluctant to convict people on whom
mandatory jail sentences would be imposed.
(D) Since the law was enacted, the number of deaths
attributed to drunken driving has declined
significantly.
(E) The majority of the residents of the country
supported the strict law to deter people from
drunken driving.

10.Which of the following, if true, strengthens the claim
that the changes in the ratio of arrests to convictions
since the beginning of 1990 are due to an increase in
the number of people arrested for drunken driving
who were not drunk
(A) Before 1990 only people driving erratically were
stopped by the police on suspicion of drunken
driving, but since the beginning of 1990 police
have been allowed to stop drivers randomly
and to arrest any driver whom they suspect of
having drunk any alcohol.
(B) Since the beginning of 1990 new technology has
enabled police who stop a driver to establish
immediately whether the driver is drunk,
whereas before 1990 police had to rely on
observations of a driver's behavior to make a
judgment about that driver's drunkenness.
(C) After 1990 the number of police officers assigned
to patrol for drunken drivers increased only
very slightly compared to the number of police
officers assigned to patrol for drunken drivers
in the years 1985 through 1989.
(D) In 1990 a greater number of drivers were igno-
rant of the laws concerning drunken driving
than were ignorant of the drunken driving laws
in 1989.
(E) After 1990 teenagers and young adults constituted
a greater proportion of those arrested for drunken
driving than in the years 1985 through 1989.

11 To improve productivity, manufacturing companies
have recently begun restructuring work to produce
more goods with fewer assembly-line workers, and
the companies have laid off many workers as a
consequence. The workers laid off have been those
with the least seniority(time on the job), generally
the younger workers.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support
which of the following as a conclusion
(A) The products manufactured by the companies are
not undergoing design changes while the
manufacturing jobs are being restructured.
(B) When assembly-line workers have made sug-
gestions for improvements in manufacturing
processes, some suggestions have been
Thousand
s


implemented, but many have not.
(C) Assembly-line workers now need increased
reading and mathematical skills to do their
jobs.
(D) Some of the innovations in assembly-line
processes and procedures that were made to
increase productivity have instead proved to be
counterproductive.
(E) The manufacturing companies are increasing the
average age of their assembly-line workforce
while still seeking to increase production.

12.During the nineteenth century, Britain's urban popu-
lation increased as its rural population diminished. A
historian theorizes that, rather than industrialization's
being the cause, this change resulted from a series
of migrations to urban areas, each occasioned by a
depression in the agrarian economy. To test this hypoth-
esis, the historian will compare economic data with
population census data.

The historian's hypothesis would be most strongly
supported if which of the following were found to be
true
(A) The periods of greatest growth in the industrial
economy were associated with a relatively
rapid decline in the rural population.
(B) The periods of greatest weakness in the agrarian
economy were associated with relatively slow
growth in the population as a whole.
(C) Periods when the agrarian economy was compar-
atively strong and the industrial economy com-
paratively weak were associated with a particu-
larly rapid decline in the rural population.
(D) Periods when the agrarian and industrial econo-
mies were both strong were associated with
particularly rapid growth in the urban popula-
tion.
(E) The periods of greatest strength in the agrarian
economy were associated with relatively slow
growth in the urban population.

Questions 13-16

On each of the three consecutive days Monday through
Wednesday, exactly two employees are to staff a com-
pany's information booth. The three available employees
Feng, Gmez, and Hullwill staff the booth in
accordance with the following conditions

Gmez and Hull must each staff the booth on at least
one of the days, but Feng must staff it on at least two
the days.
The booth cannot be staffed by the same two employees
on any two consecutive days.
If Hull staffs the booth on Monday, Gmez must be the
other employee staffing the booth on Monday.

13.Which of the following can be the schedule of
employees staffing the booth on the three days
Monday Tuesday Wednesday
(A) Feng,Gmez Feng,Gmez Feng,Hull
(B) Feng,Gmez Feng,Hul Gmez,Hull
(C) Feng,Hull Feng,Gmez Gmez,Hull
(D) Gmez,Hull Feng,Gmez Gmez,Hull
(E) Gmez,Hull Feng,Hull Feng,Hull

14.If Gmez staffs the booth on Monday and Tuesday,
which of the following must be true
(A) Feng staffs the booth on Monday.
(B) Feng staffs the booth on Tuesday.
(C) Feng staffs the booth on Wednesday.
(D) Hull staffs the booth on Monday.
(E) Hull staffs the booth on Tuesday.

15.If Hull staffs the booth on Monday and Wednesday,
which of the following must be true
(A) Feng and Gmez staff the booth on Tuesday.
(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.
(C) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.
(D) Gmez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.
(E) Gmez and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.

16.If Hull staffs the booth on only one of the days,
which of the following can be true
(A) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.
(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.
(C) Gmez and Hull staff the booth on Monday.
(D) Gmez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.
(E) Gmez and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.




Questions 17-22

A science teacher is selecting projects for each of two
classes from a group of exactly seven projectsR, S,
T, V, X, Y, and Z. The teacher will assign projects to
Class 1 and Class 2 according to the following
conditions
Each project must be assigned to exactly one class.
Four of the projects must be assigned to Class 1 and
three to Class 2.
R must be assigned to Class 2.
The class to which V is assigned cannot be the same
class as the one to which Y is assigned.
If V is assigned to Class 1, X must be assigned
to Class 1.
If Z is assigned to Class 2, Y must be assigned to
Class 1.

17.Which of the following could be the projects assigned
to the two classes
Class 1 Class 2
(A) R, V, X, Y S, T, Z
(B) S, T, V, Z R, X, Y
(C) S, T, X, Y R, V, Z
(D) S, T, X, Z R, V, Y
(E) S, V, X, Y R, T, Z

18.If X is assigned to Class 2, which of the following
must be true
(A) R is assigned to Class 1.
(B) S is assigned to Class 2.
(C) T is assigned to Class 2.
(D) Y is assigned to Class 1.
(E) Z is assigned to Class 2.

19.If Z is assigned to Class 2, which of the following
must be true
(A) S is assigned to Class 2.
(B) T is assigned to Class 2.
(C) V is assigned to Class 1.
(D) X is assigned to Class 1.
(E) Y is assigned to Class 2.

20.If Y is assigned to Class 2, any of the following
could be assigned together to one of the classes
EXCEPT
(A) R and T
(B) S and T
(C) S and Y
(D) T and Z
(E) X and Z

21.If T is assigned to the same class as V, which of the
following must be assigned to the same class as each
other
(A) R and T
(B) S and X
(C) S and Y
(D) X and Y
(E) Y and Z

22.If V is assigned to a different class from Z, which of
the following must be true
(A) S is assigned to Class 1.
(B) S is assigned to Class 2.
(C) T is assigned to Class 2.
(D) V is assigned to Class 2.
(E) X is assigned to Class 1.

23 PoliticianEach year, small businesses create more
jobs than do large established businesses.
Therefore, in order to reduce unemploy-
ment in the long term, we should provide
incentives for starting small businesses
rather than for expanding established large
businesses.

Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt
on the politician's argument
(A) In general, people employed by small businesses
report higher job satisfaction than do people
employed by large businesses.
(B) Among the currently unemployed are many
people with sufficient job skills to perform the
jobs that small businesses would create.
(C) Providing an effective incentive for starting a
business generally costs significantly less than
providing an effective incentive for expanding
a large business.
(D) A high proportion of small businesses fail within
three years of starting because of their owners'
inexperience.


(E) The average large business contributes more
money to politicians campaign funds than the
average small business does.

24 In the workplace, influenza is typically spread by
infected individuals to others with whom they work
in close quarters. A new medication that suppresses
the symptoms of influenza therefore will actually
increase the number of influenza cases, because this
medication will allow people who would otherwise be
home in bed to return to work while infected.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously chal-
lenges the prediction
(A) Coughing, a symptom of influenza that the new
medication suppresses, is a primary mechanism
in the spread of this illness.
(B) Some medications that are used to suppress
symptoms of influenza are also used by many
people to treat symptoms that are caused not
by influenza but by other illnesses.
(C) Many workers who now remain at home when
infected with influenza do so because the
symptoms of influenza prevent them from per-
forming their jobs effectively.
(D) Most adults who are immunized against influ-
enza in order to avoid being infected are over
65 years old and retired and thus do not work
outside the home.
(E) Symptoms of an illness are often the body's
means of curing itself of the illness, and there-
fore suppression of symptoms can prolong the
illness that causes them.

25 Editorial
Critics of nuclear power complain about the allegedly
serious harm that might result from continued operation
of existing nuclear power plants. But such concerns do
not justify closing these plantsafter all, their operation
has caused no more harm than that caused by pollution
generated by coal-and oil-burning power plants, the
most important other sources of energy.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the
argument depends
(A) Existing nuclear power plants should be closed only
if it can be conclusively demonstrated that their
continued operation is likely to cause harm more
serious than the harm their operation has already
caused.
(B) Closing existing nuclear power plants would require
greatly increased reliance on coal-and oil-burning
power plants.
(C) The harm that has resulted from operation of
existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has
been significant.
(D) The harm that a nuclear power plant is likely to
cause as it continues to operate can be reliably
predicted from the past history of nuclear power
plants.
(E) The only harm that has resulted from operation of
existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has
resulted from the pollution generated by these
plants.



SECTION 4
Time 30 minutes
25 Questions

Questions 1-7

A museum will display seven statuesP, Q, R, S, T, U,
and Win two of its galleries, gallery 1 and gallery 2.
Exactly four of the statues will be displayed in gallery 1
and exactly three of the statues will be displayed in
gallery 2. The statues will be displayed according to the
following conditions:

U cannot be displayed in a gallery with W
Neither S nor T can be displayed in a gallery with R.

1.If U is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following
must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.
(C) S is displayed in gallery 1.
(D) T is displayed in gallery 2.
(E) W is displayed in gallery 1.

2.If S is displayed in gallery 2, the other two statues
displayed in gallery 2 can be
(A) P and Q
(B) P and T
(C) Q and T
(D) T and W
(E) U and W

3.If P is displayed in gallery 1 and W is displayed in
gallery 2, then the display in gallery 1 can include
any of the following pairs of statues EXCEPT
(A) Q and R
(B) Q and T
(C) Q and U
(D) R and U
(E) S and T

4.If P and Q are displayed in gallery 1, which of the
following is a statue that must also be displayed in
gallery 1?
(A) R
(B) S
(C) T
(D) U
(E) W

5.If S is displayed in gallery 1, which of the following
must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) Q is displayed in gallery 1.
(C) R and U are displayed in the same gallery as
each other.
(D) P and Q are not displayed in the same gallery as
each other.
(E) Q and R are not displayed in the same gallery as
each other.

6.If T is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following
is a pair of statues that CANNOT be displayed in the
same gallery as each other?
(A) P and S
(B) Q and R
(C) Q and W
(D) R and U
(E) T and W

7.If Q is displayed in the same gallery as S. Which of
the following must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.
(C) Q and S are displayed in gallery 2.
(D) P is displayed in the same gallery as W.
(E) R is displayed in the same gallery as U.

8 Drug manufacturer: Although our company requires
that patients who use our new drug also pur-
chase from us nonreusable kits for weekly
blood testing, the expense of those kits is an
entirely necessary one: weekly blood testing
must be done to monitor the drug's potential
side effects, which can be very dangerous.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weak-
ens the manufacturer's argument?
(A) The expense of purchasing the blood-test kits
has not prevented any patients from obtaining
them or the drug.
(B) Medical laboratories can perform the blood test-


ing at a lower cost to patients or their insurers
than the price the manufacturer charges for the
kits.
(C) A one-year supply of the drug and the weekly
blood-test kits can cost patients or their
insurers over $10,000.
(D) Most government and other health insurance
programs will not reimburse patients for the
full cost of both the drug and the blood-test
kits.
(E) Patients who suffer one or more of the danger-
ous side effects of the drug can incur heavy
expenses for the treatment of those side effects.

9 Virginia and her brother William disagree over when
their father was born: Virginia claims it was in 1935
and William claims it was in 1933. The hospital
where their father was born has no records for 1933
but has complete records for 1935records that do
not include a birth record for their father. Therefore,
he must have been born in 1933.

The argument depends on which of the following
assumptions?
(A) Either Virginia's claim or William's claim is
correct.
(B) The records of the hospital where their father
was born date back to 1933.
(C) Virginia and William know the day and the
month of their father's birth.
(D) There are urgent practical reasons why Virginia
and William must know the date of their
father's birth.
(E) None of their other relatives knows the year in
which Virginia and William's father was born.

10. RESULTS OF TWO SURVEYS OF OPINIONS
REGARDINGTHE EFFECTS OF SCIENCE OF
HUMAN SOCIETY

Responses August 1991 August 1992

Mostly beneficial 25% 81%

Equally harmful 37% 9%
and beneficial

Mostly harmful 20% 7%

No opinion 18% 3%

Which of the following, if true, contributes most to
explaining the shift in opinions about the effects of science
on human society?
(A) The surveys questioned people who regularly watch
prime-time television, and an innovative weekly
prime-time television series called "Wonders of
Science"had been steadily winning viewers since its
widely seen premiere in January 1992.
(B) The surveys questioned college-educated adults, and a
report called "The State of the Nation's Schools,"
published in June 1992, noted an increase in students
interest in science courses since 1982.
(C) The surveys were conducted in a suburban shopping
area near a company that ceased operation in April
1992 as a result of lawsuits arising from unexpected
toxic effects of the company's products.
(D) Both survey forms were mailed to equally large
samples of the population; after returning the 1991
survey forms, respondents were sent discount
coupons for food products, and after returning the
1992 survey forms, respondents were sent a pamphlet
on recycling.
(E) The surveys questioned first-year college students
across the country, and the people who did the
questioning were all research scientists.

Questions 11-17
A science reporter will make a trip to visit exactly six
archaeological sitesQuin, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Vara, and
Xilat. The reporter must visit the sites one at a time in
accordance with the following conditions:

The reporter visits each site exactly once.
The reporter's trip begins at Quin or else at Xilat.
The reporter's trip ends at Vara or else at Xilat.
The reporter visits Vara immediately after visiting Sud.
The reporter visits Sud at some time after visiting Ram.

11.Which of the following is a list of the sites in an
order in which the reporter can visit them, from the
first site visited to the last site visited?


(A) Quin, Ram, Sud, Vara, Xilat, Tunin
(B) Quin, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Ram, Xilat
(C) Ram, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Quin, Xilat
(D) Xilat, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Quin, Vara
(E) Xilat, Tunin, Ram, Quin, Sud, Vara

12.If Sud is visited immediately after Quin is visited,
which of the following can be the second site visited?
(A) Quin
(B) Sud
(C) Tunin
(D) Vara
(E) Xilat

13.If Tunin is visited as late in the trip as possible,
which of the following must be the third site visited?
(A) Quin
(B) Ram
(C) Sud
(D) Vara
(E) Xilat

14.If Tunin is visited before Xilat is visited and if
exactly one site is visited between the visit to Tunin
and the visit to Xilat, which of the following must be
true?
(A) Quin is visited second.
(B) Ram is visited third.
(C) Sud is visited fourth.
(D) Vara is visited fifth.
(E) Xilat is visited sixth.

15.If Xilat is visited immediately after Ram is visited.
Which of the following must be true?
(A) Quin is visited at some time after Tunin is
visited.
(B) Ram is visited at some time after Quin is visited.
(C) Tunin is visited at some time after Ram is
visited.
(D) Tunin is visited at some time after Sud is
visited.
(E) Xilat is visited at some time after Sud is visited.

16.If Ram is the fourth site visited, which of the follow-
ing must be true?
(A) Quin is the first site visited.
(B) Tunin is the second site visited.
(C) Tunin is the third site visited.
(D) Vara is the sixth site visited.
(E) Xilat is the sixth site visited.

17.Which of the following can be true?
(A) Quin is the fifth site visited
(B) Ram is the fifth site visited.
(C) Sud is the second site visited.
(D) Xilat is the second site visited.
(E) Xilat is the fifth site visited.

Questions 18-22
Eight representativesGold, Herrera, Jones, Karami,
Lowell, Nakamura, Orson, and Porterwill be scheduled
to present information at four project meetings: W, X, Y
and Z. Each representative will be scheduled for exactly
one meeting, and at least one representative will be
scheduled for each meeting. The meetings will be held
one at a time, one after another. The order of the meet-
ings and the schedule of representatives for the meetings
must meet the following conditions:

Meeting W is held first, and exactly three representa-
tives are scheduled for it.
Meeting X is held at some time before meeting Y.
Gold and Herrera are both scheduled for meeting X.
Karami is scheduled for meeting Z.
Orson is scheduled for the same meeting as Porter.

18.If the meetings are scheduled in the order W, X, Y,
Z, which of the following can be the schedule of
representatives for the meetings?
W X Y Z
(A) Gold lowell Orson Karami
Herrera Nakamura Porter
Jones
(B) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura
(C) Jones Gold Nakamura Orson
Loweil Herrera Porter Karami
(D) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura
(E) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura



19.If Orson is scheduled for meeting Y, which of the
following can be true?
(A) Gold is scheduled for the same meeting as
Jones.
(B) Herrera is scheduled for the same meeting as
Lowell.
(C) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.
(D) Karami is scheduled for the third meeting.
(E) Lowell is scheduled for the fourth meeting.

20.If Gold and Jones are both scheduled for the third
meeting, which of the following must be true?
(A) Herrera is scheduled for the first meeting.
(B) Lowell is scheduled for the first meeting.
(C) Porter is scheduled for the first meeting.
(D) Karami is scheduled for the same meeting as
Nakamura.
(E) Lowell is scheduled for the same meeting as
Nakamura.

21.If Nakamura is scheduled for the third meeting and
Karami is scheduled for the fourth meeting, which of
the following must be true?
(A) Herrera is scheduled for the second meeting.
(B) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.
(C) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Y.
(D) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Z.
(E) Porter is scheduled for meeting Y.

22.If no other representative is scheduled for the meeting
for which Jones is scheduled, any of the following
can be true EXCEPT:
(A) Jones is scheduled for the third meeting.
(B) Lowell is scheduled for the second meeting.
(C) Nakamura is schedule for the fourth meeting.
(D) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Z.
(E) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Y.

23 The town of San Leonardo has recently enacted a law
banning smoking in all restaurants within town limits.
Since many smokers who normally dine in San
Leonardo's restaurants will not want to refrain from
smoking during their meals, San Leonardo's restau-
rants will undoubtedly lose many patrons and con-
siderable income.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to
strengthen the argument above?
(A) Most residents of San Leonardo who eat in res-
taurants are not smokers.
(B) Most smokers who dine in the company of non-
smokers are willing to refrain from smoking
during their meals.
(C) If the law banning smoking in restaurants had
not been enacted, it is likely that a more
stringent law banning smoking in all public
places in San Leonardo would have been
enacted instead.
(D) Prior to the enactment of the law banning
smoking in San Leonardo's restaurant, the
town had a law that required most restaurants
to have nonsmoking sections.
(E) None of the other communities adjacent to San
Leonardo, which have restaurants comparable
to those of San Leonardo, has enacted and
enforces any antismoking legislation.

24. Children whose biological parents both have Tic
Syndrome Z (TSZ), which is characterized by the
involuntary contraction of certain muscles, are about
four times more likely to develop such contractions
than are children whose biological parents do not
have TSZ, It is likely, therefore, that predisposition
to TSZ is an inherited trait.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen
the conclusion above?
(A) Children whose parents have TSZ are more
likely to develop TSZ if they are under unusual
stress at school or at home than if they are not
under such stress.
(B) Children whose biological parents do not have
TSZ are more likely to develop TSZ if they are
raised by adoptive parents with TSZ than if
they are raised by their biological parents.
(C) Children whose biological parents have TSZ are
as likely to develop TSZ if they are raised by
adoptive parents who do not have TSZ as if
they are raised by their biological parents.
(D) Children whose biological parents have TSZ and
who develop TSZ usually avoid developing a
severe form of the syndrome if they seek


treatment for TSZ shortly after developing the
first signs of it.
(E) Children with TSZ whose biological parents do
not have TSZ are less likely to have the syn-
drome diagnosed when symptoms first appear
than are children with TSZ whose biological
parents have TSZ.

25.Playing eighteenth-century music on the instruments of
that period provides valuable information about how the
music originally sounded. Eighteenth-century instruments
cannot be played without being restored, however, and
restoring such an instrument destroys all of the information
that researchers could obtain from it about eighteenth-
century instrument-making techniques.

If the statements above are true, which of the following
must be true on the basis of them?
(A) Eighteenth-century instruments cannot be used to
provide information about the original techniques
used in playing such instruments if they have
been restored.
(B) Eighteenth-century instruments that have been
restored can provide information only about how
eighteenth-century music originally sounded
(C) Eighteenth-century instruments are the only source
of information about the instrument-making tech-
niques of that period.
(D) An eighteenth-century instrument that has not been
restored can provide more information than can
one that has been restored.
(E) An eighteenth-century instrument cannot serve as a
source of new information about eighteenth-century
instrument-making techniques once it can be played

SECTION 5
Time 30 minutes
30 Questions
To the nearest hundredth, t = 3.14 and 10 = 3.16
1. t
2
10

A marble is to be drawn at random from a bag that
contains 2 yellow marbles, 4 blue marbles, 6 green
marbles, and no other marbles.
2. The probability that the The probability that the
marble drawn will be marble drawn will be
green yellow or blue

3.
3
1
250

2
1
250


x + y + n = 15
x + y + k = 9
4. n k 6

In the rectangular coordinate system, line k passes
through the points (0,0) and (4,8); line m passes through
the points (0,1) and (4,9).
5. The slope of line k The slope of line m

The vertices of an equilateral triangle are on a circle.
6. The length of a side The diameter of
of the triangle the circle
7.
11
1
0.09

XQY and ZYR are equilateral triangles, and the ratio of ZR
to PR is 1 to 4.
8. The perimeter of XQY The perimeter
of parallelogram PXYZ


9. x + y 2(x + y)

In a certain store, computer X costs 30 percent more
than computer Y, and computer Y costs 30 percent
more than computer Z.
10. The cost of computer X The cost of computer Y
minus the cost of minus the cost of
computer Y. computer Z.

x
2
y < 0
11. xy 0


12. y 4x

m is a positive integer less than 4.

13. (m + 2)
m
m
2 + m


1
1

x
x
=
x
1

x= 1
14. x -
2
1


The median of 10, 15, x, and y is 18.5, and x<y.
15. x 22

16. The cost, is dollars, for and appliance repair at a certain
company is 1.2p + 20h, where p is the wholesale price of
the parts, in dollars, and h is the number of hours it takes
to repair the appliance. What is the cost of repairing an
appliance if the wholesale price of the parts is $15 and it
takes 2 hours to repair it?
(A) $12
(B) $18
(C) $20
(D) $40
(E) $58

17. For what value of x will 8 + (x -3)
2
have the least
value?
(A) 3
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 8

18. How many integers from 3 to 30, inclusive, are odd?
(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16
(E) 17



19. In the figure above, ABCE is a square. What are the
coordinates of point B?
(A) (-4,2)
(B) (-2,4)
(C) (-2,6)
(D) (4, -6)
(E) (6,-2)

20. 3.7(10
7
) =
(A) 370,000
(B) 3,700,000
(C) 37,000,000
(D) 370,000,000
(E) 3,700,000,000



Questions 21-25 refer to the following graph.


21. For how many of the years shown after 1950 was there a
decrease from the previous year in the number of
registered cars?
(A) Nine
(B) Eight
(C) Seven
(D) Six
(E) Five

22. The ratio of the population per registered car in 1985 to
that in 1975 was most nearly
(A) 0.55
(B) 0.65
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.85
(E) 0.95

23. From 1972 to 1985, the percent increase in the number
of registered cars was most nearly
(A) 60%
(B) 50%
(C) 45%
(D) 35%
(E) 15%

24. From 1950 to 1985, the population of Country X
increased by approximately how many million people?
(A) 45
(B) 80
(C) 165
(D) 200
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

25. If the number of registered cars were to increase yearly
through the year 2000 at the same average annual rate
shown for the period 1981-1985, for which of the
following years would the number of registered cars be
closest to 76 million?
(A) 1995
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998
(E) 1999

26. A rectangular field is 400 feet long and 300 feet wide. If
a square field has, the same perimeter as the rectangular
field, what is the length, in feet, of each side of the square
field?
(A) 175
(B) 350
(C) 2 200
(D) 2 350
(E) 3 100



27. The expressions in the table above give the distance of
each of two trains from Centerville at t hours after 12:00
noon. At what time will the trains be equidistant from
Centerville?



(A) 1:30 p.m.
(B) 3:30 p.m.
(C) 5:10 p.m.
(D) 8:50 p.m.
(E) 11:30 p.m.

28. In 1982, if the 1.8 billion dollars collected as child
support payments was only 10 percent of the total
court-ordered payments due, approximately how many
billion dollars of court-ordered payments for child
support were not collected?
(A) 1.6
(B) 14.4
(C) 16.2
(D) 17.2
(E) 18.0



29. If each shaded circular region in the figure above has
radius 5, then the total area of the shaded regions is what
fraction of the area of the square region?
(A)
12
t

(B)
36
t

(C)
60
t

(D)
6
1

(E)
3
1

30. If
x 4
1
+
y
1
=
3
1

\
|
x
1
+
|
|
.
|
y
1
, what is the ratio of x to y?
(A) 3 to 4
(B) 2 to 3
(C) 1 to 2
(D) 1 to 8
(E) 1 to 9s
SECTION 6
Time 30 minutes
38 Questions

1. Some activists believe that because the health-care
system has become increasingly---- to those it
serves, individuals must ---- bureaucratic impedi-
ments in order to develop and promote new therapies.
(A) attuned.. avoid
(B) inimical.. utilize
(C) unresponsive ..circumvent
(D) indifferent.. supplement
(E) sensitized.. forsake

2. The acts of vandalism that these pranksters had
actually ---- were insignificant compared with those
they had ---- but had not attempted.
(A) hidden .. renounced
(B) advocated .. meditated
(C) inflicted .. dismissed
(D) committed .. effected
(E) perpetrated .. contemplated

3. Though one cannot say that Michelangelo was an
impractical designer, he was, of all nonprofessional
architects known, the most ---- in that he was the
least constrained by tradition or precedent.
(A) pragmatic
(B) adventurous
(C) empirical
(D) skilled
(E) learned

4. Before adapting to changes in values, many prefer to
----, to ---- the universally agreed-on principles
that have been upheld for centuries.
(A) innovate .. protect
(B) resist ..defend
(C) ponder .. subvert
(D) vacillate ..publicize
(E) revert .. ignore

5. Although the records of colonial New England are
---- in comparison with those available in France
or England, the records of other English colonies in
America are even more ----.


(A) sporadic.. irrefutable
(B) sparse.. incontrovertible
(C) ambiguous.. authoritative
(D) sketchy.. fragmentary
(E) puzzling .. unquestionable

6. High software prices are frequently said to -------
widespread illegal copying, although the opposite
--- that high prices are the cause of the copying -- is
equally plausible.
(A) contribute to
(B) result from
(C) correlate with
(D) explain
(E) precede

7. Because early United States writers thought that the
mark of great literature was grandiosity and elegance
not to be found in common speech, they ---- the
vernacular.
(A) dissected
(B) avoided
(C) misunderstood
(D) investigated
(E) exploited

8. OBSTRUCT: PROGRESS::
(A) reveal: information
(B) polish: illumination
(C) implicate: guilt
(D) inspire: artistry
(E) stunt: growth

9. INTERVIEW: APPLICANT::
(A) recital: pianist
(B) exercise: athlete
(C) audition: actor
(D) manuscript: writer
(E) flight plan: pilot

10. COMBUSTIBLE: IGNITE::
(A) impermeable: saturate
(B) impenetrable: pierce
(C) malleable: shape
(D) rigid: stretch
(E) sterile: extract

11. SLACKEN: TENSION::
(A) rarefy: expansion
(B) blunt: sharpness
(C) obscure: cloudiness
(D) quicken: animation
(E) oscillate: rotation

12. BIGOT: TOLERANCE::
(A) scoundrel: misdeed
(B) liar: honesty
(C) brat: annoyance
(D) outcast: respect
(E) snitch: information

13. IMPROVEMENTS: MASTERY::
(A) efforts: exertion
(B) savings: wealth
(C) performance: talent
(D) practice: intention
(E) diversification: proficiency

14. DILETTANTE: SUPERFICIALITY::
(A) partisan: bias
(B) crusader: passivity
(C) libertarian: authority
(D) champion: restlessness
(E) sage: argumentativeness

15. WINNOW: CHAFF::
(A) ferment: alcohol
(B) skim: cream
(C) pare: fruit
(D) refine: oil
(E) filter: impurities

16. STANZA: LINE::
(A) essay: theme
(B) scene: monologue
(C) play: vignette
(D) volume: issue
(E) concert: program






(This passage is adapted from an article published in 1981.)

The term "remote sensing" refers to the techniques of
measurement and interpretation of phenomena from a dis-
tance. Prior to the mid-1960's the interpretation of film
images was the primary means for remote sensing of the
(5) Earth's geologic features. With the development of the
optomechanical scanner, scientists began to construct digital
multispectral images using data beyond the sensitivity range
of visible light photography. These images are constructed
by mechanically aligning pictorial representations of such
(10)phenomena as the reflection of light waves outside the vis-
ible spectrum, the refraction of radio waves, and the daily
changes in temperature in areas on the Earth's surface.
Digital multispectral imaging has now become the basic
tool in geologic remote sensing from satellites.
(15) The advantage of digital over photographic imaging is
evident: the resulting numerical data are precisely known,
and digital data are not subject to the vagaries of difficult-
to-control chemical processing. With digital processing, it is
possible to combine a large number of spectral images. The
(20)acquisition of the first multispectral digital data set from
the multispectral scanner (MSS) aboard the satellite
Landsat in 1972 consequently attracted the attention of the
entire geologic community. Landsat MSS data are now
being applied to a variety of geologic problems that are
(25)difficult to solve by conventional methods alone. These
include specific problems in mineral and energy resource
exploration and the charting of glaciers and shallow seas.
A more fundamental application of remote sensing is to
augment conventional methods for geologic mapping of
(30)large areas. Regional maps present compositional, struc-
tural, and chronological information for reconstructing
geologic evolution. Such reconstructions have important
practical applications because the conditions under which
rock units and other structural features are formed influence
(35)the occurrence of ore and petroleum deposits and affect the
thickness and integrity of the geologic media in which the
deposits are found.
Geologic maps incorporate a large, varied body of spe-
cific field and laboratory measurements, but the maps must
(40)be interpretative because field measurements are always
limited by rock exposure, accessibility and labor resources.
With remote-sensing techniques it is possible to obtain
much geologic information more efficiently than it can be
obtained on the ground. These techniques also facilitate
(45)overall interpretation. Since detailed geologic mapping is
generally conducted in small areas, the continuity of
regional features that have intermittent and variable expres-
sions is often not recognized, but in the comprehensive
views of Landsat images these continuities are apparent.
(50)However, some critical information cannot be obtained
through remote sensing, and several characteristics of the
Landsat MSS impose limitations on the acquisition of diag-
nostic data. Some of these limitations can be overcome by
designing satellite systems specifically for geologic pur-
(55)poses; but, to be most effective, remote-sensing data must
still be combined with data from field surveys and labora-
tory tests, the techniques of the earlier twentieth century.

17.By using the word "interpretative"in line 40, the
author is indicating which of the following?
(A) Some maps are based more on data from aerial
photography than on data from field operations.
(B) Some maps are based almost exclusively on labor-
atory measurements.
(C) Some maps are based on incomplete data from
field observations.
(D) Some maps show only large geologic features.
(E) Some maps can be three-dimensional.

18. With which of the following statements about geologic
mapping would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) Geologic mapping is basically an art and not a
science.
(B) Geologic mapping has not changed significantly
since the early 1960's.
(C) Geologic mapping will have limited practical
applications until remote-sensing systems are
perfected.
(D) A developmental milestone in geologic mapping
was reached in 1972.
(E) Without the present variety of remote-sensing
techniques, geologic mapping could not be done.

19. According to the passage, measurements of which of
the following can be provided by the optomechanical
scanner but not by visible-light photography?
(A) The amount of visible light reflected from oceans
(B) The density of foliage in remote areas on the
Earth's surface
(C) Daily temperature changes of areas on the Earth's


surface.
(D) The degree of radioactivity emitted by exposed
rocks on the Earth's surface.
(E) Atmospheric conditions over large landmasses

20. It can be inferred from the passage that a major disad-
vantage of photographic imaging in geologic mapping
is that such photography
(A) cannot be used at night
(B) cannot focus on the details of a geologic area
(C) must be chemically processed
(D) is always enhanced by digital reconstruction
(E) cannot reflect changes over extended periods of time

21. It can be inferred from the passage that Landsat images
differ from conventional geologic maps in that Landsat
images
(A) reveal the exact size of petroleum deposits and ore
deposits
(B) indicate the continuity of features that might not
otherwise be interpreted as continuous
(C) predict the movements of glaciers
(D) provide highly accurate data about the occurrence
of mineral deposits
(E) reveal the integrity of the media in which petro-
leum deposits and ore deposits are found

22. The passage provides information about each of the
following topics EXCEPT
(A) the principal method of geologic remote sensing
prior to the mid-1960's
(B) some of the phenomena measured by digital multi-
spectral images in remote sensing
(C) some of the practical uses of regional geologic
maps
(D) the kinds of problems that are difficult to solve
solely through conventional methods of geologic
mapping
(E) the specific limitations of the Landsat multi-
spectral scanner

23. The passage suggests which of the following about the
"conventional methods" mentioned in line 29?
(A) They consist primarily of field surveys and
laboratory measurements.
(B) They are not useful in providing information
necessary for reconstructing geologic evolution
(C) They have rarely been used by geologists since
1972.
(D) They are used primarily to gather compositional
information about geologic features.
(E) They are limited primarily because of difficulties
involved in interpreting film images.

Although the development of new infrastructure (such
public facilities as power plants, schools, and bridges ) is
usually determined by governmental planning, sometimes
this development can be planned more flexibly and realis-
(5) tically by private investors who anticipate profit from the
collection of user fees. Such profits can contribute to the
financing of more infrastructure if demand proves great
enough, whereas the reluctance of developers to invest in
such projects can signal that additional infrastructure is not
(10)needed. During the economic boom of the 1980's, for
example, the state of Virginia authorized private developers
to build a $300 million toll road. These developers obtained
the needed right-of- way from property owners, but by 1993
they still had not raised the necessary financing. The unwill-
(15)ingness of investors to finance this project does not negate
the viability of privately financed roads; rather, it illustrates
a virtue of private financing. If a road appears unlikely to
attract enough future traffic to pay for the road, then it
should not be built.

24.The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) build a case for increasing the development of
new infrastructure
(B) advocate an alternative to government financing of
infrastructure
(C) explain the failure of a privately financed venture
(D) suggest the types of infrastructure most appro-
priate for private financing
(E) argue against government restrictions on devel-
oping new infrastructure

25. The passage implies that the governmental planning
mentioned in line 3 may lead to which of the following
problems?
(A) Improper use of profits derived from user fees
(B) Unduly slow development of necessary new
infrastructure
(C) Unrealistic decisions about developing new


infrastructure
(D) Incorrect predictions about profits to be gained
from user fees
(E) Obstruction of private financing for the devel-
opment of new infrastructure

26. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of the toll road mentioned in line 12?
(A) After it was built, it attracted too little traffic to
pay for its construction.
(B) It was partially financed by the state of Virginia.
(C) Its development was authorized during an eco-
nomic boom.
(D) Its construction was controversial among local
residents.
(E) Its developers were discouraged by governmental
restrictions on acquiring the necessary land.

27. The passage suggests that which of the following
would occur if a privately financed bridge that proved
to be profitable failed after a number of years to meet
the demands of traffic?
(A) Private developers who financed the bridge would
rely on governmental authorities to develop new
infrastructure.
(B) User fees would be increased so that usage would
become more costly.
(C) Governmental authorities would be reluctant to
rely on private contractors to develop a new
bridge.
(D) The success of the project would be jeopardized
by public dissatisfaction with the project's
adequacy.
(E) Profits generated by user fees would be used to
help finance the construction of new infrastruc-
ture to alleviate the traffic problem.

28. EVOKE:
(A) try to hinder
(B) fail to elicit
(C) refuse to implore
(D) pretend to agree
(E) attempt to calm

29. OSTENTATION:
(A) austerity
(B) wisdom
(C) illumination
(D) superficiality
(E) agitation

30. BRISTLE:
(A) cower
(B) feint
(C) equivocate
(D) coerce
(E) apprise

31. AGGRANDIZE:
(A) conciliate
(B) undermine
(C) relegate
(D) remain unapologetic
(E) remain inexplicit

32. ENDEMIC:
(A) undeniable
(B) intermittent
(C) anomalous
(D) foreign
(E) unexpected

33. BELLICOSE:
(A) enervated
(B) disloyal
(C) honest
(D) likely to be generous
(E) inclined to make peace

34. ABJURE:
(A) affirm
(B) cajole
(C) insist
(D) pronounce
(E) shout

35. SALUTARY
(A) unexpected
(B) transitory
(C) unhealthy
(D) disoriented
(E) dilapidated



36. LUGUBRIOUSNESS:
(A) orderliness
(B) shallowness
(C) believability
(D) cheerfulness
(E) dedication

37. PRESCIENCE:
(A) acuity
(B) myopia
(C) vacillation
(D) tardiness
(E) inhibition

38. INVETERATE:
(A) arbitrary
(B) occasional
(C) obvious
(D) progressive
(E) compelling